DAILY PRACTICE PAPER (DPP) - Goal institutegoalinstitute.org/imagebag/image288.pdfMEDICAL DPP - 14 [NEET] 2020 - 02 B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001 Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

Set - 14

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INSTRUCTIONS

(i) This Paper has 180 questions. All questions are compulsory.

(ii) The Maximum marks for each question is 4.

(iii) 1 mark will be deducted against each negative response from the total marks.

(iv) Use of calculator, slide rule, graph paper and trignometric tables isNOT PERMITTED.

[ Time : 3.00 Hours ] [ Max. Marks : 720 ]TEST CODE : GOAL/DPP - 14 [NEET] 2020

B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001, Website: www.goalinstitute.org

DAILY PRACTICE PAPER (DPP)

PHYSICS , CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY

for

NEET - 2020

Help Line : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

GOAL I I T - J E EMEDICAL DPP - 14 [NEET] 2020 - 02B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

DAILY PRACTICE PAPER (DPP) FOR NEET - 2020 [SET - 14]

[Time : 3.00 Hours] Full Marks : 720

01. The position of a particle is given by

r = ( i + 2 j – k)

momentum P = (3 i + 4 j – 2k)

.

The angular momentum is perpendicular to

(1) x-axis

(2) y-axis

(3) z-axis

(4) Line at equal angles to all the three axes

02. A balloon rises from rest with a constantacceleration g/8. A stone is released from it whenit has risen to height h. The time taken by thestone to reach to ground is

(1)h

4g (2)

h2

g (3)2hg (4)

g

h

03. A body is projected horizontally from a height withspeed 20 metres/sec. What will be its speed after5 second (g = 10 metres / sec2)

(1) 54 metres/sec (2) 20 metres/sec

(3) 50 metres/sec (4) 70 metres /sec

04. When forces F1,F2,F3 are acting on a particle ofmass m such that F2 and F3 are mutuallyperpendicular, then the particle remainsstationary. If the force F1 is now removed thenthe acceleration of the particle is

(1) F1/m (2) F2F3 / mF1(3) (F2 – F3) / m (4) F2 / m

05. A motor car has a width 1.1 m between wheels.Its centre of gravity is 0.62 m above the groundand the coefficient of friction between the wheelsand the road is 0.8. What is the maximum possiblespeed, if the center of gravity inscribes a circle ofradius 15 m? (Road surface is horizontal)

(1) 7.64 m/s (2) 6.28 m/s

(3) 140.84 m/s (4) 11.23 m/s

06. The slope of kinetic energy displacement curveof a particle in motion is

(1) Equal to acceleration of the particle

(2) Inversely proportional to the acceleration

(3) Directly proportional to the aceelration

(4) None of the above

07. The ratio of the radius of the earth to that of themoon is 10. The ratio of acceleration due togravity on the earth and on the moon is 6. Theratio of the escape velocity from the earth’ssurface to that from the moon is

(1) 10 (2) 6 (3) Nearly 8 (4) 1.66

08. Which of the following statements is correct:

(1) Hooke’s law is applicable only within elasticlimit

(2) the adiabatic and isothermal elastic constantsof a gas are equal

(3) Young’s modulus is dimensionless

(4) stress multiplied by strain is equal to thestored energy

09. The hight upto which water will rise in a capillarytube will be

(1) Maximum when water temperature is 4ºC

(2) Maximum when water temperature of 0ºC

(3) Minimum when water temperature is 4ºC

(4) Same at all temperatures

10. Three identical vessels are filled to the sameheight with three different liquids A, B and C

( A B C ). The pressure at the base will be

(1) Eual in all vessels

(2) Maximum in vessel A

(3) Maximum in vessel B

(4) Maximum in vessel C

11. The figure shows a glass (linear co-efficient ofexpansion is ) completely filled with a liquid ofvolume expansion co-efficient . On heatinglength of the liquid column does not change.Choose the correct relation between and

(1) A0

0

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4)

3

12. The r.m.s. velocity of a gas at a certain

temperature is 2 times than that of the oxygen

molecules at that temperature. The gas can be

(1) H2 (2) He

(3) CH4 (4) SO213. An engineer claims to have made an engine

delivering 10 kW power with fuel consumption of1 gs–1. The calorific value of fuel is 2k cal/g. Hisclaim

(1) Is non-valid (2) Is valid

(3) Depends on engine (4) Depends on load


14. The two opposite faces of a cubical piece of iron(thermal conductivity = 0.2 CGs units) are at100ºC and 0ºC in ice. melted in 10 minutes willbe (length of side = 2cm)

(1) 30 gm (2) 300 gm (3) 5 gm (4) 50 gm

15. AThe period of a block suspended from the upperplate of a parallel plate capacitor by a spring ofstiffness k is T. When block is uncharged. If acharge q is given to the block then, the new timeperiod of oscillation will be

(1) T (2) >T (3) V

V

V

V

> E

> E

< E

E

18. If resistance ofthe filament increases withtemperature, what will be power dissipated in a220 V- 100 W lamp when connected to 110 V powersupply

(1) 25 W (2) < 25 W

(3) > 25 W (4) None of these

19. A charged particle of mass m and charge q travelson a circular path of radius r that is perpendicularto a magnetic field B. The time taken by theparticle to complete one revolution is :

(1)2 mq

B

(2)

22 q B

m

(3)

2 qB

m

(4)

2 m

qB

20. A tangent galvanometer shows a deflection 45º when10 mA current pass through it. If the horizontalcomponent of the earth’s field is 3.6 × 10–5 T andradius of the coil is 10 cm. The number of turnsin the coil is

(1) 5700 turns (2) 57 turns

(3) 570 turns (4) 5.7 turns

21. If in a coil rate of change of area is 25 metre

milli second

and current become 1 amp from 2 amp in 2 × 10–3

s. If magnetic field is 1 Tesla then self inductanceof the coil is

(1) 2 H (2) 5 H

(3) 20 H (4) 10 H

22. In an LCR cirucit R = 100 ohm. When capacitanceC is removed, the current lags behind the voltage

by /3. When inductance L is removed, the

current leads the voltage by /3. The impedanceof the circuit is

(1) 50 ohm (2) 100 ohm

(3) 200 ohm (4) 400 ohm

23. Five elements A, B, C, D and E have workfunctions 1.2 eV, 2.4 eV, 4.8 eV and 6 eVrespectively. If light of wavelength 4000Å isallowed to fal l on these elements, thenphotoelectrons ae emitted by

(1) A, B and C (2) A, B, C, D and E

(3) A and B (4) Only E

24. The radioactivity of a given sample of whisky dueto tritium(half life 12.3 years) was found to be only3% of that measured in a recently purchase bottlemarked “7 years old”. The sample must have beenprepared about

(1) 220 years back (2) 300 years back

(3) 400 years back (4) 70 years back

25. For given electric voltage signal dc value is

(1) 6.28 V (2) 3.14 V

(3) 4 V (4) 0 V

26. A point object is placed mid-way between twoplane mirrors distance ‘a’ apart. The plane mirrorforms an infinite number of images due tomultiple reflection. The distance between the nthorder image formed in the two mirrors is

(1) na (2) 2na (3) na/2 (4) n2a


27. A parallel beam of light emerges from the oppositesurface of the sphere when a point source of lightlies at the surface of the sphere. The refractiveindex of the sphere is

(1) 3/2 (2) 5/3 (3) 2 (4) 5/2

28. A body of mass 10 kg is dropped to the ground froma height of 10 metres. The work done by thegravitational force is (g = 9.8m/sec2)

(1) –490 Joules (2) +490 Joules

(3) –980 Joules (4) +980 Joules

29. A tuning fork and a sonometer wire were soundedtogether and produce 4 beats per second. Whenthe length of sonometer wire is 95 cm or 100 cm,the frequency of the tuning fork is

(1) 156 Hz (2) 152 Hz (3) 148 Hz (4) 160 Hz

30. Two tuning forks A and B vibrating simultaneouslyproduce 5 beats. Frequency of B is 512. It is seenthat if one arm of A is filed, then the number ofbeats increases. Frequency of A will be

(1) 502 (2) 507 (3) 517 (4) 522

31. The equation 22

(x,t) jsin vt cos x

represents

(1) Transverse progressive wave

(2) Longitudinal progressive wave

(3) Longitudinal stationary wave

(4) Transverse stationary wave

32. An empty vessel is partially filled with water, thenthe frequency of vibrationof air column in thevessel

(1) Remains same

(2) Decreases

(3) Increases

(4) First increases then decreases

33. In Searle’s method for finding conductivity ofmetals, the temperature gradient along the bar

(1) Is greater nearer the hot end

(2) Is greater nearer to the cold end

(3) Is the same at all points along the bar

(4) Increases as we go from hot end to coil end

34. An air capacitor is connected to a battery. Theeffect of filling the space between the plates witha dielectric is to increase

(1) The charge and the potential difference

(2) The potential difference and the electric field

(3) The electirc field and the capacitance

(4) The charge and the capacitance

35. In a capacitor of capacitance 20 F , the distancebetween the plates is 2mm. If a dielectric slab of

width 1 mm and dielectric constant 2 is insertedbetween the plates, then the capacitance is

(1) 2 F (2) 15.5 F (3) 26.6 F (4) 32 F

36. Work done in the given P-V diagram in the cyclicprocess is

(1) PV (2P,V) (2P,2V)

(P,2V)(P,V)

P

V

(2) 2 PV

(3) PV/2

(4) 3 PV

37. Which of the following graph depicts springconstant k versus

(1)

k

l

(2)

k

l

(3)

k

l

(4)

k

l

38. Work function of lithium and copper arerespectively 2.3 eV and 4.0 eV. Which one of themetal will be useful for the photoelectric cellworking with visible light? (h = 6.6 ×10–34 J-s,c =3 × 108m/s)

(1) Lithium (2) Copper

(3) Both (4) None of these

39. A capacitor of capacitance 5µF is connected asshown in the following figure. The internalresistance of the cell is 0.5. The amount ofcharge on the capacitor plates is:

2.5V

2

11

5 F

(1) 7.5 C (2) 10 C (3) 6.25 C (4)5 C

40. Microscope is an optical instrument which

(1) Enlarges the object

(2) Increases the visual angle formed by the objectat the eye

(3) Decreases the visual angle formed by theobject at the eye

(4) Brings the object nearer

41. If in compound miroscope m1 and m2 be the linearmagnification of the objective lens and eye lensrespectively, then magnifying power of thecompound microscope will be

(1) m1 – m2 (2)

1 2m m(3) 1 2m m /2 (4) m1 × m2


42. A bomb of 12 g explodes into two pieces of masses4 kg and 8 kg. The velocity of 8 kg mass is 6 m/sec. The kinetic energy of the other mass is

(1) 48 J (2) 32 J (3) 24 J (4) 288 J

43. A frictionless track ABCDE ends in a circular loopof radius R. A body slides down the track from pointA which is at a height h = 5 cm. Maximum valueof R for the body to successfully complete the loopis

(1) 5 cm

(2)15

cm4

(3)10

cm3

(4) 2cm

44. The displacement equation of a particle is x = 3sin 2t + 4 cos 2t. The amplitude and maximumvelocity will be respectively

(1) 5, 10 (2) 3, 2 (3) 4, 2 (4) 3, 4

45. Velocity at mean position of a particle executingS.H.M is , they velocity of the particle at adistance equal to half of the amplitude

(1) 4 (2) 2 (3)3

V2

(4)3

V4

46. The screening effect of d-electrons is-

(1) Much less than s-electrons

(2) Much more than s-electrons

(3) Equal to s-electrons

(4) Equal to p-electrons

47. OHH

Rearranged alkene product after rearrangementwill be (mainly) –

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

48. Equivalent mass of H2O2 when it disproportionatesis -

(1) M (2)M

2(3)

3M

4(4)

M

349. The yellow colour of ZnO and conducting nature

produced in heating is due to –

(1) Metal excess defects due to interstitial cation

(2) Extra positive ions present in an interstitialsite

(3) Trapped electrons

(4) All

50. A B

H H

CH CH2 3 CH CH2 3

A and B are -

(1) A – Na/Liq. NH3, B – CH2N2,h

(2) A – Ni/H2, B – CH2 = C = O, h

(3) A – Lindlar’s catalyst, B – CH2I2/Zn

(4) All of the above

51. According to the Lewis acid-base concept–

(1) Species in which the central atom hascompleted octet cannot act as an acid

(2) Negatively charged ions are acids

(3) Molecule in which a central atom has vacantd-orbitals available acts as an acid

(4) All positively charged ions are bases

52. The product obtained in thereaction,

CH3Cl

+ NaOH

(1) 2-methyl phenol

(2) 3-methyl phenol

(3) Mixture of 2-and 3-methyl phenol

(4) All of these

53. Which of the following statement is/are true –

(I) Borazine is aromatic

(II) There are four isotopic disubstitutedborazinemolecules B3N3H4X2

(III) Bborazine is more reactive towards additionreaction than benzene

(IV) Banana bonds in B2H6 are longer but strongerthan normal B-H bonds

(1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV

(3) I, II, III and IV (4) Only II


54. Which of the following are isomorphous withNaNO3(1) KNO3 (2) CaCO3(3) KCIO3 (4) All of these

55. In the reaction 2 3 2 5VO Fe O FeO V O ,

the Eq. Wt. of V2O5 is equal to its –

(1) Mol.Wt. (2) Mol. Wt./8

(3) Mol.Wt./6 (4) None of these

56. The major product of the following reaction is –

Me Br

F

NO2

PhS–

Na

dimethyl formamide

(1)

Me Sph

F

NO2

(2)

Me Sph

F

NO2

(3)

Me Br

Spn

NO2

(4)

Me Sph

Sph

NO2

57. Surface tension of Lyophilic sol is

(1) Lower than that of dispersion medium

(2) More than that of dispersion medium

(3) Equal to that of dispersion medium

(4) None of these

58. 1 mol of N2 and 4 mol of H2 are allowed to react ina vessel and after reaction, H2O is added. Aqueoussolution required 1 mol of HCl. Mol fraction of H2in the remaining gaseous mixture after reactionis –

(1)1

6(2)

5

6(3)

1

3(4) None

59. Which of the following reaction does not takeplace?

(1) OCH3CH3

Br

KNH2liq.NH3

(2) Cl + aq. KOH

(3) Cl + alc. KOH

(4)

Cl

300ºC+ NaOH

200 atm

60. 5.6 L of gas at STP weighs equal to 8 g. The vapourdensity of the gas is

(1) 32 (2) 16 (3) 64 (4) 8

61. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can bedetermined by –

(1) Evaluating rate constant at standardtemperature

(2) Evaluating velocities of reaction at twodifferent temperatures

(3) Evaluating rate constants at two differenttemperatures

(4) Changing concentration of reactants

62. Addition of common salt to a sample of water will–

(1) Increase its freezing point and increases theboiling point

(2) Decrease its freezing point and increase theboiling point

(3) Increase both the boiling and the freezing point

(4) Decrease both the boiling and the freezingpoint

63. What is product of the following reaction?

Cl

Br

MgEt O2

?

(1)

MgCl

Br(2)

Cl

MgBr

(3) (4) None of these


64. If uncertainity in position and momentum andequal, then uncertainity in velocity is –

(1)h

(2)

h

2(3)

1 h

2m (4) None

65. If º º 02 1 3 2 3 2Fe /Fe Fe /Fe Fe /FeE isx ,E is x then E will

be :

(1) 3x2 – 2x1 (2) x2 – x1(3) x2 + x1 (4) 2x1 + 3x2

66. Among the following species, identify theisostructural pairs–

–3 3 3 3 3NF ,NO ,BF ,H O ,HN

(1) –3 3 3 3[NF ,NO ] and [BF ,H O ]

(2) –3 3 3 3[NF ,HN ] and [NO ,BF ]

(3) 3 3 33[NF ,H O ] and [NO ,BF ]

(4) 3 3 3 3[NF ,H O ] and [HN ,BF ]

67. CH I3Excess

AKOH

B

NH2

then B will be-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

68. The statement that is not correct for theperiodicclassification of elements is –

(1) The properties of elements are the periodicfunctions of their atomic numbers

(2) Non-metallic elements are lesser in numberthan metallic elements

(3) The first ionization energies of elements alonga period do not very in a regular manner withincrease in atomic number

(4) For transition elements the d-sub shells arefilled with electrons monotonically withincrease in atomic number

69. Consider the following two reaction sequences.

PhC CH

1.BH32. H O /OH2 2

Aq.HgSO4H SO2 4

P

Q

The two products (P) and (Q) are, respectively,

(1) PhCOCH3 and PhCH2CHO

(2) PhCH2CHO and PhCH2CHO

(3) PhCH2CHO and PhCOCH3(4) PhCOCH3 and PhCOCH3

70. The number of photons of light having wave

number ‘x’ in 2J of energy source is –

(1) 2hcx (2)hc

2x(3)

2

hcx(4)

2x

hc

71. Which of the following trihalide and hydrolysedby nucleophilic attack of water?

(I) BF3 (II) NF3 (III) PCl3 (IV)AsCl3(1) Only 1 (2) Only 2

(3) Both (3) and (4) (4) Both (1) and (3)

72. In the given reaction :

CH – CH – CH3 2

O

(i) CH MgBr3(ii) HOH/H+ [X] ; [X]

–

will be -

(1) CH – CH – CH OH3 2

CH3

(2) CH – CH – CH CH3 2 3

OH

(3) CH – C –CH3 3

CH3

OH

(4) 3 2CH – CH CH

73. Among 2 2 2 2KO ,AlO ,BaO and NO unpaired

electron is present in –

(1) 2 2NO and BaO (2) 2 2KO and AlO

(3) KO2 only (4) BaO2 only

74.

CH3

O C CH— — 3

CH3

O

Product. Which of the

following is the product –

(1)

CH3

CH3

(2)

CH2

CH3

(3)CH3

CH3

(4)

CH375. Which of the following expession does not give

root mean square velocity -

(1)

1

23RTM

(2)

1

23PDM

(3)

1

23PD

(4)

1

23PVM


76. An antibiotic with a broad spectrum–

(1) Kills the antibodies

(2) Acts on a specific angtigens

(3) Acts on different antigens

(4) Acts on both the antigens and antibodies

77. CH – C – CH3 3

O

I2Na CO2 3

(A)Ag Powder

H SO2 4Hg

B Product A, B & C are –

(1) Iodoform, Acetylene & Acetaldehyde

(2) Tri. iodomethane, Ethyne & Acetone

(3) Idooform, Ethene & Ethylene glycol

(4) Ethane, iodoform & Ethylhydrogensulphate

78. Addition of excess of ammonium chlorideammonia buffer to a solution containing nitratesof Al, Bi, Mg and Zn will percipitate hydroxides of–

(1) Al nd Bi (2) Al and Zn

(3) Zn and Mg (4) Al, Bi and Zn

79. The final product [D] of the reaction is –O EtOH 2moleMeMgBr2

3 hCHCl [A] [B]

CaOCl (aq.)2[C] [D]

(1) COCl2 (2) CH3COCH3(3) (CH3COO)2Ca (4) (CH3CH2COO)2Ca

80. A sulphide ore is generally roasted to the oxidebefore reduction, because –

(1) The enthalpy of formation of CO2 is more thanthat of CS2

(2) A metal sulphide is generally more stable thanthe metal oxide

(3) No reducing agent is found suitable forreducing a sulphide ore

(4) A sulphide ore cannnot be reduced at all

81. The pH of blood is 7.4. if the blood cantain H2CO3and 3HCO

, what is the ratio of conjugate base to

acid (H2CO3) to maintain the pH of the blood equalto 7.4 ?

Given: PKa1 of H2CO3 = 6.4

(1) 10 (2)1

10(3) 100 (4) 8

82. The complex that violates the EAN rule –

(1) Potassium ferrocyanide

(2) Potassium ferricyanide

(3) Tetra carbonyl Nickel

(4) Cabalt (III) hexamine chloride

83. When KMnO4 is titrated againstFeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O the equivalent mass ofKMnO4 is –

(1) Molecular mass/10 (2)Molecular mass/5

(3) Molecular mass/2 (4) Molecular mass

84. In the below experiment, the value of P is –

Partitionremoved atsametemperature

1mol gas A 2mol gas B Pressure

250 mm 250mm P

(1) 250 mm (2) 500 mm

(3) 300 mm (4) 400 mm

85. In the following compounds –OH OH

CH3

OH

NO2

OH

NO2I II III IV

The order of acidity is –

(1) III > IV > I > II (2) I > IV > III > II

(3) II > I > III > IV (4) IV > III > I > II

86. The ratio of KP/KC for the reaction:

2 2CO(g) 1/2 O (g) CO (g) is – (1) 1.0 (2) RT

(3) 1/ RT (4) (RT)1/2

87. Under certain conditions, the value of G for a

hypothetical reaction, X + Y Z is grater thanzero, then –

(1) The reaction has tendency to proceed towardsZ

(2) The reaction has attained equilibrium

(3) Increase in temperature increases the yieldof product Z

(4) X and Y predominate in the final mixture

88. The correct order of basicities of the followingcompound is –

(1) CH – C3NH2

NH

(2) 3 2 2CH CH NH

(3) 3 2(CH ) NH (4) CH – C – NH3 2

O

89. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and carbonmonoxide are – 393.5 and – 283 kJ mol–1

respectively. The enthalpy of formation of carbonmonoxide per mole -

(1) 110.5 kJ (2) 676.5 kJ

(3) – 676.5 kJ (4) – 110.5 kJ


90. In the given reaction CH – CH = CH2 2

Br

NaNH2

[X] , [X] will be -

(1) 3CH C CH (2) 2 2CH C CH

(3)3CH C CNa

Θ(4)

2CH C CHNa

Θ

91. Diseases like citrus canker is related to

(1) Archaebacteria (2) Euabacteria

(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Actinomycetes

92. Algal cell wall is made up of

(1) Cellulose only

(2) Cellulose and pectin

(3) Cellulose, Galactans, Mannans and mineralslike calcium carbonate

(4) Chitin

93. Which of the following is absent in polluted

water:

(1) Hydrila (2) Water hyacinth

(3) Larva of Stone fly (4) BGA

94. First national park of india:

(1) Kanha (2) Periyar

(3) Ranthambore (4) Jim Corbett

95. Select the mismatch:

(1) Physical basis - Skin

(2) Cytokine barrier – Interferon

(3) Physiological – Eosinophils

(4) Cellular barriers – Neutrophils.

96. Spore of moss on germination form

(1) Sporophyte

(2) Leafy stage gemetopyte

(3) Protonema

(4) Prothallus

97. In which of the following structure ribosome isabsent

(1) Mitochondira (2) chloroplast

(3) Leucocyte (4) Viruses

98. Cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cell is not involved in

(1) Mechanical support

(2) Osmosis

(3) Motility of cell

(4) Shape of cell

99. A, B and C are three members of kingdom Fungi.A is an edible member; B is extensively used ingenetic while C is a parasitic fungi on mustard.Identify A, B and C.

(1) A - Truffels, B-Neurospora, C- Claviceps

(2) A- Morels, B- Puccinia, C- Alternaria

(3) A- Yeast, B- Ustilago, C- Claviceps

(4) A- Morels, B- Neurospora, C - Albugo.

100. Infectious protein without nucleic acid causes–

(1) Elka & Kuru in man

(2) Potato spindle tuber disease

(3) Dengue

(4) Cauliflower mosaic disease

101. Incorrect for pteridophyta is

(1) Have multicellular well differentiatedsporophyte

(2) Ephemeral gametophyte

(3) Selaginella and Pteris are heterosporous

(4) Ferns are macrophyllous

102. Which of the following shows convergent evolutionwith flippers of Penguin?

(1) Flippers of Dolphins

(2) Flippers of Whales

(3) Both of the above

(4) None of the above.

103. In malaria, sporogony is observed in :

(1) Liver of human (2) Blood of human

(3) RBC of human (4) Mosquito

104. On the basis of sign and symptoms, identify thedisease

[Abdominal pain, blood in stool, fever and cramps,constipation]:

(1) Filariasis (2) Amoebiasis

(3) Ringworm (4) Malaria

105. ‘Trans’ face of Golgi apparatus is also called -

(1) Maturing face (2) Lysosomes

(3) Lateral face (4) Forming face

106. Membrane fluidity

(1) Decreases with rise in temperature

(2) Decreases with lowering of temperature

(3) Increases with lowering of temperature

(4) No effect observed wrt. temperature

107. The number of bivalent in prophase -I of meiosisis 10. How many chromosomes will be inanaphase -II of meiosis at each pole

(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 40

108. Colchicine treated cells are arrested in

(1) Prophase (2) G1- Phase

(3) S - Phase (4) Metaphase

109. Filliform apparatus is a characteristic feature of

(1) Suspensor (2) Egg

(3) Synergid (4) Zygote


110. How many chromosome are present in fruit andegg cell if endosperm has 33 chromosomes andpollen grain has 10 chromosome

(1) 22, 11 (2) 21, 11 (3) 30, 12 (4) 32, 10

111. Selfing of dihybird will produce

(1) 8 different gametes & 8 different Zygote


(3) 4 differnet gametes & 8 different Zygote


112. Tailing of hn RNA will occur by addititon of

(1) Guanylate residues (200-300)

(2) Cytidylate residues (200-300)

(3) Adenylate residues (200-300)

(4) Thymidylate residues (200-300)

113. Which structure enables proteins to function asenzymes

(1) Primary (2) Secondary

(3) Tertiary (4) Both (2) & (3)

114. When synapsis is completed, the cell enters astage celled.

(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene

(3) Dipolene (4) Diakinesis

115. Single leaf arised at each node of:

(1) Neem (2) Sunflower

(3) Calotropis (4) Alstonia

116. The growth of human population shows:

(1) Sigmid growth curve

(2) J-shaped growth curve

(3) Fluctuating growth curve

(4) Linear growth curve

117. Connell’s elegant field experiments are relatedto :

(1) Paramecium (2) Baranacles

(3) Viruses (4) Protozons

118. -1 antitrypsin produced in biotechnology is :

(1) An acid

(2) An enzyme which is non-degradable

(3) Used to treat arthritis

(4) Used to treat emphysema

119. Correct sequence of cytochrome is ETS is :

(1) Cyt b, c, a, a3 (2) Cyt a, a3, b, C

(3) Cyt b, c1, c, a –a3 (4) Cyt c, b, c1, a, a3120. Micelles are formed in :

(1) Intestinal lumen (2) Gastric lumen

(3) Enterocyte (4) Lacteal

121. Residual volume is about :

(1) 1200 ml (2) 2300 ml

(3) 4600 ml (4) 3000 ml

122. Three chambered heart is found in :

(1) Birds and reptiles

(2) Amphibians and fishes

(3) Reptiles and mammals

(4) Amphibians and reptiles.

123. noxygenic and oxygenic photosynthesis isrespectively shown by :

(1) Chlorella and Nostoc

(2) Anabaena and Chlorobium

(3) Chlorobium And Nostoc

(4) BGA and Angiosperm

124. Exponential growth in plants can be expressed as:

(1) Lt = Lo × rt (2) Lt = Lo + rt

(3) Wt = Wo × ert (4) Wt = Woe

rt

125. Some plants require the exposure to light for aperiod exceeding a well defined critical durationsuch plants are :

(1) Say neutral

(2) Short day

(3) Long day

(4) Intermaediate day lengh plants

126. The C4 plants are photosynthetically moreefficient than C3 platns because :

(1) CO2 efflux in not prevented

(2) They have kranz anatomy or dimorphicchloroplast

(3) CO2 compensation point is more

(4) CO2 is generated during photosynthesis

127. Some improved breeds of animals are shown.select the option with correct identification.

A B

A B

(1)

(2)

(3)(4)

Yorkshire Karaknath

Murrah

Surti

Jersey

Ayrshire

Tellicherry

Leghorm


128. __________ is essential for water splitting reactionin photosynthesis :

(1) Copper (2) Boron

(3) MOlybdenum (4) Chlorine

129. A cell is treated with chemical that interfereswith the activity of microfilament which of thefollowing will probably be affected the most :

(1) Formation of spindle fibres

(2) Division of cytoplasm

(3) Chromosome duplication

(4) Pairing of homologous chromosome

130. The longest phase of cell cycle is

(1) G1 – Phase (2) Interphase

(3) S – Phase (4) M – Phase

131. All of the following are composed exclusively offlucose except

(1) Lactose (2) Amylose

(3) Maltose (4) Cellulose

132. Mark the odd one out w.r.t. life span & Fruitproduction

(1) Strobilanthus (2) Bambusa

(3) Triticum (4) Agave

133. Ecotone is :

(1) A polluted area

(2) The bottom of a lake

(3) A zone of transition between two community

(4) A zone of developing community

134. With regard to ecological food chain, man is a :

(1) Consumer

(2) Producer

(3) Decomposer

(4) Both consumer and producer

135. Which one is correct :

(1) In last 500 year 784 species extincted

(2) Stellar sea cow and tiger have recentlybecome extinct

(3) In last 200 years 27 species disappear

(4) More than one correct

136. First translated codon of mRNA binds to whichanticodon

(1) 3’UAC5’ (2) 5’ UAC 3’

(3) 3’ UAU 5’ (4) 5’ CAU 3’

137. Activatiors of alcohol denydrogenase andnitrogenase are respectively

(1) Zn, Mn (2) Zn Mo (3) Mo, Zn (4) Mn,Zn

138. Some beneficial elements required by higherplants are

(1) Sodium, Silicon, Cobalt, Selenium

(2) Sodium, Cobalt, Potassium

(3) Sodium, Suilicon, Chloride, Sulpher

(4) Sodium, Silicon, Copper, Iron

139. Which one of the following is not a majorcharacteristic feature of biodiversity hot spots:

(1) Large number of species

(2) Abundance of endemic speicies

(3) Mostly located in the polar region

(4) Mostly located in temperat region

140. Which is always present in photochemical smong:

(1) O3 (2) CO2 (3) SO3 (4) CH4141. Select the correct match :

Organism Phylum Feature

(1) Apis Insecta Three pairs of jointed legs

(2) Neries AnnelidaOrgan level of organisatio

(3) Ancylostoma Aschelminthes Pseudocoelomate

(4) Balanoglossus Chordata Open type circulation

142. How many of the given organs/tissue performsexcretory function in invertebrates ?

(1) Two (2) Three (3) four (4) Five

143. Chaetopleura is themember of phylum A. B is thelargest class of phylum A. identify A and B:

(1) A-Mollusca, B- Gastropoda

(2) A - Ascheminathes, B - Nematoda

(3) A - Ascheminthes, B- Nematomorpha

(4) A - Ascheminthes, B-Nematomorpha

144. Radula is found in ______(phylum) and is meantfor ______(function).

(1) Mollusca, respiration

(2) Echinodermata, respiration

(3) Mollusca, feeding

(4) Echinodermata, excretion.

145. Which type of cell junction facilitate the rapidtransfer of ions and small molecules :

(1) Interdigitations (2) Gap junctions

(3) Tight junctions (4) dhering junctions

146. Clitellar region in earthworm is located in

(1) 9th, 10th and 11th (2) 12th, 13th and 14th

(3) 14th, 15th and 16th (4) 19th, 20th and 21th

147. The species of plants that play a vital role incontrolling the relative abundance of otherspecies in a community are called.

(1) Edge species (2) Keystone speices

(3) Pioneer species (4) Seral species


148. In a mutational event, when adenine is replacedby guanine it is a case of :

(1) Transcription (2) Transition

(3) Transversion (4) Framehift mutation

149. If maximum weight of lemon is 100 g andminimum weight is 40g. What will be the weightof lemon veriety with AaBBcc genotype:

(1) 60 g (2) 70 g

(3) 80 g (4) 30 g

150. Which of the following is not biotechonologicalproduct :

(1) Humulin (2) Golden Rise

(3) DNA vaccine (4) Rubber latex

151. Incorrect about cockroach:

(1) Uricotelic

(2) Open type circulatory system

(3) Dioecious with sexual dimorphism

(4) Mushroom glands located in 3rd – 6th

abdominal segments.

152. Read the following statements:

(I) Mucosa faces the lumen of FIT.

(II) Invertase acts upon sucrose.

(III) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and wateroccurs in PCT

(IV) Glycosuria and ketonuria indicates diabetesmellitus.

How many statements are true?

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) One (4) Four

153. Incorrect about cortical nephrons:

(1) Associated with vasa recta

(2) More numerous than juxta medullarynephrons

(3) Associated with loop of Henle

(4) Both (1) and (3) are incorrect

154. Functional unit of muscle contraction is ________and is between two ______.

(1) Muscle fibre, Dark band

(2) Muscle fibre, Z-line

(3) Sarcomere, Z-line

(4) Sarcomere, Light band

155. Tarsals are ______ in number and are found in_____.

(1) 8, wrist (2) 7, wrist (3) 8, ankle (4) 7, ankle

156. Select the mismatch :

(1) Fovea centralis – Maximum visual acquity

(2) Stapes – Attached to fossa ovalis

(3) Amygdala – Part of limbic system

(4) Corpus callosum – Tract of nerve fibres.

157. Select the correct statement :

(1) Source of pepsinogen and HCl are different.

(2) Corpus luteum is maintained byprogesterone.

(3) Glucagon is a peptide hormone secreted bypancreatic cells

(4) Thymosins are steroid hormones.

158. Which iorgan is not having a signifcant role inexcretion?

(1) Skin (2) Liver (3) Lungs (4) Thyroid

159. Read the following statements:

A. Perimetrium is the external thick fibrouslayer of uterus.

B. Spermatogenesis starts before birth.

C. Each breast is having 15-20 mammarylobules.

How many statements are true?

(1) None (2) One

(3) Two (4) All

160. Select the haploid stage during spermatogenesis:

(1) Spermatid

(2) Primary spermatocyte

(3) Spermatogonia A

(4) Spermatogonia B

161. Gonadotropins involve A and B. In males, Astimulates C cells to release D hormone while Bstimulates E cells to release inhibin hormone.Select the option with correct identification:

(1) B = FSH, C = Sertoli cells

(2) A = FSH, B = LH

(3) C = Leydig cells, A = LH

(4) D = Androgens, E = Leydig cells

162. Which mode of contraception works on theprinciple of prevention of ovulation?

(1) Condom (2) Diaphragm

(3) Mala-D (4) Vasectomy

163. Select the set of copper IUDs :

(1) Cu-7, LNG -20

(2) Multiload 375, Cu-T

(3) LNG-20, Cu-T

(4) Multiload 375, LNG-20

164. Which of the following is chemical component ofSaheli, a contraceptive pill?

(1) Progesterone

(2) Oestrogen

(3) Progesterone + Estrogen

(4) Centchroman


165. Diagram of female reproductive system ofcockroach is given. Select the option withincorrect identification of labelled organs:

1

2

34

5

678

(1) 3 - Ovary, 4 - oviduct

(2) 1 - Ootheca, 2 - Gonapophysis

(3) 5 - Common oviduct (vagina), 8 - Vestibulum.

(4) 6 - Collateral glands, 7 - Genital chamber

166. In the given diagram, section of human eye isshown with few labellings (P-S). Which of thefollowing is not correctly related with its function/feature?

R

S

Q

P

(1) Q is the photosensitive layer.

(2) R is the point of minimum visual acquity asretina is deficient.

(3) P is responsible for the power ofaccommodation.

(4) S represents the entrance point for retinalblood vessels.

167. Which one provide index to plant species foundin a particular area?

(1) Floral (2) Manual

(3) Catalogue (4) Monograph

168. Find the correct match. wrt body organsation

(1) Fungi – Multicellular / tissue

(2) Plantae – Tissue/Organ system

(3) Protista – Cellular/Loose tissue

(4) Animalia – Tissue/Organ/Organ system

169. The fungus that is extensively used forbiochemical andgenetic work has

(1) Endogenous asexual spores

(2) Exogenous sexual spores

(3) Haplontic life cycle

(4) Edible fruiting body

170. 8-16 celled stage of embryonic developmentistermed as :

(1) Morula (2) Blastula

(3) Gastrula (4) Neurula

171. During which month of embryonic stages, firstmovements and appearance of hair on headoccur–

(1) 3rd month (2) 4th month

(3) 5th month (4) 6th month

172. Select the mismatch:

(1) Origin of first non-cellular forms of life –3bya

(2) Disappearance of dinosaurs –65 mya

(3) experimental proof of theory of chemicalorigin of life –1953

(4) Origin of vertebrates – 1500 mya

173. Mouse and marsupial mouse are examples of :

(1) Same adaptive radiations

(2) Different adaptive radiations

(3) Prototherians

(4) Eutherians.

174. Given dagram is of hypothalamic pituitary axis.Select the option which indicates the source ofoxytocin.

P

Q

R

S(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S

175. Which of the following is example of adaptiveradiation?

(1) Darwin’s finches

(2) Australian marsupials

(3) Placental mammals in Australia

(4) All of the above.

176. Which of the following is not the property ofmalignant tumors?

(1) Metastasis

(2) Uncontrolled division

(3) Contact inhibition

(4) Both (1) and (3)


177. All of the following are derivatives of Cannabissativa except one:

(1) Marijuana (2) Hashish

(3) CArack (4) Ganja

178. Hisardale is produced by breeding of :

(1) Deoni cows X Brown Swiss bulls

(2) Bikaneri ewes X Merino rams

(3) Sahiwal cows X Red Dana bulls

(4) Angora male goats (Bucks) X Toggenbergfemale goats (Does)

179. In which plant/plant groups, given life cyclepattern is observed?

Syngamy

Sporophyte(2n)

Meiosis

Zygote(2n)

Gametophyte(n)

Gametogenesis Haplo-diplonticSpores

(n)

(1) Bryophytes, Pteriodophytes

(2) Algae, Gymnosperms

(3) Angiosperms, Gymnosperms

(4) Algae, Angiosperms.

180. In the given diagram, thre plants A, B, and C aremodified for storage. Identify the correctstatement:

A B C

(1) A, B and C - all are modifications of stem

(2) A and B are modifications of tap root

(3) A and C are modifications of adventitiousroots

(4) C is modification of tap root.


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DPP-2020 (TEST PAPER - 14)Answer Key

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DAILY PRACTICE PAPER (DPP) - Goal institutegoalinstitute.org/imagebag/image288.pdfMEDICAL DPP - 14 [NEET] 2020 - 02 B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001 Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67