FAR’s for Instrument Flying

FAR’s for Instrument Flying

FAR 1

FAR 61

FAR 91

NTSB 830

FAR 1Definitions & Abbreviations

ATC - A service operated by an appropriate authority to promote safe, orderly and expeditious flow of traffic

Alternate AirportArea navigation - means of navigation

that can provide any desired course.Category I, II, III


Ceiling - lowest layer of cloud or obscuring phenomena classified as broken, overcast, or obscuration: not listed as thin or partial

Controlled Airspace - A, B, C, D, EDecision Height - height at which a decision

must be made. ILS, PARFlight Level


Flight Visibility - average horizontal forward distance from the cockpit.

Ground Visibility - prevailing horizontal visibility near surface as reported by US NWS or an accredited observer.

IFR conditions - not VFR below 1000 and 3


IFR over-the-top - maintain VFR over clouds, still IFR flight plan.

MDA - lowest MSL altitude to which descent is authorized associated with a non precision approach.

Non precision approach - no glideslopePrecision approach - with electronic

glideslope

Part 61

3, 51, 57, 133

FAR 61

61.3(e) - No person may act as PIC under IFR unless that person holds instrument rating for type of airplane flown.

FAR 61

61.51(g) - Logging time Only instrument time may be logged as

instrument time For recent instrument experience include

• Location and type of each approach• Safety pilot

A Sim or FTD may used if a CFII is present.

FAR 61

61.57 (C) - To act PIC under IFR, within preceding 6 calendar months: Logged 6 approaches Holding procedures Intercepting and tracking courses through use

of nav systems

Note: A Sim or FTD may be used.

FAR 61

61.57 (d) - Instrument Proficiency Check may be used instead of 6 approaches within 6 months. Given by CFII, examiner, check pilot. Note: a Sim or FTD may be used.

FAR 61

61.65 - Instrument Rating Requirements under Part 61

Part 91

3, 21, 103, 109, 113, 121, 123, 129, 131, 135, 155, 157, 159, 167, 169, 171, 173, 175, 177, 179, 181, 185, 187, 205, 211, 215, 411, 413

Part 91

91.3 - PIC is PIC91.21 - use of electronic devices that

may cause interference with nav systems is prohibited.(cell phones, stepping motors etc.)

91.103 - Latest info required, alternatives available, known traffic delays.

Part 91

91.167- Enough fuel to fly to first airport, then if an alternate is required, fly to alternate airport, then fly for 45 min after at normal cruising speed. An alternate is not required if 1 hr of ETA, 2000’ ceiling, 3 miles visibility.

Part 91

91.169 - To be an alternate, unless denoted by A in triangle on NOS charts Precision approach - 2 mi., 600’ Non precision approach - 2 mi., 800’ No approach - allow descent from MEA

to approach and landing under VFR

Part 91

91.185 - Comm Failure If VFR, remain VFR and land as soon as

practical.

Part 91

91.185 - Comm Failure If IFR

• Route– Last assigned– Radar vectored, direct to fix, route or

airway specified in vector clearance.– EFC– Filed

Part 91

91.185 - Comm Failure If IFR

• Altitude - Highest of – Last assigned– MEA– EFC

• Time– Commence approach as close as possible to

EFC or filed.

Part 91

91.205 Instrument and Equipment Readiness For IFR flight, navigation equipment must

be appropriate to ground facilities Above 24,000, DME required if using

VOR navigational equipment Need attitude indicator, heading indicator

and turn coordinator for IFR

Part 91

91.211 Supplemental Oxygen Above 15,000, each passenger must be

provided supplemental oxygen Above 14,000, required crew must use Between 12,500 and 14,000, oxygen

must be provided for time in excess of 30 minutes

Part 91

91.215 ATC Transponder and Altitude Reporting Equipment and use Must use Mode C Within Class B Within 30 NM of primary Class B airport Within and above Class C Above 10,000 ft MSL except below 2,500

AGL and in Class A airspace

91.215 Requests for deviations must be made to the

ATC Facility If transponder fails in flight, ATC may authorize

to continue to destination If transponder works, but Mode C does not you

may request a deviation If transponder inop, request 1 hr before flight

Part 91

91.411 Altimeter System and Altitude Reporting Equipment Test and Inspections Each static pressure system and altimeter

instrument must be tested by the end of the 24th month

NTSB 830

Accidents, incidents, overdue AC, and preservation of wreckage

Under which condition must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?A. For a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan.B. For any flight above an altitude of 1,200 feet AGL, when the visibility is less than 3 miles.C. When operating in class E airspace.

Under which condition must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?A. For a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan.

The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operatingA. under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight or in class A airspace.B. in weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight.C. under IFR in positive control airspace.

The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operatingA. under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight or in class A airspace.

Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?A. Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.B. All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground references.C. Only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions.

Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?A. Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.

What portion of dual instruction time may a certificated instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?A. Only the time during which the instructor flies the aircraft by reference to instruments.B. All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor, regardless of weather conditions.C. All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions.

What portion of dual instruction time may a certificated instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?C. All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions.

If a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot logbook as simulated instrument conditions, what qualifying information must also be entered?A. Name and pilot certificate number of safety pilot and type of approaches completed.B. Number and type of instrument approaches completed and route of flight.C. Location and type of each instrument approach completed and name of safety pilot.

If a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot logbook as simulated instrument conditions, what qualifying information must also be entered?C. Location and type of each instrument approach completed and name of safety pilot.

How long does a pilot remain current for IFR flight after successfully completing an instrument competency check if no further IFR flights are made?A. 6 months.B. 90 days.C. 12 months.

How long does a pilot remain current for IFR flight after successfully completing an instrument competency check if no further IFR flights are made?A. 6 months.

To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have logged within the preceding 6 calendar months in the same category of aircraft: six instrument approaches, A. and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft.B. three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft.C. holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems.

To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have logged within the preceding 6 calendar months in the same category of aircraft: six instrument approaches, C. holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems.

An instrument rated pilot, who has not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more, cannot serve as pilot in command under IFR, unless the pilotA. completes the required 6 hours and six approaches, followed by an instrument proficiency check given by an FAA-designated examiner.B. passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, followed by 6 hours and six instrument approaches, 3 of those hours in the category of aircraft involved.

C. passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, given by an approved FAA examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA inspector.

An instrument rated pilot, who has not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more, cannot serve as pilot in command under IFR, unless the pilotC. passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, given by an approved FAA examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA inspector.

To carry passengers for hire in an airplane on cross country flights of more than 50 NM from the departure airport, the pilot in command is required to hold at leastA. a First Class Medical certificate.B. a Category II pilot authorization.C. a Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

To carry passengers for hire in an airplane on cross country flights of more than 50 NM from the departure airport, the pilot in command is required to hold at leastC. a Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not hold an instrument rating?A. The carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM.B. The carrying of passengers for hire on cross country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.C. That person is limited to private pilot privileges at night.

Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not hold an instrument rating?B. The carrying of passengers for hire on cross country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.

Who is responsible for determining that the altimeter system has been checked and found to meet 14 CFR part 91 requirements for a particular instrument flight?A. Pilot-in-command.B. Owner.C. Operator.

Who is responsible for determining that the altimeter system has been checked and found to meet 14 CFR part 91 requirements for a particular instrument flight?A. Pilot-in-command.

The use of certain portable electronic devices is prohibited on aircraft that are being operated underA. VFR.B. DVFR.C. IFR.

The use of certain portable electronic devices is prohibited on aircraft that are being operated underC. IFR.

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot mustA. be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed.B. list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.C. list an alternate airport on the flight plan and become familiar with the instrument approaches to that airport.

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot mustA. be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed.

What are the minimum qualifications for a person who occupies the other control seat as safety pilot during simulated instrument flight?A. Private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft.B. Private pilot with instrument rating.C. Private pilot with appropriate category, class, and instrument ratings.

What are the minimum qualifications for a person who occupies the other control seat as safety pilot during simulated instrument flight?A. Private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft.

When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?A. Any time an emergency occurs.B. When priority has been given.C. When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?

B. When priority has been given.

While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?A. Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.B. Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency.C. Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.

While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?A. Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.

The aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace.A. Pilot must immediately request priority handling to proceed to destination.B. The pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class D airspace.C. No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace.

The aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace.C. No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace.

In addition to a VOR receiver and two way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?A. Another VOR and communications receiver and a coded transponder.B. Standby communications receiver, DME, and coded transponder.C. An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability.

In addition to a VOR receiver and two way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?C. An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability.

When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?A. Flight through an MOA.B. Flight into class A airspace.C. Flight into an ADIZ.

When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?B. Flight into class A airspace.

When is an IFR flight plan required?A. In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace.B. In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.C. When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace.

When is an IFR flight plan required?

B. In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?A. 3 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.B. 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.C. 5 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?A. 3 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.)A. 5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.B. 5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.C. 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.)B. 5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.

What are the minimum fuel requirements for airplanes in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,A. fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.B. and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.C. fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

What are the minimum fuel requirements for airplanes in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,A. fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CBFM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 060802008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=A. No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.

B. No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.C. Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.

Is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CBFM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 060802008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=A. No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.

When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?A. The landing minimums for the approach to be used.B. Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum; visibility 2 miles.C. 600 1 if the airport has an ILS.

When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?A. The landing minimums for the approach to be used.

What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an airport that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?A. 1,000 foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR.B. 800 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility.C. 800 foot ceiling and 1 statute mile (SM) visibility.

What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an airport that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?B. 800 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility.

What minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?A. From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.B. From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles.C. From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles.

What minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?A. From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.

What record shall be made in the aircraft log or other permanent record by the pilot making the VOR operational check?A. The date, place, satisfactory or unsatisfactory, and signature.B. The date, place, bearing error, and signature.C. The date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of flight hours since last check, and signature.

What record shall be made in the aircraft log or other permanent record by the pilot making the VOR operational check?B. The date, place, bearing error, and signature.

When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished to operate under IFR?A. Within the preceding 30 days.B. Within the preceding 10 days or 10 hours of flight time.C. Within the preceding 30 days or 30 hours of flight time.

When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished to operate under IFR?A. Within the preceding 30 days.

What is the maximum tolerance allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using a VOT?A. Plus or minus 6°.B. Plus or minus 8°.C. Plus or minus 4°.

What is the maximum tolerance allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using a VOT?C. Plus or minus 4°.

When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance beforeA. entering Class E airspace.B. entering IFR conditions.C. takeoff.

When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance beforeA. entering Class E airspace.

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight isA. 3,000 feet over designated mountainous terrain; 2,000 feet over terrain elsewhere.B. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.C. 3,000 feet over all terrain.

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is

B. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.

What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?A. Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.B. VOR receiver and, if in ARTS III environment, a coded transponder equipped for altitude reporting.C. VOR/LOC receiver, transponder, and DME.

What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?A. Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.

Where is DME required under IFR?A. In positive control airspace.B. Above 18,000 feet MSL.C. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.

Where is DME required under IFR?C. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.

An aircraft operated under 14 CFR part 91 IFR is required to have which of the following?A. Gyroscopic direction indicator.B. Radar altimeter.C. Dual VOR system.

An aircraft operated under 14 CFR part 91 IFR is required to have which of the following?A. Gyroscopic direction indicator.

What is the oxygen requirement for an unpressurized aircraft at 15,000 feet?A. All occupants must use oxygen for the entire time at this altitude.B. Crew must start using oxygen at 12,000 feet and passengers at 15,000 feet.C. Crew must use oxygen for the entire time above 14,000 feet and passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen only above 15,000 feet.

What is the oxygen requirement for an unpressurized aircraft at 15,000 feet?C. Crew must use oxygen for the entire time above 14,000 feet and passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen only above 15,000 feet.

What is the maximum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly for longer than 30 minutes without using supplemental oxygen?A. 10,500 feet.B. 12,500 feet.C. 12,000 feet.

What is the maximum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly for longer than 30 minutes without using supplemental oxygen?B. 12,500 feet.

In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and aboveA. 10,000 feet MSL.B. 12,500 feet MSL.C. Flight level (FL) 180.

In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and aboveA. 10,000 feet MSL.

When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within class B airspace?A. A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight.B. The proposed flight must be conducted in visual meteorological conditions (VMC).C. The proposed flight must be conducted when operating under instrument flight rules.

When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within class B airspace?A. A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight.

An aircraft altimeter system test and inspection must be accomplished withinA. 12 calendar months.B. 24 calendar months.C. 18 calendar months.

An aircraft altimeter system test and inspection must be accomplished withinB. 24 calendar months.

Which publication covers the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots?A. FAR Part 61.B. NTSB Part 830.C. FAR Part 91.

Which publication covers the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots?B. NTSB Part 830.

Documents

FAR’s for Instrument Flying