ForumIAS · 1/30/2019 · The paintings are not only on the walls but also on the ceiling and pillars. The paintings are ... agro- industries etc. for better price realization through

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Prelims Marathon

1st to 8th June,2020

HISTORY

ECONOMICS

POLITY

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

GEOGRAPHY AND ENVIRONMENT

PRELIMS MARATHON COMPILATION FOR THE MONTH OF JUNE (FIRST WEEK), 2020

Created with by ForumIAS.com – The Knowledge Network for Civil Services. Visit http//forumias.com New! http://forumiasacademy – Prelims & Mains Test Series

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History

Q.1) Consider the following pairs:

Ancient city : Adjacent River

1. Harappa : Ravi River

2. Mohenjo-Daro : Indus River

3. Lothal : Mahi River

Which of the above pair/pairs is /are correctly matched?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS) B

Explanation: The Indus Civilisation.

The Indus Civilization represents the earliest manifestation of urban development in

the plains of the Indus valley and its extension along the Arabian sea-coast.

The four principal settlements so far excavated provide the material to reconstruct

the cultural content of the civilization.

Two lie in Pakistan: Harappa, usually identified with Hariyupiya of the Rigveda, is

situated on an old bed (sukbrawa) of the river Ravi in Sahiwal District of Punjab,

and Mohenjo-daro (literally ‘mound of the dead’) is on the right bank of the Indus

river in Larkana District of Sind.

The other two sites are in western India; Lothal is situated on the Sabarmati river

at the head of the gulf of Cambay on the west coast of India, and Kalibangan

(literally ‘black bangles’) lies some 310 km north-west of Delhi along the left

bank of the now-dry Ghaggar (old Sarasvati) river in northern Rajasthan.

Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Pottery development” in

Harappan Civilization?

1. Both Plain and painted pottery was developed in Harappan cities.

2. Most of the potteries that have been found are being handmade.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) A

Explanation: Pottery development in Harappan Civilization.

Statement 1 is correct: The potteries found at the excavation sites can be broadly

classified into two kinds – plain pottery and painted pottery. The painted pottery is also

known as Red and Black pottery as it used red colour to paint the background and glossy

black paint was used to draw designs and figures on the red background. Trees, birds,

animal figures and geometrical patterns were the recurring themes of the paintings.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Most of the potteries that have been found are very fine

wheel-made wares, with a very few being handmade. Some examples of polychrome

pottery have also been found, though very rare.



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Q.3) Which of the following animals is/are found in the abacus of the “Sarnath Pillar”?

1. Horse

2. Elephant

3. Rhinoceros

4. Tiger


a) 1 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 2 and 3 only

ANS) C

Explanation: The abacus and the animal part of the Sarnath pillar forms the official

national emblem of India. In the abacus of the Sarnath pillar, four animals are shown

representing four directions – a galloping horse (west), a bull (east), an elephant

(south) and a lion (north). The animals seem to follow each other turning the wheel of

existence till eternity.

Q.4) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Stupas”?

1. Stupas were burial mounds prevalent in India from the Mauryan period.

2. During the period of Ashoka, the art of stupas reached its climax.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) B

Explanation: Stupas.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Stupas were burial mounds prevalent in India from the

Vedic period. It is a conventional representation of a funeral cumulus in which relics and

ashes of the dead were kept.

Statement 2 is correct: During the period of Ashoka, the art of stupas reached its

climax. Almost 84000 stupas were erected during his period. Although a Vedic tradition,

stupas were popularised by the Buddhists.

Q.5) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Sri Ranganathaswamy

Temple”?

1. Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple is one of the most illustrious lord Shiva temples in the

country.

2. It is situated on the island of Srirangam that is bounded by the two rivers of Cauvery

and Vellar.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) D

Explanation: Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple.



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Statement 1 is incorrect: Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple, also known as Thiruvaranga

Tirupati, is one of the most illustrious Vaishnav temples in the country, dedicated to

Ranganatha, a reclining form of Hindu deity, Bhagwan (God or Lord) Vishnu.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Situated in an ethereal setting on the island of Srirangam

that is bounded by the two rivers of Cauvery and Kollidam (a tributary of Cauvery), this

living temple and sacred centre of pilgrimage is counted as the first and foremost among the

108 Divya Desams dedicated to Bhagwan Vishnu.

Q.6) The terms, “rekha-prasada, phamsana, valabhi” is related to which of the following?

a) Nagara style of architecture

b) Dravida style of architecture

c) Vesara style of architecture

d) Panchayatan style of architecture

ANS) A

Explanation: There are many subdivisions of nagara temples depending on the shape of

the shikhara.

The most common name for the simple shikhara which is square at the base and

whose walls curve or slope inward to a point on top is called the 'latina' or the

rekha-prasada type of shikara.

The second major type of architectural form in the nagara order is the phamsana.

Phamsana buildings tend to be broader and shorter than latina ones.

The third main sub-type of the nagara building is what is generally called the

valabhi type. These are rectangular buildings with a roof that rises into a vaulted

chamber. The edge of this vaulted chamber is rounded, like the bamboo or wooden

wagons that would have been drawn by bullocks in ancient times. They are usually

called ‘wagonvaulted buildings’.

Q.7) Which of the following is/are NOT feature/features of “South Indian or Dravida Style

of temple”?

1. The dravida temple is enclosed in a wall.

2. At the entrance to the South Indian temple’s garbhagriha, it would be usual to find

images such as mithunas and the river goddesses like Kaveri and Krishna.

3. It is common to find a large water reservoir, or a temple tank, enclosed within the

complex.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 only

d) 2 and 3 only

ANS) C

Explanation: THE DRAVIDA OR SOUTH INDIAN TEMPLE STYLE.

Statement 1 is correct: Unlike the nagara temple, the dravida temple is enclosed within

a compound wall. The front wall has an entrance gateway in its centre, which is known as

a gopuram. The shape of the main temple tower known as vimana in Tamil Nadu is like a

stepped pyramid that rises up geometrically rather than the curving shikhara of North

India.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Whereas at the entrance to the North Indian temple’s

garbhagriha, it would be usual to find images such as mithunas and the river goddesses,



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Ganga and Yamuna, in the south you will generally find sculptures of fierce dvarapalas

or the door-keepers guarding the temple.

Statement 3 is correct: It is common to find a large water reservoir, or a temple tank,

enclosed within the complex.

Q.8) “Arivar Koil” cave paintings are located in which of the following state?

a) Kerala

b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Tamil Nadu

d) Karnataka

ANS) C

Explanation: Sittanavasal Cave (Arivar Koil) Paintings: Located 16 km northwest of

Pudukkottai town in Tamil Nadu, these famous rock-cut caves are known for the paintings

in the Jain temples. These murals have close resemblance to Bagh and Ajanta paintings.

The paintings are not only on the walls but also on the ceiling and pillars. The paintings are

with the theme of Jain Samavasarana (Preaching hall).

Q.9) “Tasvir Khana”- a formal artistic studio is established by which of the following?

a) Humayun

b) Akbar

c) Jahangir

d) Shah Jahan

ANS) B

Explanation: Tasvir Khana.

Akbar was responsible for establishment of an entire department devoted to the

paintings and scribing of his documents.

He established a formal artistic studio called Tasvir Khana where the artists

were hired on salary and they developed their own styles.

Akbar looked upon paintings as a means of study and amusement. He believed that

a painting could show the demeanor of the subject and regularly gave awards to

those painters who created lifelike images.

Q.10) The “Baluchari and Jamdani” traditional regional sarees are related to which of the

following State?

a) Uttar Pradesh

b) Karnataka

c) Tamil Nadu

d) West Bengal

ANS) D

Explanation: Hand-woven and hand stitched sarees of West Bengal including

Baluchari sarees, Swarnachari sarees, Jamdani sarees, Kantha sarees, Linen sarees,

Tussar sarees, Murshidabadi Silk sarees. Bengal sarees are known for their intricate motif

pattern and artistry.



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Economy

Q.1) Which of the following is/are “Salient feature/features of the Model Contract

Farming Act, 2018”?

1. Contract framing to be outside the ambit of APMC Act.

2. Contracted produce is to be covered under crop / livestock insurance in operation.

3. The act provides a simple and accessible dispute settlement mechanism at the lowest

level to settle disputes.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS) D

Explanation: With a view to integrate farmers with bulk purchasers including exporters,

agro- industries etc. for better price realization through mitigation of market and price risks

to the farmers and ensuring smooth agro raw material supply to the agro industries, Union

Finance Minister in the budget for 2017-18 announced preparation of a “Model Contract

Farming Act” and circulation of the same to the States for its adoption. Salient features of

the Model Contract Farming Act, 2018.

“Registering and Agreement Recording Committee” or an “Officer” for the purpose at

district/block/ taluka level for online registration of sponsor and recording of

agreement provided.

Contracted produce is to be covered under crop / livestock insurance in operation.

Contract framing to be outside the ambit of APMC Act.

No permanent structure can be developed on farmers’ land/premises

No right, title of interest of the land shall vest in the sponsor. Promotion of

Farmer Producer Organization (FPOs) / Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs) to

mobilize small and marginal farmers has been provided

FPO/FPC can be a contracting party if so authorized by the farmers.

No rights, title ownership or possession to be transferred or alienated or vested in

the contract farming sponsor etc.

Ensuring buying of entire pre-agreed quantity of one or more of agricultural

produce, livestock or its product of contract farming producer as per contract.

Contract Farming Facilitation Group (CFFG) for promoting contract farming and

services at village / panchayat at level provided.

Accessible and simple dispute settlement mechanism at the lowest level possible

provided for quick disposal of disputes.

It is a promotional and facilitative Act and not regulatory in its structure.

Q.2) Which of the following is/are constraint/constraints for development of integrated

value chain system of Agriculture sector?

1. Low public and private investments in agriculture since the early 1990s.

2. Inability to acquire land for setting up of market yards.

3. Poor maintenance of rural roads.


a) 1 only



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b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS) D

Explanation: constraint/constraints for development of integrated value chain

system of Agriculture sector.

1. Public and private investments in agriculture have remained low since the early 90s.

Bottlenecks in implementation and a high degree of uncertainty have further reduced

investor appetite for agricultural investments.

2. Inability to acquire land for setting up of market yards, resulting from the restrictions on

land leasing and land acquisition, is another major constraint.

3. Even the existing marketing infrastructure suffers because of a lack of finances,

manpower and proper facilities. Sub-market yards largely function as a location for

government procurement and do not provide opportunities for open auction. Further, they

are irregular in their operations and handle less than five per cent of the volume handled in

principal yards.

4. Poor maintenance of rural roads is a major constraint as well. Linkages with local and

feeder roads remain sub-optimal.

5. In the electricity sector, separate feeders for supply of power to agriculture and domestic

electrification have not been carried out in many states.

Q.3) With reference to the “Mechanization of Agriculture in India”, which of the following

statements is/are correct?

1. The overall farm mechanization in India is more than 50 percent.

2. Indian tractor industry is the largest in the world, accounting for one-third of the total

global production.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) B

Explanation: Mechanization of Agriculture in India.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Effective use of agricultural machinery helps to increase

productivity and production of farm output along with timely farm operations for quick

rotation of crops on the same land.

By raising a second crop or multi-crops from the same land, there is improvement in

the cropping intensity and making agricultural land commercially more viable

(NABARD, 2018).

However, overall farm mechanization in India has rather been lower (40-45 per

cent) compared to other countries such as USA (95 per cent), Brazil (75 per

cent) and China (57 per cent).

Statement 2 is correct: Indian tractor industry is the largest in the world, accounting

for one-third of the total global production. During the past four decades, the tractor

industry grew at a compounded annual growth rate (CAGR) of 10 per cent.

Q.4) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Micro-irrigation

Development in India”?

1. Area covered under micro-irrigation gradually increased from last ten years.



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2. A Micro Irrigation Fund (MIF) created with NABARD with an initial corpus of Rs.500

crore facilitating the States in mobilizing the resources for expanding coverage of Micro

Irrigation.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) D

Explanation: Micro-irrigation Development in India.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Area covered under micro-irrigation from 2010-11 to 2014-15

was declining and gradually increased from 2015-16 to 2018-19.

Statement 2 is incorrect: A dedicated Micro Irrigation Fund (MIF) created with

NABARD has been approved with an initial corpus of Rs. 5000 crore facilitating the

States in mobilizing the resources for expanding coverage of Micro Irrigation envisaged

under PMKSY-PDMC and also in bringing additional coverage through special and

innovative initiatives by State Governments.

Q.5) “EKTA portal” is related to which of the following?

a) Agricultural Education portal

b) Intellectual Property Rights Education portal

c) Trade policies portal

d) Traditional and Indigenous products portal

ANS) A

Explanation: New Digital Apps have been developed for making Indian agriculture in line

with Digital India theme. The DARE (Department of Agricultural Research & Education)

launched the Agricultural Education Portal EKTA (Ekikrit Krishi Shiksha Takniki Ayaam)

for integrated online management information system.

Q.6) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Quality Council of India

(QCI)”?

1. The Quality Council of India (QCI) is a statutory body established through Export

(Quality Control and Inspection) Act, 1963.



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2. The Quality Council of India (QCI) is headed by Minister of Commerce and Industry.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) D

Explanation: The Quality Council of India (QCI).

The Quality Council of India (QCI) is a pioneering experiment of the

Government of India in setting up organizations in partnership with the Indian

industry.

A committee which included various interested ministries and stakeholders

including industries was established to make suitable recommendations.

The work was coordinated by the then Department of Industries (Department of

Industrial Policy and Promotion) and the recommendations were submitted to the

Cabinet in 1996.

Key recommendations included the Need for establishing an organization jointly by

the Government and the industry and the need for the organization to be self-

sustaining and be away from the government.

Accepting the recommendations, the Cabinet Committee decided to set up

Quality Council of India as a non-profit autonomous society registered under

Societies Registration Act XXI of 1860 to establish an accreditation structure

in the country and to spread quality movement in India by undertaking a National

Quality Campaign.

QCI is governed by a Council comprising of 38 members including the Chairman

and Secretary General.

The Council has an equal representation of Government, Industry and other

Stakeholders. The chairman of QCI is nominated by Prime Minister of India and

present chairman of QCI is Mr. Adil Zainulbhai.

Q.7) Arrange the following “core industries” in the ascending order of their weight in

Index of Industrial Production (IIP):

1. Coal

2. Cement

3. Steel

4. Electricity


a) 2-1-4-3

b) 2-1-3-4

c) 1-2-4-3

d) 1-2-3-4

ANS) B

Explanation: The Index of Eight Core Industries measures the performance of eight core

industries i.e., Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement

and Electricity. The industries included in the Index of Eight Core Industries comprise

40.27 per cent weight in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).



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Q.8) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Cash Management Bill

(CMB)”?

1. It is a short-term instrument issued by banks to meet the temporary cash flow

mismatches.

2. The Cash Management Bills are issued for maturities of 91 days, 182 days and 364

days.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) D

Explanation: Cash Management bills.

The Government of India, in consultation with the RBI, decided to issue a new

short-term instrument, known as Cash Management Bills, since August 2009

to meet the temporary cash flow mismatches of the government.

The Cash Management Bills are non-standard and discounted instruments

issued for maturities less than 91 days.

The CMBs have the generic character of Treasury Bills (issued at discount to the

face value); are tradable and qualify for ready forward facility; investment in it is

considered as an eligible investment in government securities by banks for SLR.

Q.9) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Steel production and

consumption of India”?

1. India is the third largest steel producing country in the world after china and USA.

2. In the last ten years there is a continuous increase in the per capita consumption of

steel in India.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2



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ANS) D

Explanation: Steel production and consumption of India.

Statement 1 is incorrect: India stood at second position in the production of crude

steel. It is also the third largest consumer of the finished steel after China and USA.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The per capita consumption of steel in India is 74.1 kg during

2018-19. The per capita consumption was increased in last ten years except 2013-14.

Q.10) The term “Autarky” is related to which of the following?

a) International trade

b) Agriculture sector

c) Banking sector

d) Insurance sector

ANS) A

Explanation: Autarky: The idea of self-sufficiency and ‘no’ international trade by a

country. None of the countries of the world has been able to produce all the goods and

services required by its population at competitive prices, however, some tried to live it up at

the cost of inefficiency and comparative poverty.



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Polity

Q.1) Which of the following “Article/Articles of Indian Constitution” has dealt with the

provisions regarding international treaties?

1. Article 51

2. Article 73

3. Article 253


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS) D

Explanation: The Constitution of India has dealt with the provisions regarding

international treaties through Articles 51, 73 and 253.

Article 51: Promotion of international peace and security The State shall endeavour to

promote international peace and security;

maintain just and honourable relations between nations;

foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of

organised peoples with one another; and encourage settlement of international

disputes by arbitration

Article 73: provides that the scope of the powers of the executive extend to:

To the matters specified in the List 1, inclusive of entry 14, with respect to entering

into and implementing treaties.

Such rights or obligations as are exercisable in consequence of any treaty or

convention which India has ratified.

Article 253: Legislation for giving effect to international agreements notwithstanding

anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, Parliament has power to make any law

for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or

convention with any other country or countries or any decision made at any international

conference, association or other body.

Q.2) Which of the following “International Convention/Conventions” is/are ratified by

India?

1. International Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Racial Discrimination.

2. Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or

Punishment.

3. Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS) B

Explanation: The International conventions signed and ratified by India are:



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Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities is signed and ratified by India in

2008.

Q.3) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Asian Development Bank”?

1. India, Australia and Russia are the founding members of Asian Development Bank.

2. India, China and Indonesia are the top three aid receivers of Asian Development Bank.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) B

Explanation: Asian Development Bank.

ADB was conceived in the early 1960s as a financial institution that would be

Asian in character and foster economic growth and cooperation in one of the

poorest regions in the world.

A resolution passed at the first Ministerial Conference on Asian Economic

Cooperation held by the United Nations Economic Commission for Asia and the Far

East in 1963 set that vision on the way to becoming reality.

The Philippines capital of Manila was chosen to host the new institution,

which opened on 19 December 1966, with 31 members that came together to

serve a predominantly agricultural region.

Takeshi Watanabe was ADB's first President. During the 1960s, ADB focused much

of its assistance on food production and rural development.

Statement 1 is incorrect: India was a founding member of ADB in 1966 and is now the

bank’s fourth-largest shareholder. Australia is also a founder member, but Russia not yet

joined the Asian Development Bank.

Statement 2 is correct: India, China and Indonesia are the top three aid receivers of Asian

Development Bank.



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Q.4) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “The Economic and Social

Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP)”?

1. It is the largest regional intergovernmental platform in Asia-Pacific.

2. India has joined ESCAP after independence.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) A

Explanation: The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP).

Statement 1 is correct: The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific

(ESCAP) serves as the United Nations’ regional hub promoting cooperation among countries

to achieve inclusive and sustainable development. The largest regional intergovernmental

platform with 53 Member States and 9 associate members, ESCAP has emerged as strong

regional think-tank offering countries sound analytical products that shed insight into the

evolving economic, social and environmental dynamics of the region.

Statement 2 is incorrect: India has joined UN ESCAP in March, 1947.

Q.5) The “Agreement on Reciprocal Logistics Support (ARLS)” is an agreement between

India and which of the following country?

a) Russia

b) Iran

c) Vietnam

d) USA

ANS) A

Explanation: India and Russia are expected to conclude a mutual logistics agreement

(Agreement on Reciprocal Logistics Support (ARLS) and review the setting up of joint

ventures for manufacturing spares for Russian defense platforms in India. Logistics

agreements are administrative arrangements facilitating access to military facilities

for exchange of fuel and provisions on mutual agreement when the Indian military is

operating abroad.



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Q.6) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Automatic Exchange of

Information (AEOI)”?

1. It is the exchange of information between countries with a formal request by recipient

country.

2. Recently Switzerland has shared bank account details with the Indian government under

the AEOI.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) B

Explanation: The new global standard on Automatic Exchange of Information (AEOI)

reduces the possibility for tax evasion. It provides for the exchange of non-resident financial

account information with the tax authorities in the account holders’ country of residence.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Automatic Exchange of Information (AEOI) is the exchange of

information between countries without having to request it.

Statement 2 is correct: In the first tranche of information, Switzerland has shared bank

account details with the Indian government under the AEOI (Automatic Exchange of

Information) framework.

Q.7) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Blue Dot Network”?

1. It is jointly launched by USA, Japan, Australia and India to counter China’s Belt and

Road Initiative (BRI).

2. It is launched on the sidelines of the 33rd ASEAN Summit in Singapore.

3. It is an initiative that aims to bring governments, the private sector and civil society

together to promote “high quality, trusted standards for global infrastructure

development”.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1 and 3 only

ANS) C

Explanation: Blue Dot Network.

Led by the US’s International Development Finance Corporation (DFC), the Blue

Dot network was jointly launched by the US, Japan (Japanese Bank for

International Cooperation) and Australia (Department of Foreign Affairs and

Trade) in November 2019 on the sidelines of the 34th ASEAN Summit in Thailand.

It is meant to be a multi-stakeholder initiative that aims to bring governments, the

private sector and civil society together to promote “high quality, trusted standards

for global infrastructure development”.

Q.8) India is a member of which among the following?

1. Asia –Pacific Economic Cooperation

2. ASEAN

3. Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS)

4. Quad




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a) 1, 2 and 4 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 3 and 4 only

d) 2, 3 and 4 only

ANS) C

Explanation:

The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS), headquartered in Tashkent,

Uzbekistan, is a permanent organ of the SCO which serves to promote

cooperation of member states against the three evils of terrorism, separatism

and extremism. At SCO summit, held in Tashkent, Uzbekistan, on June 2004, the

Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) was established. The Head of RATS is

elected to a three-year term. Each member state also sends a permanent

representative to RATS.

The grouping of four democracies –India, Australia, US and Japan– known as the

quadrilateral security dialogue or quad, was first mooted by Japanese Prime

Minister Shinzo Abe in 2007. However, the idea couldn’t move ahead with Australia

pulling out of it, apparently due to Chinese pressure. With the aim to counter

China’s aggressive behaviour in the Indo-Pacific region, India, Australia, US and

Japan, formed the “quadrilateral” coalition on November 12, 2017.

India is not a member of both Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation and ASEAN.

Q.9) Which of the following are member countries of the “European Free Trade

Association (EFTA)”?

1. Iceland

2. Sweden

3. Switzerland

4. Norway

5. Finland


a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

ANS) C

Explanation: The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is the intergovernmental

organisation of Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland. It was set up in 1960 by its

then seven Member States for the promotion of free trade and economic integration between

its members.

Q.10) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Global Refugee Forum”?

1. It is launched in 2016 to deal with the migrant crisis in Middle East region.

2. It is a joint initiative of the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) and

Germany.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2



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ANS) D

Explanation: Global Refugee Forum

The first ever Global Refugee Forum took place on 17 and 18 December 2019

and was a true milestone in the advancement of the international refugee regime.

It brought the international community together to demonstrate solidarity with the

world’s refugees and the countries and communities that host them, to announce

pledges and contributions that support them, and to commit to a continued search

for solutions.

We—Costa Rica, Ethiopia, Germany, Pakistan, Turkey and the United Nations High

Commissioner for Refugees—were honoured to serve as co-convenors of this historic

event, which took place in Geneva, Switzerland.

We thank Switzerland for co-hosting the Forum with the United Nations High

Commissioner for Refugees and all those who actively contributed to making

the Forum a success, including governments, international organizations,

representatives from across the humanitarian and development worlds, business

leaders, civil society, sports organizations, faith groups, academia, and refugees

themselves.

Q.11) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Oath or Affirmation by

the President?

1. President swears to faithfully execute the office.

2. President swears to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law.

3. President Swears to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS) B

Explanation: Oath or Affirmation by the President.

Before entering upon his office, the President has to make and subscribe to an oath or

affirmation. In his oath, the President swears:

to faithfully execute the office;

to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law; and

to devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of India.

Q.12) Consider the following statements regarding the legislative powers of the President:

1. President can summon or adjourn the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha.

2. He can appoint any member of the Lok Sabha to preside over its proceedings when the

offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) B

Explanation: The President is an integral part of the Parliament of India, and enjoys the

following legislative powers.



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He can summon or prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha. He can

also summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, which is presided over

by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

He can address the Parliament at the commencement of the first session after

each general election and the first session of each year.

He can send messages to the Houses of Parliament, whether with respect to a bill

pending in the Parliament or otherwise.

He can appoint any member of the Lok Sabha to preside over its proceedings

when the offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant. Similarly,

he can also appoint any member of the Rajya Sabha to preside over its proceedings

when the offices of both the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman fall vacant.

He nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha from amongst persons having

special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art and social

service.

He can nominate two members to the Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian

Community.

NOTE: The adjournment is done by presiding officers (speaker / deputy speaker in Lok

Sabha and Chairman / Deputy Chairman in Rajya Sabha).

Q.13) Consider the following statements regarding the Prime Minister of India:

1. The term of the Prime Minister is fixed for five years and he holds office during the

pleasure of the president.

2. Article 75 of the Indian Constitution contains the procedure for selection and

appointment of the Prime Minister.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) D

Explanation: The Prime Minister of India.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds

office during the pleasure of the president. However, this does not mean that the president

can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the

majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for

the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime

Minister shall be appointed by the president.

Q.14) Consider the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha (Council of State):

1. The Indian Councils Act, 1909 provided for the creation of a Council of State as a second

chamber.

2. The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for allocation of seats to the States and

Union Territories in Rajya Sabha.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2



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ANS) B

Explanation: The Rajya Sabha.

The origin of the second Chamber can be traced to the Montague-Chelmsford

Report of 1918.

The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the creation of a ‘Council of

State’ as a second chamber of the then legislature with a restricted franchise which

actually came into existence in 1921.

The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for allocation of seats to the

States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha.

The allocation of seats is made on the basis of the population of each State.

Q.15) Which of the following committee/committees comes under the Standing

Committees to enquire of Rajya Sabha?

1. Committee on Petitions.

2. Committee of Privileges.

3. Rules Committee.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS) B

Explanation: The Committees may be classified as Ad-hoc Committees and Standing

Committees. Standing Committees may be divided in terms of their functions:

Committees to enquire:

Committee on Petitions

Committee on Privileges

Ethics Committee

Committees to scrutinise and control:

Committee on Government Assurances

Committee on Subordinate Legislation and

Committee on Papers Laid on the Table

Committees relating to day-to-day business of the House:

Business advisory committee

Rules Committee

House Keeping Committees:

House Committee

General Purpose Committee

Committee on Provision of Computers to Members of Rajya Sabha

Q.16) Which of the following agreement/agreements is/are signed by India and United

States of America (USA)?

1. General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA).

2. Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA).

3. Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement for Geo-spatial Cooperation (BECA).


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3



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ANS: B

Explanation: Agreements signed by India and USA.

India had signed the General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA)

in 2002 and the Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) in 2016.

The last one remaining is the Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement for Geo-

spatial Cooperation (BECA) is not yet signed by India.

Q.17) Which of the following treaty/treaties is/are related to European Union?

1. Treaty of Lisbon

2. Treaty of Nice

3. Treaty of Amsterdam


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS) D

Explanation: The European Union is based on the rule of law. This means that every action

taken by the EU is founded on treaties that have been approved voluntarily and

democratically by all EU member countries. A treaty is a binding agreement between EU

member countries. It sets out EU objectives, rules for EU institutions, how decisions are

made and the relationship between the EU and its member countries. The main treaties

are:

Treaty of Lisbon: Signed on 13 December 2007, to make the EU more democratic, more

efficient and better able to address global problems, such as climate change, with one voice.

Treaty of Nice: Signed on 26 February 2001, to reform the institutions so that the EU

could function efficiently after reaching 25 member countries.

Treaty of Amsterdam: Signed on 2 October 1997, to reform the EU institutions in

preparation for the arrival of future member countries.

Q.18) Consider the following statements regarding BASIC group:

1. The member countries of the group consist of India, Brazil, South Korea and China.



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2. The main objective of the group is to promote industrialization.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) D

Explanation: BASIC group.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The BASIC group was formed as the result of an agreement

signed by the four countries on November 28, 2009. They are a bloc of four large newly

industrialized countries – Brazil, South Africa, India and China.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The main objective of the BASIC group is to have a broadly

common position on reducing greenhouse gas emissions and raising the massive funds

that are needed to fight climate change.

Q.19) Consider the following statements regarding the Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU):

1. The Eurasian Economic Union is an international organization for regional economic

integration.

2. All Central Asian countries except Turkmenistan and Russia are member countries of

Eurasian Economic Union.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) A

Explanation: Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU).

The Eurasian Economic Union is an international organization for regional

economic integration. It has international legal personality and is established by

the Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union.

The EAEU provides for free movement of goods, services, capital and labor,

pursues coordinated, harmonized and single policy in the sectors determined by

the Treaty and international agreements within the Union.

The Member-States of the Eurasian Economic Union are the Republic of

Armenia, the Republic of Belarus, the Republic of Kazakhstan, the Kyrgyz

Republic and the Russian Federation.

The Union is being created to comprehensively upgrade, raise the competitiveness of

and cooperation between the national economies, and to promote stable

development in order to raise the living standards of the nations of the Member-

States.

Q.20) Consider the following statements regarding the Organization of the Petroleum

Exporting Countries (OPEC):

1. OPEC is a permanent, Informal organization.

2. OPEC membership is open to any country that is a substantial exporter of oil and which

shares the ideals of the organization.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only



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c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) B

Explanation: The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) was founded

in Baghdad, Iraq, with the signing of an agreement in September 1960 by five countries

namely Islamic Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela. They were to

become the Founder Members of the Organization.

OPEC is a permanent, intergovernmental organization.

The current OPEC members are the following: Algeria, Angola, Equatorial Guinea,

Gabon, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, and the Republic of the Congo, Saudi

Arabia (the de facto leader), the United Arab Emirates and Venezuela. Ecuador,

Indonesia and Qatar are former members.

OPEC’s objective is to co-ordinate and unify petroleum policies among Member

Countries, in order to secure fair and stable prices for petroleum producers; an

efficient, economic and regular supply of petroleum to consuming nations; and a fair

return on capital to those investing in the industry.

OPEC membership is open to any country that is a substantial exporter of oil

and which shares the ideals of the organization.



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Science & Technology

Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Air Independent Propulsion

(AIP) system”?

1. It is a technology which allows a nuclear submarine to operate without the need to

access atmospheric oxygen.

2. India is self-sufficient in the AIP system and exports to other countries also.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) D

Explanation: Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) system.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Submarines are essentially of two types: conventional and

nuclear. Conventional submarines use a diesel-electric engine, and must surface daily

for oxygen for fuel combustion. If fitted with an Air Independent Propulsion (AIP)

system, the submarine needs to take in oxygen only once a week.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The state-of-the-art “air independent propulsion” (AIP) system

that the Defence R&D Organisation (DRDO) is indigenously developing will be ready to

drive the Indian Navy’s submarines from 2024 onwards. Consequently, this AIP will not

power the six new submarines that the navy is tendering in a Rs 45,000crore programme

called Project 75-I. Instead, those six boats (as the navy traditionally refers to submarines)

will have AIP systems that the foreign vendor must offer.

Q.2) The term “Vyommitra” is recently in news is related to which of the following?

a) Half-humanoid robot

b) Satellite radar system

c) Space education portal

d) None

ANS) A

Explanation: Vyommitra.

Recently, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) unveiled its first ‘woman’

astronaut, named Vyom Mitra who will ride to space in the first test flight of

the human space mission, Gaganyaan.

She is half-humanoid and her body stops at the torso and has no legs. She is

capable of switching panel operations, performing Environment Control and Life

Support Systems (ECLSS) functions, conversations with the astronauts, recognising

them and solving their queries.

Q.3) The terms “Antu, Kueyen, Melipal and Yepun” is related to which of the following?

a) Asteroids

b) Planets of Jupiter

c) Telescope

d) Radar systems



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ANS) C

Explanation: Very Large Telescope array (VLT) .

The Very Large Telescope array (VLT) is the flagship facility for European ground-

based astronomy at the beginning of the third Millennium.

It is the world's most advanced optical instrument, consisting of four Unit

Telescopes with main mirrors of 8.2m diameter and four movable 1.8m diameter

Auxiliary Telescopes.

The telescopes can work together, to form a giant ‘interferometer’, the ESO Very

Large Telescope Interferometer, allowing astronomers to see details up to 25 times

finer than with the individual telescopes. The large telescopes

are named Antu, Kueyen, Melipal and Yepun.

Q.4) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Aditya L1 mission”?

1. It is first scientific expedition of ISRO to study Sun.

2. Aditya L1 satellite will be placed in the halo orbit around the Lagrangian point 1 (L1) of

the sun-earth system.

3. It will be launched using the Geo-synchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Mark-III.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS) B

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Aditya - L1 First Indian mission to study the Sun.

The Aditya-1 mission was conceived as a 400kg class satellite carrying one payload, the

Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) and was planned to launch in a 800 km low

earth orbit.

Statement 2 is correct: Satellite will be placed in the halo orbit around the Lagrangian

point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system has the major advantage of continuously viewing the

Sun without any occultation/ eclipses. Therefore, the Aditya-1 mission has now been

revised to “Aditya-L1 mission” and will be inserted in a halo orbit around the L1, which is

1.5 million km from the Earth. The satellite carries additional six payloads with enhanced

science scope and objectives.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The project is approved and the satellite will be launched

during 2019 – 2020 timeframe by PSLV-XL from Sriharikota. Aditya-1 was meant to

observe only the solar corona. The outer layers of the Sun, extending to thousands of km

above the disc (photosphere) is termed as the corona. It has a temperature of more than a

million degree Kelvin which is much higher than the solar disc temperature of around

6000K. How the corona gets heated to such high temperatures is still an unanswered

question in solar physics.

Q.5) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Quantum Computers”?

1. Quantum computers use logical units called quantum bits that can be put into a

quantum state where they can simultaneously represent both 0 and 1.

2. Quantum computers works at a temperature of -273 °C (-459 °F) with hardly any

atmospheric pressure and isolated from Earth’s magnetic field.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2



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d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) C

Explanation: Quantum Computers work by harnessing the properties of quantum

mechanics.

Statement 1 is correct: As the reality of a quantum computer comes closer, it is useful for

us to understand both how one functions and how it’s different from a traditional

computer. The first thing to bear in mind is that they use different basic units of data: ‘bits’

and ‘qubits’.

Every element of a classical computer is written in binary code (1s and 0s) and is

translated into electricity: high voltage is represented by 1, and low voltage by 0.

In quantum computing, qubits are the basic unit and their value can be 1, 0, or

1 and 0 simultaneously, overlapping (superposition) and intertwining

(entanglement) according to the laws of physics.

This means that qubits, as opposed to bits, can take on various values at one time

and can perform calculations that a conventional computer cannot.

Statement 2 is correct: The classical computer, if there is interference with the system;

the system can correct itself and continue running. For the time being, this is not the case

with quantum computers.

“External disturbances force the system to define itself as 1 or 0, causing it to lose

its quantum coherence.

To avoid this kind of external ‘noise,’ the system has to be completely isolated: the

atoms have to be very quiet, ensuring nothing makes them collide or interact with

the surroundings.

Quantum computers have to be at a temperature of -273 °C (-459 °F) with

hardly any atmospheric pressure and isolated from Earth’s magnetic field.

Q.6) The term “Muktoshri” is related to which of the following?

a) Life saving drug

b) New variety of rice

c) New variety of maize

d) New endemic banana

ANS) B

Explanation: West Bengal government’s rice research centre has come up with a new

variety of rice called Muktoshri that can be grown in arsenic prone areas. It was

developed jointly by the Rice Research Station at Chinsurah, coming under West Bengal’s

Agriculture Department and the National Botanical Research Institute, Lucknow.

Q.7) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Polycrack Technology”?

1. It is world’s first patented heterogeneous catalytic process which converts multiple feed

stocks into hydrocarbon liquid fuels, gas, carbon and water.

2. Polycrack has high tolerance to moisture hence drying of waste is not required.

3. In polycrack, biological decomposition is not allowed as the Waste is treated as it is

received.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3



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ANS) D

Explanation: Polycrack technology is world’s first patented heterogeneous catalytic

process which converts multiple feed stocks into hydrocarbon liquid fuels, gas, carbon

and water. Polycrack Plant can be fed with all types of Plastic, Petroleum sludge, Un-

segregated MSW (Municipal Solid Waste) with moisture up to 50%, E–Waste, Automobile

fluff, Organic waste including bamboo, garden waste etc., and Jatropha fruit and palm

bunch.

Polycrack has the following advantages over the conventional approach of treating solid

waste:-

Pre-segregation of waste is not required to reform the waste. Waste as collected can

be directly fed into Polycrack.

It has high tolerance to moisture hence drying of waste is not required.

Waste is processed and reformed within 24 hours.

It is an enclosed unit hence the working environment is dust free.

Excellent air quality surrounding the plant.

Biological decomposition is not allowed as the Waste is treated as it is

received.

The foot print of the plant is small hence the area required for installing the plant is

less when compared with conventional method of processing.

All constituents are converted into valuable energy thereby making it Zero Discharge

Process.

Gas generated in the process is re-used to provide energy to the system thereby

making it self-reliant and also bring down the operating cost.

There is no atmospheric emission during the process unlike other conventional

methods except for combustion gases which have pollutants less than the

prescribed norms the world over.

Operates around 450 degrees, making it a low temperature process when compared

with other options.

Safe and efficient system with built-in safety features enables even an unskilled user

to operate the machine with ease.

Low capital cost and low operating cost.

Fully automated system requires minimum man power.

NOTE: A patent is defined as a statutory privilege granted by the government to inventors,

and to other persons deriving their rights from the inventor, for fixed years, to exclude other

persons from manufacturing, using or selling a patented product or process.

Hence a patent can be for a process or for a product. There is strict divergence

between product and process patent regimes. The developed countries follow

product patent system. On the other, process patent system is preferred by the

developing world.

The two systems are known for their different levels of protection to inventors. Under

a process patent, the patent is granted for a particular manufacturing process, and

not for the product itself.

Any other person can produce the same product through some other PROCESS,

modifying the various parameters. The implication is that there will be more than

one producer for the same product because of the possibility of different process for

the manufacturing of the product.

Q.8) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Biosimilars”?

1. A biosimilar is a biological product that is an exact duplicate of branded biological

product.



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2. A biosimilar drug costs less than generic drug.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) D

Explanation: Biosimilars.

A biosimilar is a biological product that is developed to be similar to an already

FDA-approved biologic, known as the reference product. It can be tempting to think

of a biosimilar as a “generic” version of the reference product. However, there are

many important differences between biosimilars and generic versions of

conventional medications (generic drugs).

A generic drug is chemically identical to its brand-name counterpart—an exact

copy. The generic drug and brand-name drug have the same active ingredient,

dosage form, safety profile, strength, route of administration, performance

characteristics, and intended use. Accordingly, the brand-name drug and generic

drug are considered to be bioequivalent.

A biosimilar is not an exact duplicate of another biologic. There is a degree of

natural variability in all biological products; it is not possible to generate a precise

copy of a product that comes from living cells. All biologics—including reference

products—show some batch-to-batch variation.

Generic drugs are chemically identical to the original branded drug and, as such,

cost significantly less because they don’t require much testing. Because biosimilars

are made from living organisms, though, and don’t contain identical ingredients to

their name-brand counterparts, they still require some testing. So, they cost more

than generics, but less than the branded biologic.

Q.9) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “FrogPhone”?

1. World’s first solar-powered remote survey device that can be installed at any frog pond

and which receives a 5G cellular network.

2. With FrogPhone, researchers can call a frog habitat.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) B

Explanation: FrogPhone.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Researchers have developed a device that will allow scientists to

monitor frogs in the wild. Described as the world’s first solar-powered remote survey

device that can be installed at any frog pond and which receives a 3G or 4G cellular

network, it has been named “FrogPhone”. It has been developed by a team from various

Australian institutions, including the University of New South Wales and the University of

Canberra. A field trial conducted between August 2017 and March 2018 in Canberra proved

successful.

Statement 2 is correct: With FrogPhone, researchers can simply “call” a frog habitat.

After a call is made to one of the FrogPhones already on a site, the device will take three

seconds to receive it. During these few seconds, the device’s temperature sensors will get



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activated and environmental data such as air temperature, water temperature and battery

voltage will be sent to the caller’s phone via a text message.

Q.10) “Project Soli” is launched by which of the following?

a) Google

b) IBM

c) Facebook

d) Tesla

ANS) A

Explanation: Project Soli, driven by Google’s Advanced Technology and Projects

(ATAP) team, was first showcased back in 2015. The idea is that a radar chip can be used

to detect hand movements and gestures to interpret what they could mean. It’s only

recently that Google figured out how to reduce the size of this radar chip and fit it on the

front of the smart phone, still ensuring accuracy.



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Geography

Q.1) The “Indian Standard Meridian” passes through which of the following States?

1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Jharkhand

4. Chhattisgarh

5. Odisha


a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 3 and 5 only

ANS) C

Explanation: The Indian Standard Meridian passes through mostly 5 states which are

Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

NOTE: British India did not adopt the international standard time zones until 1905 when

the meridian passing through Allahabad at 82.5º east (of Greenwich Meridian) longitude

was picked as the central meridian for India, corresponding to a single time zone for the

country at 5 hours and 30 minutes in advance of GMT. This went into force on January 1,

1906. However, Calcutta time was officially maintained as a separate time zone until 1948.

Bombay time was maintained but only informally until about 1955. After independence and

the partition of British India, Pakistan stayed on Indian Standard Time for three years and

adopted Pakistan Standard Time at 5 hours in advance of GMT in 1951.


Famous place : River

1. Kargil : Indus

2. Amritsar : Sutlej



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3. Sangli : Mahanadi

Which of the pair/pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS) A

Explanation:

Q.3) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Chilli or Capsicum annuum”?

1. Capsicum annuum is endemic to Indian sub-continent.

2. The world’s hottest chilli “Naga Jolokia” is cultivated in hilly terrains of Andhra Pradesh.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) D

Explanation: Chilli is one of the most important commercial crops of India. It is grown

almost throughout the country. There are more than 400 different varieties of chillies found



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all over the world. It is also called as hot pepper, cayenne pepper, sweet pepper, bell pepper,

etc. Its botanical name is “Capsicum annuum”.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Chillies are known from pre-historic times in Peru. They are

believed to have originated in the tropical America.

It is also said that chillies have originated in the Latin American regions of the New

Mexico and Guatemala as a wild crop around 7500BC, as per the remains of the

pre-historic Peru.

The people native to these places domesticated this crop in and around 5000 BC.

Chilli is said to be the first ever domesticated crop in America.

The Portuguese brought capsicum from Brazil to India during the year 1584.

Chillies became popular in the whole of Asia rapidly and native Asians started

cultivating this crop as well.

The south Asian climate suited this crop, and since its introduction in the 16

century has been increasingly cultivated in south Asia.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The world’s hottest chilli “Naga Jolokia” is cultivated in

hilly terrain of Assam in a small town Tezpur, India.

Q.4) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Central Water Commission

(CWC)”?

1. CWC was established in 1945 by the Government on the advice of Rajendra Prasad.

2. Central water Commission has divided the country into 20 rivers basins comprising 12

major and 8 composite river basins.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) B

Explanation: Central Water Commission (CWC):

Statement 1 is incorrect: CWC (erstwhile Central Waterways, Irrigation and Navigation

Commission) was established in 1945 by the Government on the advice of Dr. B.R.

Ambedkar, Member (Labour) in Viceroy's Executive Council.

The credit for the establishment of CWINC is attributed to Dr. B. R. Ambedkar,

under whose able guidance the then Labour Department constituted the

Commission.

He not only raised the concept and argued for the necessity of having such a

technical body at the Centre but also laid down its objectives, organisational

structure and programme.

The final proposal for establishment of CWINC was prepared by the Department

with the help of Rai Bahadur A.N. Khosla, the Consulting Engineer for Irrigation. Dr.

Khosla was subsequently appointed as founder Chairman of the CWINC.

Statement 2 is correct: Central water Commission has divided the country into 20 rivers

basins comprising 12 major and 8 composite river basins.



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NOTE: Since then CWC has evolved as a premier technical organisation in the country in

the field of Water Resources and now has entered into 75th Year of service to the nation.


Region : Well-known for the production of

1. Sirsi : Areca nut

2. Ongole : Tobacco

3. Gudaspur : Turmeric

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS) B

Explanation: Sirsi Arecanut: For the first time in the arecanut sector, ‘Sirsi Supari’ grown

in Uttara Kannada has received the Geographic Indication (GI) tag.



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It is cultivated in Yellapura, Siddapura and Sirsi taluks. Totgars’ Cooperative Sale

Society Ltd., Sirsi, is the registered proprietor of the GI.

The arecanut grown in these taluks have unique features like a round and flattened

coin shape, particular texture, size, cross-sectional views, taste, etc. These features

are not seen in arecanut grown in any other regions.

Tobacco: Most of the tobacco growing areas are concentrated in Ongole, Kaikalur,

Addanki, Chirala, Giddalur areas of Prakasam district in Andhra Pradesh.

NOTE: Celery crop is cultivated mainly in the states of Punjab (Jallandhar, Gudaspur and

Amritsar districts), Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh (Ladhwa and Saharanpur districts)

over an area of about 5000 ha. About 90% of the total produce comes from Punjab.

Q.6) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Red Soils” in India?

1. Red soils develops on old crystalline rocks.

2. Red soils differ from place to place on the basis of the parental rock material and climatic

conditions.

3. Rich in minerals like potassium and Phosphorus.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS) B

Explanation: Red soils.

Statement 1 is correct: Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low

rainfall in the eastern and southern part of the Deccan Plateau. Along the piedmont zone of

the Western Ghat, long stretch of area is occupied by red loamy soil. Yellow and red soils

are also found in parts of Odisha and Chattisgarh and in the southern parts of the middle

Ganga plain.

Statement 2 is correct: The soil develops a reddish colour due to a wide diffusion of iron

in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The fine-grained red and yellow soils are normally fertile,

whereas coarse-grained soils found in dry upland areas are poor in fertility. They are

generally poor in nitrogen, phosphorous, Potassium and humus.

Q.7) Arrange the following states in ascending order of “area of distribution of

Sandalwood” in India:

1. Tamil Nadu

2. Kerala

3. Karnataka

4. Andhra Pradesh


a) 2-4-1-3

b) 2-4-3-1

c) 4-2-1-3

d) 4-2-3-1

ANS) A

Explanation: Nearly one-third of the area in the country with sandalwood distribution is

in Tamil Nadu with the state covering an area of 3,040sqkm spread across several

districts. India has a total area of 9,000sqkm of sandalwood distribution spread across



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eight states with Karnataka having the maximum area of 5,245sqkm. Apart from

Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, states like Kerala (15 sqkm), Andhra Pradesh (200 sqkm),

Odisha (25 sqkm), Madhya Pradesh (33 sqkm), Maharashtra (33 sqkm) and Rajasthan

(sparse) have sandalwood trees distributed across a few districts.

Q.8) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “coal reserves” in India?

1. Anthracite coal is found in Jammu and Kashmir only.

2. Lignite coal has low moisture content.

3. Odisha has the second largest coal reserves in the country and it carries more than 24

per cent of the total coal reserves.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 3 only

ANS) C

Explanation: coal reserves in India.

Statement 1 is correct: Anthracite is the best quality of coal which carries 80 to 95 per

cent carbon content. It ignites slowly with a blue flame. It has the highest calorific value.

It is found in small quantity in Jammu and Kashmir.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Lignite is often brown in colour. It carries 40 to 55 per cent

carbon content. It is an intermediate stage which happens during the alteration of woody

matter into coal. It has high moisture content so it gives smoke when burnt. It is found

in Rajasthan, Lakhimpur (Assam), and Tamil Nadu.

Statement 3 is correct: Odisha has the second largest coal reserves in the country

and it carries more than 24 per cent of the total coal reserves. It produces about 15

per cent of the total coal production of India. Most of the coal deposits of the state are

found in Sambalpur, Dhenkanal, and Sundargarh districts. Talchar coalfield of Odisha

stretch over Dhenkanal and Sambalpur districts covers an area of about 500 sq km.

Q.9) The term “rohi” is related to which of the following?

a) Fertile tracts

b) kind of jhum cultivation

c) Tribal festival

d) None

ANS) A

Explanation: The Rajasthan Bagar region (Bagar refers to the semi-desert area which is

west of Aravallis. Bagar has a thin layer of sand. It is drained by Luni in the south whereas

the northern section has a number of salt lakes) have a number of short seasonal streams

which originate from the Aravallis. These streams support agriculture in some fertile

patches called Rohi.

Q.10) Consider the following rivers:

1. Gumti River

2. Manu River

3. Hoara River

Which of the above flow/flows through Tripura state?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only



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c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS) D

Explanation: Tripura is a north-eastern state of India. It has many rivers. The name of the

main 11 rivers of Tripura are: Bijay, Deo, Dhalai, Feni, Gumti, Haora, Juri , Khowai,

Longai, Manu, Muhuri.

All rivers are originated from hill ranges of Tripura and they are totally rain fed.

Truly speaking all rivers of Tripura is ephemeral.

They are not comfortable for boat. They generate an annual flow of almost 793

million cubic meter of water. Fenni and Langai are shared by two Indian states,

Tripura and Mizoram.

Agartala , the capital of Tripura is on the bank of the river Haora. Almost all rivers of

Tripura flow into Bangladesh. The Khowai, Dhalai, Manu, Juri and Longai flow

towards the north.

The Gumti, Howra flow towards the west. The Muhuri and Feni flow towards the

south west.



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Environment

Q.1) Which of the following is/are criteria for identifying “Wetlands of International

Importance”?

1. If Wetlands contains a representative, rare, or unique example of a natural or near-

natural wetland type found within the appropriate bio-geographic region.

2. If Wetlands regularly supports 10,000 or more water birds.

3. If Wetlands regularly supports 10% of the individuals in a population of one species or

subspecies of wetland-dependent non-avian animal species.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS) A

Explanation: Under the Ramsar Criteria, wetlands should be selected for the Ramsar List

on account of their international significance in terms of the biodiversity and uniqueness

of their ecology, botany, zoology, limnology or hydrology. In addition, the Criteria

indicate that in the first instance, wetlands of international importance to water-birds at

any season should be included on the Ramsar List.



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Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct about types of “Estuaries”?

1. Coastal plains estuaries form when a shallow lagoon or bay is protected from the ocean

by a sand bar, delta or island.

2. Fjord and Ria estuaries are formed by glacial action.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS) B

Explanation: There are four main types of estuaries, based on how they were formed.

Bar-built estuaries form when a shallow lagoon or bay is protected from the ocean

by a sand bar, delta or island.

Coastal plains estuaries are formed when the rising sea fills existing river

valleys.

Tectonic estuaries are caused by the folding of land surfaces due to volcanic

activity.

Fjord and Ria estuaries are drowned river valleys where the river valley was

originally formed by glacial action.

Q.3) Which of the following is/are characteristics of “Mangroves”?

1. They are basically evergreen land plants growing on shelted shores like tidal flats, deltas,

bays and creeks.

2. They exhibits viviparity mode of reproduction.

3. They require less solar radiation.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS) B

Explanation: Mangrove swamps are coastal wetlands found in tropical and subtropical

regions. They are characterized by halophytic (salt loving) trees, shrubs and other plants

growing in brackish to saline tidal waters. These wetlands are often found in estuaries,

where fresh water meets salt water and are infamous for their impenetrable maze of woody

vegetation.

Important characteristics of Mangroves:

They are basically evergreen land plants growing on sheltered shores, typically on

tidal flats, deltas, estuaries, bays, creeks and the barrier islands.

They exhibits viviparity mode of reproduction, it means seeds germinate in the

tree itself.

They require high solar radiation and have the ability to absorb fresh water from

saline/brackish water.

Q.4) Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Cold water corals”?

1. Cold-water corals have symbiotic algae living in their polyps.

2. They are found on the continental shelf and also in deep-sea areas.


a) 1 only


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