GCSE Geography Specimen Assessment Materials Geography Specimen Assessment Materials. ... guidance on the structure and character of the planned assessments in advance ... General

For first teaching from September 2009

For first assessment from Summer 2010For first award in Summer 2011

Subject Code: 3910

GCSE GeographySpecimen Assessment Materials

Foreword The awarding bodies have prepared new specifications to comply with revised GCSE criteria. The specimen assessment materials accompanying new specifications are provided to give centres guidance on the structure and character of the planned assessments in advance of the first assessment. It is intended that the specimen assessment materials contained in this booklet will help teachers and students to understand, as fully as possible, the markers’ expectations of candidates’ responses to the types of tasks and questions set at GCSE level. These specimen assessment materials should be used in conjunction with CCEA’s GCSE Geography specification.

GCSE Geography Specimen Assessment Materials

Contents Specimen Papers 1 Foundation Tier Unit 1: Understanding Our Natural World 3 Insert: Ordnance Survey: Bournemouth 23 Unit 2: Living in Our World 27 Insert: Geographic Information Systems 53 Higher Tier Unit 1: Understanding Our Natural World 55 Insert: Ordnance Survey: Bournemouth 75 Unit 2: Living in Our World 79 Insert: Geographic Information Systems 105 Mark Schemes 107 General Marking Instructions 109 Foundation Tier Unit 1: Understanding Our Natural World 113 Unit 2: Living in Our World 125 Higher Tier Unit 1: Understanding Our Natural World 137 Unit 2: Living in Our World 151

Subject Code QAN

3910 500/4429/1

A CCEA Publication © 2008

You may download further copies of this publication from www.ccea.org.uk

Specimen Papers

1

2

3

General Certificate of Secondary Education

2010

TIME

1 hour 30 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Write your answers in the spaces provided in this question paper. Answer all questions. You are provided with an O.S. map for use with Question 1. Do not write your answers on this map.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES

The total mark for this paper is 100. Figures in brackets printed down the right-hand side of pages indicate the marks awarded to each question or part question. Quality of written communication will be assessed in questions requiring extended answers.

For Examiner’s use only

Question Number Marks

1 2 3

Total Marks

Geography

Unit 1: Understanding Our Natural World

Foundation Tier

[CODE]

SPECIMEN PAPER

71

Centre Number

Candidate Number

4

Answer all questions

Theme A: The Dynamic Landscape

1 (a) Study Fig. 1 which shows a drainage basin.

© CCEA Fig. 1

(i) Complete Fig.1 by naming the three features at A, B and C. Choose

your answers from the features given in the box below:

[3] (ii) State the meaning of the term watershed.

[2]

Confluence Tributary Source Discharge Mouth

5

(iii) In Fig. 1, which point (X, Y or Z) will discharge be highest? _____________________________ [1]

(iv) Explain why discharge is higher at this point.

[3]

(b) Study the Ordnance Survey extract of part of the south coast of England.

Answer the questions which follow.

(i) State the direction from Bournemouth Pier (089905) to the golf course (152958).

[1]

(ii) Outline, using map evidence, one reason why the land in grid square

1395 could be at risk of flooding. [3]

6

(c) (i) For a river within the British Isles, describe one impact of flooding on people.

Name of river [1]

Impact [3]

(ii) For a named river outside the British Isles, outline one sustainable

strategy to manage this river and explain why this strategy is sustainable. Name of river [6]

7

(d) Study the Ordnance Survey extract of part of the south coast of England. Answer the questions which follow.

(i) Name the coastal feature found in grid square 2193. [1]

(ii) State the straight line distance in kilometres between Bournemouth

Aquarium (088906) and the Viewpoint at Hengistbury Head (171907). kms [2]

(iii) Identify three pieces of map evidence which would indicate that this

coastline is used by tourists (grid references are not required): 1 2 3 [3]

(iv) The feature at Hengistbury Head (1890 and 1891) is a spit. Complete

Table 1 by putting the following processes in order to show how it has been formed. One has been completed for you.

Table 1

Process

Order

Sand and shingle is moved along the beach in a zig-zag course.

More sand and shingle is deposited forming a spit.

Waves approach the beach at a slight angle carrying sand and shingle.

Sand and shingle is deposited where the coast suddenly changes direction.

3 [3]

8

(e) Study Fig. 2, a photograph of an arch in Dorset.

© David Hughes – Fotolia.com

Fig. 2

(i) Explain how an arch such as the one shown in Fig. 2 was formed.

[6]

9

(ii) Match the following methods of coastal protection with their meaning:

Groynes Cages of stones used to protect the beach Sea walls Fences to stop sand moving along the beach Beach Nourishment Costly structures used to protect important buildings Gabions Adding more sand or shingle to the beach [3]

(iii) Name an area where the coast has been defended.

(1) Area [1]

(2) Describe two coastal management strategies used. [4]

(3) Explain why the coastal management strategies were needed. [4]

10

Theme B: Our Changing Weather and Climate

2 (a) Study Fig. 3 which shows some instruments used to measure the weather. Answer the questions which follow.

© CCEA

Fig. 3 (i) State the difference in temperature between the two thermometers in

Fig. 3. Underline your answer in the list below. 20°C 30°C 40°C [1]

(ii) Explain why temperature readings are usually taken in the shade.

[2]

11

(iii) Outline one factor that would need to be taken into account when locating either a rain gauge or a wind vane instrument. [2]

12

(b) Study Fig. 4(a) and Fig. 4(b) which show the weather systems over the British Isles on 15 and 16 September 2004. Answer the questions which follow.

© CCEA

13

(i) Using Fig. 4 (a), underline the pressure value shown for the area near Brighton. 1016mb 1020mb 1024mb [1]

(ii) Using Fig. 4 (a), name the front over Ireland.

front [1]

(iii) Using Fig. 4 (a), describe the weather at Brighton.

[3]

(iv) The forecast predicted that the weather could change at Brighton from

15 September Fig. 4(a) to 16 September Fig. 4(b). Write YES or NO beside each statement in Table 2 to show if the forecast was accurate. One has been completed for you.

Table 2

FORECAST

YES or NO

Wind speed will increase

Temperatures will increase NO

Cloud cover will increase

Rain will occur [3]

14

(c) Study Fig. 5 which describes some of the negative impacts of global warming. Answer the questions which follow.

Fig. 5

(i) Some of the impacts of global warming affect people and some affect

the natural environment. Complete Table 3 by placing a tick ( ) in the correct column for each impact. One has been completed for you.

Table 3

Impact from Fig. 4

Affects people

Affects environment

A

B

C

D [3]

© CCEA

15

(ii) For a named area, explain one positive impact of global warming.

[3]

(iii) Describe and explain one sustainable method for dealing with the issue

of climate change.

[6]

16

Theme C: The Restless Earth

3 (a) Study Fig. 6 which shows information about earthquakes in 2004 off the coast of Sumatra, Indonesia. Answer the questions which follow.

© CCEA

Fig. 6

(i) Name the scale used to measure the magnitude of an earthquake. [1]

17

(ii) Study Fig. 7 which shows a cross-section through the Sunda Trench. Using Fig. 6 to help you, complete the key below by inserting the letters A to F. Two have been completed for you. [4]

© CCEA Fig. 7 Key

Eurasian plate

Mantle

Indian Ocean

Indo-Australian plate

Sunda Trench B

Sumatra C

(iii) Using both Figures 6 and 7 to help you, explain why the city of Padang

has had several earthquakes. [3]

18

(b) Study Fig. 8 which shows Slemish, a volcanic plug in Co. Antrim, Northern Ireland.

Fig. 8 © CCEA Fig. 8

Table 4 lists the processes which have led to the formation of this volcanic plug. Complete the table by putting the processes in numerical order to explain how this feature was formed.

Table 4

Process

Order

1, 2, 3 or 4

Lava rose up through the cracks

Lava built up a small volcanic cone

Two plates moved apart

Cracks opened up in the crust

[4]

19

(c) Study Fig. 9 which shows some reasons why earthquakes in LEDCs kill many people. Answer the question which follows.

Why earthquakes cause many deaths in LEDCs

• Buildings are not earthquake proof

• Poor communications

• Lack of equipment to rescue survivors

• Slow and poorly organised emergency services

© CCEA Fig. 9

Choose two reasons from Fig. 9 and explain how each could lead to many

deaths in LEDCs.

[4]

20

(d) Earthquakes can have severe impacts on people.

(i) Name an earthquake you have studied. [1]

(ii) State two ways the people prepared to cope with the earthquake before

it happened. [2]

(iii) Describe one impact this earthquake had on the people living in the

area. [3]

(iv) Describe one long term response put in place after the earthquake to

reduce the impact of future earthquakes in this area. [3]

Total [100]

21

___________________________________________

THIS IS THE END OF THE QUESTION PAPER ___________________________________________

22

23


2010

Geography


Foundation Tier

[CODE]

SPECIMEN INSERT

Ordnance Survey: Bournemouth

24

27


2010

TIME

1 hour 30 minutes


Write your answers in the spaces provided in this question paper. Answer all questions. You are provided with an insert (Figure 3) for use with Question 1. Do not write your answers on this insert.





1 2 3

Total Marks

Geography

Unit 2: Living in Our World

Foundation Tier

[CODE]

SPECIMEN PAPER

71

Centre Number

Candidate Number

28


Theme A: People and Where They Live

1 (a) Study Fig. 1 which shows the world population growth from 1700 to 2000. Answer the questions which follow.

© CCEA Fig. 1

(i) Complete the statements taking your answers from the list below.

The world’s population grew from 1700 to 1850.

By the world’s population reached 1 billion.

The increase was from 1950 to 2000.

The population of the world is now than 6 billion. [4]

fastest slowly 1850 1920 more less

29

(ii) State the meaning of the term natural increase. [2]

(iii) Complete the following definition.

An is a person who moves away from their home country.

[1]

(iv) International migration is when people move from one country to live in another.

Explain one positive impact international migration can have for a country that gains lots of migrants. [3]

30

(b) Study Fig. 2 which shows a population pyramid for Bangladesh in 2003. Answer the questions which follow.

© US Census Bureau www.census.gov

Fig. 2

(i) State whether the following is true or false.

This pyramid is typical of a LEDC There are more females aged 0–4 than males aged 0–4 The largest group is aged 15–19 [3]

(ii) Identify two aspects of population structure that are shown on a

population pyramid. 1 2 [2]

31

(iii) Many countries have a high percentage of their population aged under 15 years. Explain one impact that a large young population may have on a country. [3]

32

(c) Study Table 1 which shows information obtained from NINIS, an online Geographic Information System, showing migrants into districts in Northern Ireland.

Table 1

LOCAL GOVERNMENT DISTRICT (Council Area)

NUMBER OF MIGRANTS INTO N. IRELAND FROM OUTSIDE THE UK

(mid 2005-mid 2006)

Antrim 955 Armagh 956 Belfast 5880 Derry 1571 Dungannon 1920 Moyle 229 Newry and Mourne 2053 Strabane 483

© Northern Ireland Neighbourhood Information service www.nisis.nisra.gov.uk

(i) State the number of migrants from outside the UK who are living in the Moyle Local Government District. [1]

(ii) Name a computer program which could be used to present this table of

data as a graph. [1]

33

(iii) Using Table 1, describe the pattern of the number of migrants to Northern Ireland from outside the UK.

[3]

(d) Study Fig. 3 (see insert sheet) which shows information available from a GIS containing data for Northern Ireland.

(i) Underline the source of this information in the list below.

Textbook CD-ROM Website [1]

(ii) Place a tick ( ) against the folder which contains data on migration.

Folder

Put a tick ( ) beside the correct option

Education and Employment

Housing and Transport

People and Households [1]

34

(e) Study Fig. 4 which shows the site of three settlements. Answer the questions which follow.

© CCEA Fig. 4

(i) State the meaning of the term site. [2]

(ii) Complete Table 2 by naming the type of site for each settlement.

Table 2

Settlement Type of site

Bath

Edinburgh

London

[3]

35

(iii) Complete Table 3 by stating whether the following statements are true or false. One answer has been completed for you.

Table 3

Statement True or False

A seaside resort is an island settlement with many coal mines.

Market towns grew up where farmers came to buy and sell goods.

Route centres often develop where many roads meet. True

An industrial town has a lot of factories making things.

[3]

36

(f) Study Fig. 5 which shows a suburb of Melbourne, Australia (a MEDC). Answer the questions which follow.

© Earthworks 11-14 geography project by John Widdowson, page 45(1998) ‘Reproduced by permission of John Murray (Publishers) Ltd’.

Fig. 5

37

(i) Name one service shown on Fig. 5.

[1] (ii) Using Fig. 5 to help you, describe the main features of a suburb.

[3]

(iii) Describe two ways the Central Business District (CBD) of a city is

different from its suburbs.

[6]

38

(g) Study Fig. 6 which shows some push and pull factors in a LEDC. Answer the questions which follow.

Fig. 6

(i) State one push and one pull factor in Fig. 6 which help to explain why

people leave the countryside and move to the city. Push Pull [2]

(ii) Outline one reason which might stop people from moving.

[2]

(iii) Outline one reason why the number of people in LEDC cities is

increasing. [3]

Why people move to cities in a LEDC • better houses and schools • poor harvests • more jobs and better wages • poor transport • soil erosion

39

(QUESTIONS CONTINUE OVERLEAF)

40

Theme B: Contrasts in World Development

2 (a) Study Table 4 and Fig. 7 which show differences in levels of education in different regions of the world. Answer the questions which follow.

Table 4

© UNICEF The State of the World’s Children 008 Child Survival, pages 130-133, December 2007

Fig. 7

41

(i) Complete the bar chart for the percentage (%) of boys in South Asia who attend school. [2]

(ii) Name the region with the least children at primary school.

[1]

(iii) Describe what Fig. 7 shows about differences in development across the

world. [3]

42

(b) Study Fig. 8 which shows a map of world development. Answer the questions which follow.

© Victor Vector – Fotolia.com

Fig. 8

Use Fig. 8 to complete Table 5. Write true or false beside each statement and state the evidence from the map.

Table 5

Statement about development

True or

False

Evidence from the map

Most of the world’s people live in the poor South

The rich North has only slightly more wealth than the poor South

People live longer in the rich North

[6]

43

(c) Study Fig. 9 which shows three cartoons (A, B and C) about the problems of aid given to LEDCs.

© Adapted with the permission of Nelson Thornes Ltd from GeoActive Unit 15.8 by Anne

Stevens published in 1997 Fig. 9

Which cartoon shows the problem of tied aid? Give a reason for your choice.

[3]

44

(d) MEDCs are trying to help LEDCs to develop.

(i) Name one strategy they are using to help the LEDCs to develop. [1]

(ii) Outline two advantages this strategy could have for LEDCs.

[4]

(e) (i) Name two Fair Trade products.

1 2 [2]

(ii) Explain one advantage Fair Trade could bring to any LEDC.

[3]

45

Theme C: Managing Our Resources

3 (a) Study Table 6 which shows the main methods used to travel to work in London. Answer the questions which follow.

Table 6

Method of transport

Percentage (%) of users Rank order

Bicycle

3

Bus

12 4

Car

44 1

Foot

10

Other (e.g. taxi)

15

Underground

16 2

© CCEA (i) Complete Table 6 by ranking the methods of transport used in London,

from the most used to the least. Three have been completed for you. [3] (ii) What percentage of Londoners use the least popular method of

transport to work? % [1]

46

(iii) Most people still travel to work by car. Describe how this could increase their carbon footprint. [2]

(iv) Explain how one traffic control measure used in a MEDC city you have

studied reduces traffic. [3]

47

(QUESTIONS CONTINUE OVERLEAF)

48

Study Fig. 10 which shows energy use per person around the world. Answer the questions which follow.

(b)

© Earthworks 3: 11-14 geography project by John Widdowson (c2000) ISBN-0719570743 Reproduced by permission of the author and John Murray (Publishers) Ltd

Fig. 10

(i) Complete Fig. 10 using the information below. Region

Tonnes of oil equivalent/year/ per person

Japan

3 tonnes [2]

49

(ii) Describe what Fig. 10 show about energy use around the world? [3]

(iii) Explain why world demand for energy is increasing.

[3]

50

(c) Study Fig. 11 which shows average household waste. Answer the questions which follow.

© Adapted from the Northern Ireland Household Waste Characterisation Study 2000 Summary Report, January 2001

Fig. 11

(i) Name two waste items that could be recycled. 1 2 [2]

(ii) State whether the following sentences are true or false.

True/False A sustainable city would recycle most of its waste More glass than plastic is dumped by households In a sustainable city most people travel to work in cars [3]

51

(d) Study Fig. 12 a photograph of the Inca Trail in Peru (a LEDC).

© Melastmohican – Fotolia.com Fig. 12

Outline one benefit tourism could bring to this area. [3]

52

___________________________________________


53


2010

Geography


Foundation Tier

[CODE]

SPECIMEN INSERT

Geographic Information Systems

54

© Northern Ireland Neighbourhood Information Service www.nisis.nisra.gov.uk

55


2010

TIME

1 hour 30 minutes


Write your answers in the spaces provided in this question paper. Answer all questions. Candidates are provided with an O.S. map for use with Question 1. Do not write your answers on this map.





1 2 3

Total Marks

Geography


Higher Tier

[CODE]

SPECIMEN PAPER

71

Centre Number

Candidate Number

56



1 (a) Study Fig. 1 which shows a diagram of a drainage basin

© CCEA Fig. 1

(i) Complete Fig. 1 by naming the features at A, B and C. [3]

(ii) State the meaning of the term watershed.

[2]

57

(iii) Explain why discharge is higher at X than at Y on Fig. 1. [3]

(b) Study the Ordnance Survey extract of part of the south coast of England.

Answer the questions which follow.

(i) State the direction from Bournemouth Pier (089905) to the golf course (152958). [1]

(ii) The area in grid square 1395 is at risk of flooding.

(1) Outline, using map evidence, one reason why this area could be at risk of flooding. [2]

(2) State two features in this grid square which require flood protection. [2]

58

(c) (i) For a named river within the British Isles, describe one impact of flooding on people. Name of river [no marks] [3]

59

(ii) For a named river outside the British Isles, evaluate the extent to which river management strategies used on this river can be considered sustainable. Name of river [no marks] [8]

60

(d) Study the Ordnance Survey extract of part of the south coast of England. Answer the questions which follow.

(i) Name the coastal feature found in grid square 2193.

[1]

(ii) State the straight line distance in kilometres between Bournemouth Aquarium (088906) and the Viewpoint at Hengistbury Head (171907). km [2]

(iii) Identify three pieces of map evidence which would indicate that this

coastline is used by tourists (grid references are not required): 1 2 3 [3]

(iv) Hengistbury Head is a spit (1890 and 1891).

Explain how it was formed. [6]

61

(e) Study Fig. 2, a photograph of an arch in Dorset.

© David Hughes – Fotolia.com

Fig. 2

(i) Explain how an arch such as the one shown in Fig. 2 was formed. [6]

62

(ii) For a named case study within the British Isles, describe the coastal management strategies implemented and explain why these strategies were chosen. [8]

63


2 (a) Study Fig. 3 which shows some of the instruments used to measure the weather. Answer the questions which follow.

© CCEA

Fig. 3

(i) State the meaning of the term weather. [2]

(ii) Name the two instruments, B and C on Fig. 3. [2]

(iii) State the difference in temperature on the thermometers.

°C [2]

64

(b) Study Fig. 4 (a) and Fig. 4 (b) which show the weather systems over the British Isles on 15 and 16 September 2004. Answer the questions which follow.

© CCEA

65

(i) Name the front to the west of Ireland on Fig. 4(a). front [1]

Describe how the position of this front has changed from 15 September

Fig. 4(a) to 16 September Fig. 4(b). [3]

(ii) Explain why the weather at Brighton on 15 September Fig. 4(a) was

warm and sunny. [3]

66

(c) Some city councils are taking steps to slow down climatic change. Study Fig. 5 which gives information about Leicester’s Environmental City Plan. Answer the questions which follow.

© Geo Factsheet No.178 Leicester – Britain’s First Environmental City. www.curriculum-press.co.uk

Fig. 5

(i) Choose one aspect of the plan and explain how it might help to slow

down climatic change. Aspect chosen _____________________________________ [no marks]

[3]

67

(ii) Describe one actual or potential effect of climatic change on a LEDC that you have studied. Name of LEDC [no marks] [3]

(iii) Evaluate one sustainable strategy which has been introduced to deal

with climatic change. [6]

68

Theme C: The Restless Earth

3 (a) Study Fig. 6 which shows information about earthquakes in 2004 off the coast of Sumatra, Indonesia. Answer the questions which follow.

© CCEA

Fig. 6

(i) Name the type of plate boundary shown in Fig. 6. [1]

69

(ii) Using Fig. 6, name the features A and B as shown on the cross-section diagram in Fig. 7 below. A B

[2]

© CCEA Fig. 7

(iii) Using Fig. 7 to help you, explain why earthquakes have recently

occurred at this plate boundary. [3]

70

(b) Study Fig. 8 which shows Slemish, a volcanic plug in Co. Antrim, Northern Ireland.

© CCEA

Fig. 8

Explain how Slemish was formed. [4]

71

(c) Study Table 1 which shows some differences between earthquakes in different places. Answer the question which follows.

Table 1

Year Area Country MEDC or

LEDC Magnitude Richter Scale

Number of people killed

1964 Anchorage USA MEDC 8.6 130

1985 Mexico City

Mexico LEDC 7.8 4,600

1995 Kobe Japan MEDC 7.2 5,500

2004 Sumatra Indonesia LEDC 9.0 250,000

© CCEA

Using Table 1, state fully two reasons why more people are killed in some earthquakes than others.

[6]

72

(d) (i) Explain the cause of a named earthquake you have studied. Earthquake [no marks] [3]

(ii)

Explain two strategies put in place after this earthquake to reduce loss of life in future earthquakes. [6]

73

___________________________________________

THIS IS THE END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

___________________________________________

74

75


2010

Geography


Higher Tier

[CODE]

SPECIMEN INSERT

Ordnance Survey: Bournemouth

76

79


2010

TIME

1 hour 30 minutes


Write your answers in the spaces provided in this question paper. Answer all questions. You are provided with an insert (Figure 3) for use with Question 1. Do not write your answer on this insert.





1 2 3

Total Marks

Geography


Higher Tier

[CODE]

SPECIMEN PAPER

71

Centre Number

Candidate Number

80


Theme A: People And Where They Live

1 (a) Study Fig. 1 which shows the world population growth from 1700 to 2000. Answer the questions which follow.

© CCEA Fig. 1

(i) State the world’s population in 1850.

[1]

(ii) State the year when the population of the world reached 6.1 billion

people. [1]

81

(iii) Explain fully why the world’s population increased rapidly from 1900. You should give two reasons in your answer. [6]

(iv) State the meaning of the term natural increase.

[2]

82

(b) Study Fig. 2 which shows two population pyramids. Answer the questions which follow.

Fig. 2

© US Census Bureau www.census.gov

83

(i) State the two aspects of population structure that are shown on a population pyramid. 1 2 [2]

(ii) State whether pyramid A or B is more typical of a LEDC. Give a

reason for your choice. [3]

(iii) Explain one impact that a large youth dependent population may have

on a country. [3]

84

(c) Study Table 1 which contains data obtained from an on line Geographic Information System (GIS) – Northern Ireland Neighbourhood Information Service (NINIS).

Table 1

LOCAL GOVERNMENT DISTRICT (Council Area)

NUMBER OF MIGRANTS INTO N. IRELAND FROM OUTSIDE THE

UK (mid 2005-mid 2006)

Ballymoney 285 Banbridge 476 Cookstown 611 Craigavon 2000 Antrim 955 Ards 844 Armagh 956 Ballymena 1019 Larne 390 Limavady 715 Belfast 5880 Carrickfergus 417 Castlereagh 548 Coleraine 1159 Newtownabbey 990 North Down 1485 Derry 1571 Down 827 Dungannon 1920 Fermanagh 1219 Omagh 933 Strabane 483 Lisburn 1956 Magherafelt 601 Moyle 229 Newry and Mourne 2053

© Northern Ireland Neighbourhood Information service www.nisis.nisra.gov.uk

85

(i) Using Table 1, describe the pattern of the number of migrants into Northern Ireland from outside the U.K. [3]

(ii) Name an appropriate mapping technique which could be used to present

this data. [2]

(iii) Study Fig. 3 (see insert) which shows a screen shot of a list of

information available from a web based GIS containing data for Northern Ireland.

With reference to Fig. 3 describe one benefit of using a GIS to

investigate the scale and origins of people migrating into a MEDC. [3]

86

(d) Study Fig. 4 which shows the original site of Belfast. Answer the questions which follow.

© Adapted from Higher Ground: A Geography of Northern Ireland for GCSE by Derek Polley, Colourpoint Books (2001)

Fig. 4

(i) State the meaning of the term site.

[2]

87

(ii) Explain fully why this site would have been attractive to settlers. You should give two reasons in your answer. [6]

88

(e) Study Fig. 5 which shows a suburban area of Melbourne, Australia (a MEDC). Answer the questions which follow.

© Earthworks 11-14 geography project by John Widdowson, page 45 (1998) ‘Reproduced by permission of John Murray (Publishers) Ltd’

Fig. 5

89

(i) Name one service shown on Fig. 5. [1]

(ii) Explain one possible advantage and one possible disadvantage of living

in suburban areas. [6]

90

(f) Study Table 2 which gives information on the world’s largest cities in 1900 and 2006. Answer the questions which follow.

Table 2

© about.com geography by Matt Rosenburg

(i) Describe the changing size and the global distribution of the world’s

largest cities. [3]

91

(ii) Explain, giving two reasons, the changing distribution of the world’s largest cities. [6]

92

Theme B: Contrasts in World Development 2 (a) Study Table 3 and Fig. 6 which show differences in levels of education in

different regions of the world. Answer the questions which follow.

Table 3

© UNICEF The State of the World’s Children 2008 Child Survival, Pages 130-133, December 2007

Fig. 6

93

(i) Name the world region with the smallest percentage (%) of children at primary school. [1]

(ii) Compare the percentage of girls at primary school in less and more

economically developed regions as shown in Table 3. [3]

(iii) Name one economic indicator of development and evaluate how

successful it is as an indicator of development. Economic Indicator [1]

[3]

94

(b) Trade patterns can help or hinder a country’s development. Study Fig. 7(a) and Fig. 7(b) which show changes in the market price of coffee. Answer the questions which follow.

© Cafédirect Plc

95

(i) Describe the changes in the price of coffee on the world market shown in Fig. 7(a). [3]

(ii) Explain how the Fair Trade price helped coffee growers in LEDCs from

June 2004 to May 2005 using Fig. 7(b). [3]

(iii) Explain how one factor (other than dependence on primary activities)

could contribute to a lack of development in LEDCs. [3]

96

(iv)

Outline one international strategy that aims to reduce the development gap between countries and evaluate its effectiveness. [8]

97

Theme C: Managing Our Resources

3 (a) Some human activities have to be managed to protect our environment.

(i) State the meaning of the term carbon footprint. [2]

(ii) For a named MEDC city, describe and explain how one traffic control

measure contributes to the sustainable development of the city.

City [6]

98

(b) Study Table 4 and Fig. 8 which show population and energy consumption 1986–1996. Answer the questions which follow.

Table 4

Fig. 8

© Earthworks 3 by John Widdowson, published by John Murray, 1999

99

(i) Using Table 4 describe the differences in the pattern of world population and world energy consumption. [3]

(ii) Assess the implication of the information in Fig. 8 for world energy use

in the future. [3]

100

(c) Study Fig. 9 which shows information about a waste management scheme for Belfast. Answer the questions which follow.

© Crown Copyright 2004

Fig. 9

(i) Using Fig. 9, outline how the waste hierarchy for Belfast needs to change. [3]

(ii) Outline one reason why the current waste management shown in Fig. 9

is unsustainable. [3]

101

(d) Study Fig. 10 which shows part of the Inca Trail in the Andes Mountains, Peru (a LEDC). Answer the questions which follow.

© Melastmohican – Fotolia.com

Fig. 10

(i) Using Fig. 10 suggest one way in which increased numbers of tourists walking the Inca Trail could have a negative impact on the environment. [2]

102

(ii) Describe one positive benefit that increased numbers of tourists could bring to the economy of this area. [3]

103

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2010

Geography


Higher Tier

[CODE]

SPECIMEN INSERT

Geographic Information Systems

106

© Northern Ireland Neighbourhood Information Services www.nisis.nisra.gov.uk

Mark Schemes

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Geography

GENERAL MARKING INSTRUCTIONS

110

General Marking Instructions Introduction Mark schemes are intended to ensure that the GCSE examinations are marked consistently and fairly. The mark schemes provide markers with an indication of the nature and range of candidates’ responses likely to be worthy of credit. They also set out the criteria which they should apply in allocating marks to candidates’ responses. The mark schemes should be read in conjunction with these general marking instructions. Assessment objectives Below are the assessment objectives for GCSE Geography. Candidates must show they are able to: • recall, select and communicate their knowledge and understanding of places, environments and

concepts (AO1); • apply their knowledge and understanding in familiar and unfamiliar contexts (AO2); and • select and use a variety of skills, techniques and technologies to investigate, analyse and evaluate

questions and issues (AO3). Quality of candidates’ responses In marking the examination papers, examiners should be looking for a quality of response reflecting the level of maturity which may reasonably be expected of a 15 or 16-year-old which is the age at which the majority of candidates sit their GCSE examinations. Flexibility in marking Mark schemes are not intended to be totally prescriptive. No mark scheme can cover all the responses which candidates may produce. In the event of unanticipated answers, examiners are expected to use their professional judgement to assess the validity of answers. If an answer is particularly problematic, then examiners should seek the guidance of the Supervising Examiner. Positive marking Examiners are encouraged to be positive in their marking, giving appropriate credit for what candidates know, understand and can do rather than penalising candidates for errors or omissions. Examiners should make use of the whole of the available mark range for any particular question and be prepared to award full marks for a response which is as good as might reasonably be expected of a 15 or 16-year-old GCSE candidate. Awarding zero marks Marks should only be awarded for valid responses and no marks should be awarded for an answer which is completely incorrect or inappropriate. Types of mark schemes Mark schemes for tasks or questions which require candidates to respond in extended written form are marked on the basis of levels of response which take account of the quality of written communication. Other questions which require only short answers are marked on a point for point basis with marks awarded for each valid piece of information provided.

111

Levels of response Tasks and questions requiring candidates to respond in extended writing are marked in terms of levels of response. In deciding which level of response to award, examiners should look for the ‘best fit’ bearing in mind that weakness in one area may be compensated for by strength in another. In deciding which mark within a particular level to award to any response, examiners are expected to use their professional judgement. The following guidance is provided to assist examiners. • Threshold performance: Response which just merits inclusion in the level and should be

awarded a mark at or near the bottom of the range. • Intermediate performance: Response which clearly merits inclusion in the level and should be

awarded a mark at or near the middle of the range. • High performance: Response which fully satisfies the level description and should be awarded

a mark at or near the top of the range. Marking calculations In marking answers involving calculations, examiners should apply the ‘own figure rule’ so that candidates are not penalised more than once for a computational error. Quality of written communication Quality of written communication is taken into account in assessing candidates’ responses to all tasks and questions that require them to respond in extended written form. These tasks and questions are marked on the basis of levels of response. The description for each level of response includes reference to the quality of written communication. For conciseness, quality of written communication is distinguished within levels of response as follows: Level 1: Quality of written communication is limited. Level 2: Quality of written communication is satisfactory. Level 3: Quality of written communication is of a high standard. In interpreting these level descriptions, examiners should refer to the more detailed guidance provided below: Level 1 (Limited): Candidates present some relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is reasonably legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with some accuracy so that meaning is reasonably clear. A limited range of specialist terms is used appropriately. Level 2 (Satisfactory): Candidates present relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with considerable accuracy so that meaning is clear. A good range of specialist terms is used appropriately. Level 3 (High Standard): Candidates present, and organise effectively, relevant information in a form and style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is fluent and legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with almost faultless accuracy so that meaning is clear. A wide range of specialist terms is used skilfully and with precision.

112

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2010

Geography


Foundation Tier

[CODE]

SPECIMEN

MARK SCHEME

114


1 (a) (i) A = Source B = Confluence C = Tributary (3 × [1]) [3]

(ii) Meaning of the term watershed.

Award [1] for a simple definition, e.g. the watershed is a dividing line. Award [2] for a detailed definition, e.g. the watershed is a dividing line

between two drainage basins. [2] (iii) Highest discharge = X [1] (iv) Discharge will be higher at X because there it is closer to the mouth of the

river [1] where it reaches the sea. More tributaries have joined by this point [1] and each of these adds more water to the main river [1]. (3 × [1]) [3]

(b) (i) north east. [1] (ii) One reason for flooding.

Map evidence for flooding: • The land is flat in this grid square • There is a tributary joining the main river • Embankments have been built to keep the river in its channel.

Award [1] for simple explanation with limited use of map evidence, such as, it is close to the river.

Award [2] for a sound explanation with some use of map evidence such as, the land is flat and therefore vulnerable to flooding.

Award [3] for a detailed explanation with good use of map evidence such as, there are no contour lines in this grid square indicating that the land is flat and therefore more vulnerable to flooding. [3]

115

(c) (i) One impact of flooding of a river in the British Isles. [1] mark for the name of the river. [1]

Award [1] for a brief description of the impact of flooding on people, e.g. people’s homes were filled with river water. Award [2] for a statement with some elaboration, e.g. sewage from flooded drains mixed with the River Derwent’s floodwaters to create a health hazard for people. Award [3] for a statement with elaboration including two facts or figures, e.g. in 2000 ten homes in the village of Elvington near York were left uninhabited after the River Derwent flooded. The main street was impassable for 19 days leaving people unable to return to their homes. [3]

(ii) River outside the British Isles – one sustainable strategy to manage it.

Award [0] for a response not worthy of credit.

Level 1 ([1]–[2])

Candidates provide a simple outline of a valid strategy, e.g. along the Mississippi some of the floodplain has been returned to the river. There is a brief explanation of why this is a sustainable strategy, e.g. this means the river can flood ‘safely’ without causing damage to property. Candidates failing to name an appropriate river outside the British Isles should be limited to Level 1. Candidates present some relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is reasonably legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with some accuracy so that meaning is reasonably clear. A limited range of specialist terms is used appropriately.

Level 2 ([3]–[4]) Candidates outline a valid sustainable strategy and its purpose, e.g. some of the floodplain has been returned to the river so that water can overflow onto the floodplain without damaging property. Explanation shows awareness of sustainability, e.g. this is sustainable because it does not damage the environment. Candidates present relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with considerable accuracy so that meaning is clear. A good range of specialist terms is used appropriately.

116

Level 3 ([5]–[6]) Candidates detail a valid sustainable strategy and its purpose, e.g. the U.S. Conservation Service has spent $25 million buying flood prone farmlands beside the Mississippi to convert the land to natural conditions. This is sustainable because the land does not require any maintenance and there is no major negative effect on the environment. Candidates present, and organise effectively, relevant information in a form and style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is fluent and legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with almost faultless accuracy so that meaning is clear. A wide range of specialist terms is used skilfully and with precision. [6]

(d) (i) Coastal feature found on grid square 2193: beach. [1] (ii) Distance between Bournemouth Aquarium and viewpoint at Hengistbury

Head. Award [1] 8.0–8.1 or 8.4–8.5km. Award [2] 8.2–8.3km. [2]

(iii) Any three of the following features:

• Car parks • Pier • Aquarium • Visitor centre (3 × [1])

• Golf course • Museum • Tourist Information Centre • Viewpoint [3]

(iv)

Process

Order

Sand and shingle is moved along the beach in a zig-zag course. 2

More sand and shingle is deposited forming a spit. 4

Waves approach the beach at a slight angle carrying sand and shingle. 1

Sand and shingle is deposited where the coast suddenly changes direction.

3 (given) [3]

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(e) (i) Formation of an arch.

Award [0] for a response not worthy of credit. Level 1 ([1]–[2]) A brief explanation referring to the process of erosion, e.g. the power of the sea eats away at the rock to form an arch. Candidates present some relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is reasonably legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with some accuracy so that meaning is reasonably clear. A limited range of specialist terms is used appropriately. Level 2 ([3]–[4]) There is a clear indication that there are a number of stages which lead to the formation of a sea arch but not all are given. For [4] two stages must be explained, e.g. the sea attacks a crack in the rock and over time through the process of erosion this develops into a cave which in time becomes an arch. Candidates present relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with considerable accuracy so that meaning is clear. A good range of specialist terms is used appropriately.

Level 3 ([5]–[6]) All stages in the formation of an arch are explained with appropriate terminology used, e.g. the sea attacks a crack or point of weakness such as a joint or fault in a headland and over time this is enlarged by hydraulic action to form a cave. If erosion continues on the headland the cave will get bigger until it runs through the headland, forming a natural arch. Candidates present, and organise effectively, relevant information in a form and style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is fluent and legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with almost faultless accuracy so that meaning is clear. A wide range of specialist terms is used skilfully and with precision. [6]

118

(ii) Match the methods of coastal protection with their meaning. [3]

Groynes Cages of stones used to protect the beach Sea wall Fences to stop sand

moving along the beach Beach Nourishment Costly structures used to

protect important buildings Gabions Adding more sand or shingle (given)

(iii) (1) Named area where coast is defended. [1]

(2) Describe two strategies to manage the coast: Award [1] for identification of an appropriate strategy, e.g. sea walls and

[1] for elaboration, e.g. sea walls are built of concrete to withstand the power of waves. (2 × [2]) [4]

(3) Explain why the coastal management strategies were needed: Award [1] for a general explanation of the reasons for coastal management strategies stated in general terms, e.g. At Chesil Beach a concrete sea wall was built to stop erosion or groynes were built to maintain or keep the beach. Award [2] for a detailed explanation of the reasons for coastal management strategies, e.g. The Holderness coast in east Yorkshire is eroding and as a result needs to be defended. In some places groynes have been built to trap sand and to stop waves carrying sand on down the coast (by longshore drift). Along other parts of the coast sea walls have been built to protect the coastline – these walls deflect the energy of the waves (although they are very costly both to build and to maintain). (2 × [2]) [4]

[50]

119


2 (a) (i) 20 oC 30 oC 40 oC [1]

(ii) Explain why temperature readings are usually taken in the shade.

Award [1] for a simple explanation: Reference to heat being too great in sunshine, e.g. the sun would make it very hot.

Award [2] for a detailed explanation: Need to measure air temperature and not in full sun/false readings, e.g. if temperatures not taken in the shade the sun would be very strong giving a false reading for the air temperature. [2]

(iii) One factor that needs to be taken into account when locating either a rain

gauge or a wind vane instrument. Award [1] for identification of a relevant factor, e.g. no high buildings nearby and [1] for elaboration, e.g. no high buildings nearby which would funnel the wind. [2]

(b) (i) 1016 mb 1020 mb 1024mb [1]

(ii) warm front. [1]

(iii) The weather at Brighton on 16 September was warm (15 oC) [1] with 3

oktas cloud cover [1]. The wind was from the south-west [1] at 20 knots [1]. Look for three elements covered with detail. (3 × [1]) [3]

(iv)

FORECAST

YES or NO

Wind speed will increase YES

Temperatures will increase NO (given)

Cloud cover will increase YES

Rain will occur NO

(3 × [1]) [3]

120

(c) (i) The impacts of global warming sorted according to whether they affect people or the environment.

Impact from Fig. 4 Affects people Affects environment

A

(given)

B

C

D

(3 × [1]) [3] (ii) One positive impact of global warming – must have a specific fact or

figure related to the named area to achieve [3].

Award [1] for a simple explanation, e.g. farmers in England could grow new crops. Award [2] for an explanation with a consequence, e.g. farmers in England could grow new crops, so make more money. Award [3] for an explanation including a consequence and elaboration, e.g. farmers in England could grow new crops, such as grapes and sunflowers, so make more money. [3]

(iii) Describe and explain one sustainable strategy which aims to deal with the

issue of climate change. Award [0] for a response not worthy of credit. Level 1 ([1]–[2]) Candidates briefly describe a sustainable method of helping to deal with climate change, e.g. planting trees, cutting emissions and less traffic but not linked to global warming. Candidates present some relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is reasonably legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with some accuracy so that meaning is reasonably clear. A limited range of specialist terms is used appropriately.

Level 2 ([3]–[4]) Candidates describe one aspect of the strategy with a brief explanation linked to the reduction of global warming, e.g. tree planting means less pollution in the atmosphere or countries will have to work together to reduce emissions of greenhouse gases. Candidates present relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with considerable accuracy so that meaning is clear. A good range of specialist terms is used appropriately.

121

Level 3 ([5]–[6])

Candidates fully describe one aspect of the strategy with an explanation linked to global warming, e.g. tree planting means CO2 – a greenhouse gas – is absorbed by the trees and so less heat is trapped in the atmosphere and so the heat will be able to escape or countries such as China and USA which produce a lot of polluting gases will have to work together to reduce emissions of greenhouse gases so less heat is trapped in the atmosphere. Candidates present, and organise effectively, relevant information in a form and style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is fluent and legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with almost faultless accuracy so that meaning is clear. A wide range of specialist terms is used skilfully and with precision. [6]

[25]

122

Theme C: The Restless Earth 3 (a) (i) Richter Scale. [1]

(ii) Eurasian plate F

Mantle E

Indian Ocean A

Indo-Australian plate D

Sunda Trench B (given)

Sumatra C (given)

(4 × [1]) [4]

(iii) The city of Padang has had several earthquakes because the Indo-

Australian plate and Eurasian plate have collided [1] causing friction to build up [1]. Eventually the plates jerk free sending out shock waves [1] which are felt on the surface as an earthquake. (3 × [1]) [3]

(b) Slemish – a volcanic plug.

Process

Order

Lava rose up through the cracks

3

Lava built up a small volcanic cone

4

Two plates moved apart

1

Cracks opened up in the crust

2

(4 × [1]) [4]

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(c) Two reasons from Fig. 9 for many deaths in earthquakes in LEDCs.

Award [1] for a brief explanation mainly lifted from Fig. 9, e.g. Buildings that are not earthquake proof may fall and kill people/poor rescue services mean people die quickly. Award [2] for a detailed explanation, e.g. More people die in some places because buildings are not made earthquake-proof so collapse easily or poor rescue services mean people die quickly as the ambulances do not reach them quickly. (2 × [2]) [4]

(d) Earthquakes have severe impacts on people.

(i) [1] mark for named earthquake, e.g. Kobe, Japan. [1]

(ii) Two ways the people prepared to cope:

• Predict earthquake using past records (from seismographs). • Practice drills or have emergency kits. Any other valid way people prepared to cope with the earthquake before it happened. (2 × [1]) [2]

(iii) Description of one impact on people.

Award [1] for a brief general description, e.g. people were killed. Award [2] for a description with a consequence, e.g. people died because many buildings collapsed.

Award [3] for a description with a consequence and elaboration with a

fact/figure, e.g. 5500 people died in the Kobe earthquake because many traditional wooden buildings went on fire and others collapsed, killing the occupants. [3]

124

(iv) One long term strategy after the earthquake to reduce the impact of future earthquakes in this area. Award [1] for a valid long term strategy, e.g. after the event new building codes were introduced or a water supply was planned. Award [2] for a stated strategy and consequence, e.g. buildings were strengthened after the earthquake so that in future events they would absorb the shockwaves rather than falling down, this would reduce the overall damage caused by another strong earthquake in a MEDC.

Award [3] for a stated strategy and consequence with elaboration including at least one fact/figure, e.g. after the earthquake new building codes were introduced which meant high rise buildings had to have flexible frames so they would sway rather than collapse, thus reducing the possibility of future damage and death or e.g. the government invested money to build several 100 000 litre water cisterns to supply clean water, and bought 11 bulk water supply units for the ground fleet of the fire service and new wider (100 mm) hoses, so that large quantities of water could be dispatched by the fire brigade in any future quakes, thus reducing damage caused by out-of-control fires. [3]

[25]

Total [100]

125


2010

Geography


Foundation Tier

[CODE]

SPECIMEN

MARK SCHEME

126

Theme A: People and Where They Live 1 (a) (i) Complete the statements.

The world’s population grew slowly from 1700 to 1850. By 1850 the world’s population reached 1 billion. The fastest increase was from 1950–2000. The population of the world is now more than 6 billion. (4 × [1]) [4]

(ii) Meaning of the term natural increase.

Award [1] for a limited definition, e.g. the growth of population or more people are born. Award [2] for a clear definition, e.g. a complete statement, e.g. the birth rate minus the death rate. [2]

(iii) Definition of emigrant not asylum seekers/refugees/holiday-makers/

immigrant or migrant. [1] (iv) One positive impact of immigrants.

Any valid impact international migration can have for a country gaining lots of migrants. Award [1] for a simple explanation of a positive impact, e.g. a country gaining lots of migrants would mean lots of workers. Award [2] for an explanation with a consequence, e.g. lots of workers doing the more poorly paid jobs. Award [3] for an explanation with a consequence and elaboration, e.g. lots of workers doing the more poorly paid jobs which keep essential services going in the country. [3]

(b) (i) State whether the following is True or False.

This pyramid is typical of a LEDC. True. There are more females aged 0–4 than males aged 0–4. False. The largest group is aged 15–19. True. (3 × [1]) [3]

(ii) Two aspects of population structure:

• Age • Sex • Life expectancy, birth rate, death rate not acceptable. If number of males and number of females are given as two separate answers then award [1]. (2 × [1]) [2]

127

(iii) One impact that a large young population may have on a country. Any valid impact that a large young population may have on a country.

Award [1] for a brief explanation of one impact, e.g. needs lots of schools; overpopulation. Award [2] for an explanation of one impact with a consequence, e.g. needs lots of schools which are expensive to provide for. Reference to wealth generated by young people as workers in a LEDC max [2]. Award [3] for a detailed explanation with a consequence and elaboration, e.g. needs lots of schools which are expensive to provide, and the government will have to raise taxes to pay for them. [3]

(c) (i) GIS question

Number of migrants into Moyle Local Council District = 229 [1] (ii) Spreadsheet or a particular brand, e.g. Excel [1]

(iii) Describe the pattern of the number of migrants into Northern Ireland from

outside the U.K. Any valid description of the pattern of migrants into Northern Ireland from outside the U.K. Award [1] for a brief description, e.g. each local government district has a different number of migrants. Award [2] for a description which includes at least one fact/figure from Table 1, e.g. The highest number of migrants is in Belfast and the lowest is in Moyle. Award [3] for a detailed description which includes reference to places and figures from Table 1. e.g. There is great variation in the number of migrants in local government districts shown in Table 1. The highest is Belfast with 5880 migrant whilst the lowest is Moyle with only 229 migrants. (3 × [1]) [3]

(d) (i) Source of information: website [1]

(ii) Folder: People and Households [1]

128

(e) (i) State the meaning of the term site. Award [1] for a very brief statement, for example, where a settlement is or a land/place to build on. Award [2] for a full definition, for example, the actual place where a settlement is located. [2]

(ii) Three types of site:

Settlement

Type of site

Bath

Wet point site

Edinburgh

Defensive site

London

Bridging site

(3 × [1]) [3] (iii) True/false statements on function:

(3 × [1])

Table 3

Statement True or False

A seaside resort is an island settlement with many coal mines. False

Market towns grew up where farmers came to buy and sell goods. True

Route centres often develop where many roads meet.

True (given)

An industrial town has a lot of factories making things. True

[3]

129

(f) (i) One service shown on Fig. 5. Any one from: petrol station, doctor’s surgery, bar, café.

[1]

(ii) Describe the main features of a suburb.

Any three from: • Suburbs are found far away from the CBD of the city • Housing in the suburbs is mainly detached • The houses have gardens, which provide a safe play area for children • Most people who live there own a car, so the houses also have a

garage. Or any valid alternative feature. (3 × [1]) [3]

(iii) Describe two ways the CBD of a city is different from its suburbs.

Award [0] for a response not worthy of credit. Level 1 ([1]–[2]) Candidates briefly describe at least one difference between the CBD and suburbs in general terms, e.g. there are houses in the suburbs. Answers may relate to CBD or suburbs only. Candidates present some relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is reasonably legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with some accuracy so that meaning is reasonably clear. A limited range of specialist terms is used appropriately. Level 2 ([3]–[4]) Candidates describe two differences with some reference to both the CBD and suburbs, e.g; there are more detached houses in the suburbs whereas the CBD mostly has large shops such as Debenhams. Candidates present relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with considerable accuracy so that meaning is clear. A good range of specialist terms is used appropriately.

130

Level 3 ([5]–[6]) Candidates provide a detailed description of two differences with clear references to both the CBD and the suburbs, e.g. there are many detached and semi-detached houses in the suburbs whereas in the CBD there are mostly large retail shops such as Debenhams and the House of Fraser. Candidates present, and organise, effectively relevant information in a form and style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is fluent and legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with almost faultless accuracy so that meaning is clear. A whole range of specialist terms is used skilfully and with precision. [6]

(g) (i) Push and pull factors.

Award [1] for a correct answer. Push Factors: Any one from: • Poor harvest in home area • Soil erosion • Poor transport.

Pull Factors: Any one from: • Better housing • More jobs and better wages. (2 × [1]) [2]

(ii) One reason which might stop people from moving.

Obstacles to movement – must relate to LEDC city. Any valid reason which might stop people from moving. Award [1] for a simple statement only, e.g. poor transport. Award [2] for a statement and reason, e.g. poor transport means people cannot travel far. Also credit valid answers not on diagram, e.g. family ties. [2]

(iii) One reason for the growth seen in the LEDC cities.

Accept answers that relate to rural-urban migration and continuing high birth rates but falling death rates in these cities. Award [1] for a brief statement, e.g. lots of people are moving to cities. Award [2] for a statement with a consequence, e.g. due to drought in the countryside, lots of people are moving into the cities. Award [3] for a statement with a consequence and elaboration, e.g. due to drought in the countryside, lots of people are moving into the cities where they expect to find work and better living conditions. [3]

[50]

131


2 (a) (i) Completion of graph – both accurately and with shading. Award [1] as follows: Bar drawn accurately at the 75% line for South Asia but unshaded If bar inaccurate, e.g. to extent of Africa (66%) either side of line, credit shading [1] Any larger error either side of 75% line [0] for shading. Award [2] for accurate completion of graph, bar for South Asia at the correct 75% line and shaded. [2]

(ii) The region with the least children in primary school is West and Central

Africa. [1] (iii) Differences in development across the world.

Award [1] for a basic statement which refers to at least one region on the graph, Fig. 7, one value may be quoted, e.g. there is a high percentage of children at primary school in Western Europe. Award [2] for a comparative statement which refers to a world pattern of MEDC and LEDC regions, e.g. LEDC regions such as East Asia have a lower percentage of children at primary school than MEDC regions such as Western Europe. Award [3] for a comparative statement which identifies the world pattern of MEDC and LEDC regions and also quotes accurate values from the graph for two world regions (either boys or girls), e.g. LEDC regions (such as East Asia) have only 82% of girls (or 93% or boys) at primary school than MEDC regions such as Western Europe which have 99% at primary school. [3]

(b) World development:

Statement about development

True or False Evidence from the map

Most of the world’s people live in the poor South

True [1] South has ¾ world’s population [1]

The rich North has only slightly more wealth than the poor South

False [1] North has 85% worlds wealth [1]

People live longer in the rich North

True [1] People only live 50 years in South or people live to 70 years in North [1]

(6 × [1]) [6]

132

(c) Problem of tied aid.

Cartoon B shows the problem with using tied aid [1].

As Cartoon B shows, tied aid means that the LEDC is given aid but the donor puts restrictions on how it can be used [1], e.g. they must buy products from donor [1]. [3]

(d) (i) One strategy to help LEDCs develop.

E.g. Make Poverty History or Millennium Development Goals. [1] (ii) Two advantages this strategy could have for LEDCs.

Award [1] for a simple outline of each advantage, e.g. in the Make Poverty History campaign many LEDCs received aid to help them to develop or did not have to re-pay their debt. Award [2] for a detailed outline of each advantage, e.g. the Make Poverty History campaign was successful because it helped increase the awareness of poverty as 10 million people in the UK bought white wristbands. (2 × [2]) [4]

(e) (i) Two Fair Trade products:

• Coffee • Chocolate • Bananas • Tea. Or any other Fair Trade product. (2 × [1]) [2]

(ii) One advantage Fair Trade could bring to any LEDC.

Any valid advantage Fair Trade could bring to any LEDC. Award [1] for a simple statement, e.g. farmers get a fair price or a better deal or more income.

Award [2] for a statement with consequence, e.g. farmers get a fair price for their products so they earn more income.

Award [3] for a statement with consequence and elaboration which relates the advantage clearly to improvement in the LEDC, e.g. Fair Trade helps farmer/producers in LEDCs because they get a fair price for their product which gives them greater income to spend on sending their children to school and this raises the level of education in the country. [3]

[25]

133

Theme C: Managing our Resources

3 (a) (i) Ranking the methods of transport:

Method of transport Percentage (%) of users

Rank order

Bicycle 3 6 Bus 12 4 (given) Car 44 1 (given) Foot 10 5 Other (e.g. taxi) 15 3 Underground 16 2 (given)

(3 × [1]) [3] (ii) Percentage of Londoners who use the least popular method of transport.

3% [1] (iii) How travel to work by car increases the carbon footprint.

Award [1] for a response which shows some understanding of the term, e.g. cars produce pollution and so this would increase the carbon footprint. Award [2] for a response which shows understanding of the term linked to greenhouse gases/CO2, e.g. cars produce greenhouse gases such as nitrous oxide and these are expressed as CO2 emissions. [2]

(iv) Explain how one traffic control measure in a MEDC city reduces traffic.

Name of MEDC city, e.g. Freiburg. Award [1] for a valid statement, e.g. Fewer cars on roads or Trams transport many people.

Award [2] for a brief statement with a consequence, e.g. use of trams means fewer cars and therefore less congestion/traffic jams.

Award [3] for a valid statement with a consequence and elaboration, e.g. in Freiburg 59% of passengers use trams which have the right of way at junctions so journey times are now faster than those taken by people 20 years ago and pollution is also reduced. Must refer to specific place with minimum of one fact figure/place for [3]. [3]

134

(b) (i) Complete bar chart Award [1] for 1mm above/below on either axis Award [2] for accurate plotting on both x and y axis [0] marks for shading [2]

(ii) Energy use per person around the world.

Award [1] for a simple statement, e.g. different places use different amounts of energy per person. Award [2] for a statement with either reference to MEDC/LEDC split or with a figure quoted from Fig. 10. Award [3] for a detailed description recognising higher energy use in MEDCs and quoting relevant figures. [3]

(iii) One reason why world demand for energy is increasing.

Award [1] for a simple explanation, e.g. people are using more. Award [2] for a reasonable explanation e.g. population is growing so more people means greater demand for energy. Award [3] for a detailed explanation which may refer to either population increase or increased technological developments, e.g. as economic prosperity increases people have more money to spend on equipment (such as household appliances) which uses more energy. [3]

(c) (i) Waste items that could be recycled.

Any two from: • Paper • Glass • Metals • Clothing • Plastic • Card. [2]

(ii) State whether the following sentences are true or false.

A sustainable city would recycle most of its waste. More glass than plastic is dumped by households. In a sustainable city most people travel to work in cars. (3 × [1]) [3]

True

False

False

135

(d) Outline one benefit tourism could bring to the area. Any valid benefit tourism could bring to this area. Award [1] for a brief statement, e.g. tourists spend money in the area. Award [2] for a statement with a consequence, e.g. when tourists come to visit they buy local crafts and services and this earns money for local people. Award [3] for a statement with a consequence and elaboration, e.g. when tourists come to visit they buy local crafts and services and this earns money for local people who can invest this to improve their lives. [3]

[25]

Total [100]

136

137


2010

Geography


Higher Tier

[CODE]

SPECIMEN

MARK SCHEME

138

Theme A: The Dynamic Landscape 1 (a) (i) A = Source

B = Confluence C = Tributary (3 × [1]) [3]

(ii) State one meaning of the term watershed.

Award [1] for a simple definition such as the watershed being on high ground. Award [2] for a clear definition, e.g. the watershed as a dividing line between two drainage basins. [2]

(iii) Explain why discharge is higher at X that at Y.

Award [1] for a brief statement which shows some understanding of the meaning of discharge, e.g. more water flows past X. Award [2] for a statement which refers to a feature of the drainage basin to aid explanation, e.g. more tributaries are bringing water into the channel by the time the river reaches X. Award [3] when full use is made of the resource comparing X to Y, e.g. X is closest to the mouth of the river so most of the tributaries will be flowing past X so discharge will be highest here. None flow into the river above Y. [3]

139

(b) (i) north east. [1]

(ii) (1) One reason for flooding.

Map evidence for flooding: • the land is flat in this grid square • there is a tributary joining the main river • embankments have been built to keep the river in its channel.

Award [1] for a simple explanation such as it is close to the river. Use of map evidence is limited. Award [2] for a sound explanation with clear reference to the map evidence, e.g. there are no contour lines in this grid square indicating that the land is flat and therefore more vulnerable to flooding. Alternatively, there is a confluence with the main river (River Stour) which may increase discharge, embankments have been built to keep the river in its channel. [2]

(2) Two features which require flood protection.

Any two from: • houses • main road • bridge • dual carriageway • works. (2 × [1]) [2]

(c) (i) Impact of flooding on people.

[0] marks for the name of the river within the British Isles. Award [1] for a brief statement, e.g. homes were filled with river water. Award [2] for a statement with some elaboration, e.g. sewage from flooded drains mixed with the Derwent’s floodwaters to create a health hazard. Award [3] for a statement with elaboration including two facts or figures, e.g. in 2000 ten homes in the village of Elvington near York were left uninhabited after the River Derwent flooded. The main street was impassable for nineteen days. [3]

140

(ii) Evaluate the extent to which river management strategies can be considered sustainable. Award [0] for a response not worthy of credit. Level 1 ([1]–[3]) Candidates provides a limited factual account of strategies used on a named river or many provide a factual account with no reference to a named river outside the British Isles. e.g. levees….. Candidates present some relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is reasonably legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with some accuracy so that meaning is reasonably clear. A limited range of specialist terms is used appropriately. Level 2 ([4]–[6]) Candidate provides a factual account of strategies used on the named river with limited evaluation of the extent to which the strategies can be considered sustainable. e.g. the US Corps of Engineers have tried to control the Mississippi Rivers for over 100 years by building or strengthening levees and straightening meanders. This work is very expensive and requires maintenance. Large Scale flooding in the1990s suggests this strategy will never work. Candidates present relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with considerable accuracy so that meaning is clear. A good range of specialist terms is used appropriately.

141

Level 3 ([7]–[8]) In evaluating the statement a river management scheme is referred to which demonstrates a clear understanding of the concept of sustainability, e.g. The Mississippi River in the USA has been managed for over 100 years to improve navigation and prevent flooding. The traditional techniques, e.g. building levees and straightening meanders are very expensive and require regular maintenance. Such strategies may not be sustainable due to cost and environmental problems. An alternative approach introduced recently reunites the river with its floodplain on some stretches. The US Conservation Service has spent $25 million on buying flood prone farmlands for conversion to natural conditions. These areas do not require maintenance and have no obvious negative environmental impact suggesting that some river management strategies are sustainable. Candidates present, and organise effectively, relevant information in a form and style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is fluent and legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with almost faultless accuracy so that meaning is clear. A wide range of specialist terms is used skilfully and with precision. [8]

(d) (i) Coastal feature found in grid square 2193: beach. [1] (ii) Straight line distance between Bournemouth Aquarium and the viewpoint

at Hengistbury Head. Award [1] for 8.0–8.1 km Award [2] for 8.2–8.3 km Otherwise award [0] [2]

(iii) Map evidence which would indicate that this coastline is used by tourists.

Any of the following features: • Car parks • Pier • Aquarium • Visitor centre • Golf course • Museum • Tourist Information Centre • Viewpoint. (3 × [1]) [3]

142

(iv) Formation of a spit. Award [0] for a response not worthy of credit. Level 1 ([1]–[2]) Candidates make reference to the movement of sand, e.g. a spit is formed as sand moves along the coast. Candidates present some relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is reasonably legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with some accuracy so that meaning is reasonably clear. A limited range of specialist terms is used appropriately. Level 2 ([3]–[4]) Reference is made either to the conditions required for a spit to develop or to the process involved, e.g. sand is moved along the beach by longshore drift, sand or shingle accumulates and forms a narrow ridge. Candidates present relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with considerable accuracy so that meaning is clear. A good range of specialist terms is used appropriately. Level 3 ([5]–[6]) Reference is made either to both the conditions required for a spit to develop and to the process involved, e.g. sand is moved along the beach by longshore drift, sand or shingle accumulate and form a narrow ridge where the direction of the coast changes. Hengistbury Head has formed here due to the good supply of sand or shingle available. Candidates present, and organise effectively, relevant information in a form and style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is fluent and legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with almost faultless accuracy so that meaning is clear. A wide range of specialist terms is used skilfully and with precision. [6]

(e) (i) Formation of an arch.

Award [0] for a response not worthy of credit. Level 1 ([1]–[2]) Candidates make reference to the process of erosion or describes it, e.g. the power of the sea eats away at the rock to form an arch. Candidates present some relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is reasonably legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with some accuracy so that meaning is reasonably clear. A limited range of specialist terms is used appropriately.

143

Level 2 ([3]–[4]) The answer gives a clear indication that there are a number of stages which lead to the formation of a sea arch but not all are given. For [3] two stages must be identified, e.g. the sea attacks a crack in the rock and over time through the process of erosion this develops into a cave which in time becomes an arch. Candidates present relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with considerable accuracy so that meaning is clear. A good range of specialist terms is used appropriately. Level 3 ([5]–[6]) All stages in the formation of an arch are identified with appropriate terminology used, e.g. the sea attacks a crack or point of weakness in a coastal headland and over time through the process of erosion this develops into a cave. If erosion continues, the cave will get bigger until it runs through the headland to form an arch. Candidates present, and organise effectively, relevant information in a form and style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is fluent and legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with almost faultless accuracy so that meaning is clear. A wide range of specialist terms is used skilfully and with precision. [6]

(ii) For a named case study within the British Isles, describe the coastal

management strategies implemented and explain why these strategies were chosen. Award [0] for a response not worthy of credit. Level 1 ([1]–[3]) Coastal management strategies are described but without explanation, e.g. at Chesil Beach the government spent money building a concrete sea wall. Lists of strategies without a spatial context should be awarded Level 1. Any case studies outside the British Isles should be awarded. Candidates present some relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is reasonably legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with some accuracy so that meaning is reasonably clear. A limited range of specialist terms is used appropriately.

144

Level 2 ([4]–[6]) Coastal management strategies are described and with some explanation but no specific facts or figures, e.g. the Holderness coast in east Yorkshire is eroding and as a result needs to be defended. In some places groynes have been built to trap stones and sediment – creating a barrier to erosion. Along other parts of the coast sea walls have been built to protect the coastline – these walls deflect the energy of the waves. Candidates present relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with considerable accuracy so that meaning is clear. A good range of specialist terms is used appropriately.

Level 3 ([7]–[8])

Coastal management strategies are described in detail with full explanations or figures incorporating two facts, e.g. the Holderness coast in east Yorkshire is one of the fastest eroding coasts in Europe (eroding at 2–3 metres per year) and those living in this area have forced the government to take action to defend valuable property as well as roads, railway lines and other infrastructure. At Barmston, groynes have been built to trap stones and sediment – creating a barrier to erosion as the stones and sediment can absorb the energy when waves stile the shore. Further south, at Withernsea sea walls have been built to protect the coastline – these walls deflect the energy of the waves and are very effective in protecting the coast although they are very expensive. Candidates present, and organise effectively, relevant information in a form and style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is fluent and legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with almost faultless accuracy so that meaning is clear. A wide range of specialist terms is used skilfully and with precision. [8]

[50]

145

Theme B: Our Changing Weather and Climate 2 (a) (i) Meaning of the term weather.

Award [1] for simple reference to elements of weather, e.g. changes in rainfall, temperature and wind speed. Award [2] for a clear definition of the day to day changes in the atmosphere. [2]

(ii) Name the two instruments.

B = Rain gauge C = Weather vane or wind vane. (2 × [1]) [2]

(iii) Difference in temperature on the thermometers.

Award [2] for 30°C; Award [1] for a range of +/-2, otherwise award [0]. [2]

(b) (i) Name of front.

Cold front. [1]

Describe how the position of this front changed from 15–16 September. The front has moved eastwards [1] towards Britain [1] and is now over Scotland, the Irish Sea and South East Ireland [1] [3]

(ii) Explain why weather at Brighton on 15 September was warm and sunny.

Award [1] for a brief explanation, e.g. there was high pressure or no cloud. Award [2] for an explanation with a consequence, e.g. high pressure meant no cloud so there was sunshine.

Award [3] for an explanation with consequence plus elaboration, e.g. high pressure means air sinking so no cloud forms, so the sun shines and there is a higher temperature. [3]

146

(c) (i) Leicester’s Environmental City Plan – Choose one aspect of the plan and explain how it might help to slow down climatic change. Award [1] where an appropriate aspect of the plan is selected, e.g. planting trees, cutting emissions and less traffic but not linked to global warming. Award [2] for one aspect with a brief explanation linked to the reduction of global warming, e.g. tree planting means less pollution in the atmosphere. Award [3] for one aspect of the plan selected and fully explained with reference to appropriate terminology, e.g. tree planting will reduce global warming by absorbing CO2 – a greenhouse gas. These gases allow heat from the sun to enter the atmosphere but prevent some of the heat from escaping. [3]

(ii) One actual or possible effect of climatic change on a LEDC.

Name of LEDC [0] marks. Answers can focus on actual or potential effects. Any valid actual or potential effect of climatic change on a LEDC. Award [1] for an effect described briefly with no spatial context, e.g. homes have been flooded. Award [1] if effect described in the context of a MEDC. Award [2] for a statement with consequence, e.g. homes were flooded so people have had to leave their island homes. Award [3] when effect is described in detail with at least one fact or figure relating to the case study, e.g. a rise in sea level caused by global warming threatens people living on islands off the coast of Bangladesh. People have already been forced to abandon their homes because a third of the country was flooded. [3]

147

(iii) Evaluate one sustainable strategy which has been introduced to deal with climatic change. Award [0] for a response not worthy of credit. Level 1 ([1]–[2]) A strategy is described but no attempt is made at evaluation, e.g. in Northern Ireland grants are available via the RECONNECT programme for households to install renewable energy, e.g. wind turbines. Candidates present some relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is reasonably legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with some accuracy so that meaning is reasonably clear. A limited range of specialist terms is used appropriately. Level 2 ([3]–[4]) A strategy is described with some brief attempt at evaluation, e.g. it is possible to buy ‘green’ energy from Northern Ireland Electricity – this power is generated by wind turbines which do not produce greenhouse gases. Therefore fewer power stations are required and this reduces pollution which causes global warming. Candidates present relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with considerable accuracy so that meaning is clear. A good range of specialist terms is used appropriately. Level 3 ([5]–[6]) A strategy is described with a balanced evaluation of the scheme, e.g. it is possible to buy ‘green’ energy from Northern Ireland Electricity – this power is generating by wind turbines which do not produce greenhouse gases. Therefore fewer power stations are required and this reduces pollution which causes global warming. However, there are insufficient suitable sites in Northern Ireland to generate all our power by wind turbines. To supply a town of 7,000 homes at least 20 turbines would be required – so other sources would be required to meet the country’s future energy needs. Candidates present, and organise effectively, relevant information in a form and style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is fluent and legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with almost faultless accuracy so that meaning is clear. A wide range of specialist terms is used skilfully and with precision. [6]

[25]

148

Theme C: The Restless Earth 3 (a) (i) Plate boundary = destructive or colliding/collision. [1] (ii) Labels A and B.

A = Indo-Australian Plate B = Eurasian Plate (2 × [1]) [2]

(iii) Explain why earthquakes have recently occurred at this plate boundary.

Award [1] for a brief statement, e.g. plates collide or one is destroyed. Award [2] for a statement with a consequence, e.g. plates collide and one plate moves under the other, so friction builds up as they ‘stick’. Award [3] for a statement with a consequence plus elaboration, e.g. plates collide as the Indo-Australian plate moves under the Eurasian plate, so friction builds up as they ‘stick’. This sends out shock waves causing an earthquake. [3]

(b) Formation of volcanic plug.

Award [1]–[2] for a simple explanation linking the formation of Slemish to volcanic activity, e.g. it was formed by a small volcano, magma rose to the surface and created a small volcano. Award [3]–[4] for a detailed explanation, e.g. as N. America moved away from Europe the crust became thin and large cracks opened up across NE Ireland and Scotland resulting in a series of small volcanoes. Lava may solidify at the top of the vent forming a plug. The plug eventually stands in isolation when the surrounding cone is eroded. Slemish is an example of this. [4]

149

(c) Two reasons why more people are killed in some earthquakes than others. These may relate to: • wealth (MEDC/LEDC) • geographical location • strength of the earthquake • efficiency of rescue services/medical care • quality of building construction. Any two valid reasons why more people are killed in some earthquakes than others. Award [1] for a simple statement, e.g. poor building/poor rescue services mean many people die. Award [2] for a statement with a consequence, e.g. more people die in some places because buildings are not made earthquake-proof so collapse easily. Award [3] for a statement with a consequence plus elaboration which refers to the table and compares places, e.g. more people die in LEDCs, such as Mexico, because they cannot afford to make buildings earthquake-proof and many are made of mud bricks so they collapse easily; in MEDCs such as USA/Japan, buildings are made of steel and have cross bracings with deep foundations. (2 × [3]) [6]

(d) (i) Explain the cause of a named earthquake you have studied.

Award [1] for a simple stated cause, e.g. the earthquake in Japan was caused by plate movement. Award [2] for a cause stated with some explanatory detail, e.g. the earthquake in Japan was caused by movement along a complicated destructive plate boundary/one plate goes under the other.

Award [3] for a cause stated with good detail – including one fact or

figure, e.g. plates named, e.g. Kobe, in Japan – January 1995. This earthquake was caused by movement along a plate boundary where the Pacific, Eurasian and Philippine plates meet. This particular earthquake was caused by the subduction of the Philippine plate beneath the Eurasian plate. Although this averages 10 cm per year, friction had stopped the smooth movement of these plates for some time, until the pressure to move was so great that they shunted and moved just over 2 m horizontally in the space of 20 seconds. This created shockwaves felt on the earth’s surface as an earthquake.

[3]

(ii) Explain two strategies put in place after this earthquake to reduce loss of life in future earthquakes. Award [0] for a response not worthy of credit.

150

Level 1 ([1]–[2]) Only one strategy noted – with a low standard of detail, e.g. after the event new building codes were introduced. Candidates present some relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is reasonably legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with some accuracy so that meaning is reasonably clear. A limited range of specialist terms is used appropriately.

Level 2 ([3]–[4]) Two strategies covered fairly well or one strategy covered well, with a stated strategy, consequence and elaboration, e.g. buildings were strengthened after the earthquake so that in future events they would absorb the shockwaves rather than falling down. This would reduce the overall damage caused by another strong earthquake in a MEDC. Candidates present relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with considerable accuracy so that meaning is clear. A good range of specialist terms is used appropriately.

Level 3 ([5]–[6]) A top level answer which addresses two strategies with statement, consequence and elaboration, e.g. after the quake new building codes were introduced that meant high rise buildings had to have flexible frames so they would sway rather than collapse, thus reducing the possibility of future damage and death. Also the fire service conducted an earthquake preparedness review in 2000. Following this the government invested money to build several 100 000 litre water cisterns to supply clean water, and bought 11 bulk water supply units for the ground fleet of the fire service and new wider (100mm) hoses for the fire ships, so that large quantities of water could be dispatched by the fire brigade in any future quakes, thus reducing damage caused by out-of-control fires. Candidates present, and organise effectively, relevant information in a form and style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is fluent and legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with almost faultless accuracy so that meaning is clear. A wide range of specialist terms is used skilfully and with precision. [6]

[25]

Total [100]

151


2010

Geography


Higher Tier

[CODE]

SPECIMEN

MARK SCHEME

152

Theme A: People and Where They Live 1 (a) (i) One billion people in 1850. [1]

(ii) 2000. [1]

(iii) Two reasons why the world’s population increased rapidly from 1900.

Any two valid reasons why the world’s population increased rapidly from 1900. Award [0] for a response not worthy of credit. Level 1 ([1]–[2]] Candidates provide a list of reasons with no consequence or elaboration, e.g. health care, standard of living. Alternatively, candidates may provide one reason with consequence, e.g. better health care meant that people lived longer. Candidates present some relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is reasonably legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with some accuracy so that meaning is reasonably clear. A limited range of specialist terms is used appropriately. Level 2 ([3]–[4]) Candidates identify two reasons with consequences, e.g. better health care meant that people lived longer or fewer babies died meaning that more survived. Candidates present relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with considerable accuracy so that meaning is clear. A good range of specialist terms is used appropriately. Level 3 ([5]–[6]) Candidates provide a full explanation covering two reasons and detailing consequence and elaboration, e.g. more people were surviving and living longer because of better medicines, including vaccines, and hospital care so the population continued to grow. Parents were still having large families but fewer of the babies were dying because good health care was available and therefore the population grew rapidly. Candidates present, and organise effectively, relevant information in a form and style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is fluent and legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with almost faultless accuracy so that meaning is clear. A wide range of specialist terms is used skilfully and with precision. [6]

153

(iv) Meaning of the term natural increase.

Award [1] for a limited definition, e.g. the growth of population or more people are born. Award [2] for a full definition, e.g. a complete statement, e.g. the birth rate minus the death rate.

[2] (b) (i) Two aspects of population structure:

• Age • Sex • Life expectancy, birth rate, death rate not acceptable. If number of males and number of females are given as two separate answers then award [1] (2 × [1]) [2]

(ii) Pyramid A is more typical of an LEDC [1] because:

• it has a wide base [1] representing a high birth rate [1] • it has a narrow top [1] representing a high death rate [1] [3]

(iii) One impact that a large youth dependent population may have on a

country. Any valid impact that a large youth dependent population has on a country. Award [1] for a brief statement only, e.g. needs lots of schools or more babies born. Award [2] for a statement and consequence, e.g. needs lots of schools which are expensive to provide; or when the younger population has babies, the population will continue to grow quickly. Award [3] for a statement consequence and elaboration, e.g. needs lots of schools which are expensive to provide, and the government will have to raise taxes to pay for them or when the younger population has babies, the population will continue to grow, and hospitals and maternity care will have to be provided for these babies and parents. [3]

(c) (i) Describe the pattern of the number of migrants into Northern Ireland from

outside the U.K. Any valid description of the pattern of migrants into Northern Ireland from outside the U.K. Award [1] for a brief description, e.g. each local government district has a different number of migrants. Award [2] for a description which includes at least one fact/figure from Table 1, e.g. The highest number of migrants is in Belfast and the lowest is in Moyle.

154

Award [3] for a detailed description which includes reference to places and figures from Table 1. e.g. There is great variation in the number of migrants in local government districts shown in Table 1. The highest is Belfast with 5880 migrant whilst the lowest is Moyle with only 229 migrants. (3 × [1])

[3]

(ii) Appropriate mapping technique. Award [1] for a general descriptive statement, e.g. a shaded or coloured map. Award [2] for an appropriate geographical mapping technique, e.g. choropleth mapping. [2]

(iii) Describe one benefit of using a GIS.

Award [1] for a brief statement with no specific reference to the resource, e.g. lots of information available. Award [2] for a statement with some use of the resource, e.g. data for country of origin or number of migrants from particular countries is available instantly. Award [3] where candidate quotes from the resource and outlines one benefit in detail, e.g. data for country of origin or number of migrants from particular countries is available instantly for all of N. Ireland. This would save time for any investigation into migration as you could go straight to data presentation. [3]

(d) (i) Meaning of the term site.

Award [1] for a simple definition, e.g. where a settlement is. Award [2] for a clear definition, e.g. the actual place where a settlement is located or where a settlement is, plus example, e.g. wet point site. [2]

(ii) Two reasons this site would have been attractive to settlers.

Candidates do not need to have specifically studied Belfast, so keep this in mind when marking. Possible answers will pick up: • Fording point of river • Sandbanks • Flat land • Sheltered by hills • Fuel supply from wood • Fresh water from rivers. It is their understanding of its relevance that is being tested.

Award [0] for a response not worthy of credit.

155

Level 1 ([1]–[2]) Candidates identify two reasons with no consequences or elaboration, e.g. flat land, water supply. Candidates present some relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is reasonably legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with some accuracy so that meaning is reasonably clear. A limited range of specialist terms is used appropriately. Level 2 ([3]–[4]) Candidates identify two reasons with consequence, e.g. flat land was suitable for building on as well as for agriculture as there is a nearby water supply. Candidates present relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with considerable accuracy so that meaning is clear. A good range of specialist terms is used appropriately.

Level 3 ([5]–[6])

Candidates provide two reasons with consequence and elaboration, e.g. the flat land between Divis Mountain and the Castlereagh hills would have been attractive to early settlers as they could farm the land and build their houses. This would have provided food supplies which in turn would have attracted more settlers. Candidates present, and organise effectively, relevant information in a form and style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is fluent and legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with almost faultless accuracy so that meaning is clear. A wide range of specialist terms is used skilfully and with precision. [6]

(e) (i) Name one service:

• Petrol station • Café bar • Doctor’s surgery.

[1] (ii) Explain one possible advantage and one possible disadvantage of living in

suburban areas. Advantages may include house size, gardens, nearby facilities such as a doctor’s surgery. Disadvantages may include the commute time to job in CBD, expensive type of house, lack of certain services such as bus routes. Any valid advantage and disadvantage of living in suburban areas. Award [0] for a response not worthy of credit.

156

Level 1 ([1]–[2]) A limited answer which may only identify an advantage and/or both a disadvantage, e.g. houses have gardens; there are usually very few jobs in suburbs. Candidates present some relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is reasonably legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with some accuracy so that meaning is reasonably clear. A limited range of specialist terms is used appropriately. Level 2 ([3]–[4]) Candidates identify both an advantage and a disadvantage with limited explanation, e.g the houses have gardens for children to play in; there are usually very few jobs in suburbs so people have to travel to work. Candidates present relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with considerable accuracy so that meaning is clear. A good range of specialist terms is used appropriately. Level 3 ([5]–[6]) Candidates identify both an advantage and a disadvantage with detailed explanation e.g. suburbs usually attract families as the houses have gardens which provide safe areas for children to play in. There are usually few jobs in the suburbs so people often have to travel considerable distances to work in the CBD and this adds significantly to their work-travel time. Candidates present, and organise effectively, relevant information in a form and style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is fluent and legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with

almost faultless accuracy so that meaning is clear. A wide range of specialist terms is used skilfully and with precision. [6]

(f) (i) Describe the changing size and global distribution of the world’s largest

cities. Award [1] for a simple statement relating to either the size or to the distribution of the cities. The largest cities are bigger in 2006. The largest cities are now in LEDCs.

Award [2] for a simple statement covering both size and distribution or a more detailed description of either size or distribution. The largest cities are bigger in 2006 and mostly in LEDCs. [2] The largest cities have many more inhabitants in 2006, for example, the largest city in 2006 is just over five times the size of the largest city in 1900.

157

Award [3] for a fully detailed description of both size and distribution with illustrative facts and figures from the table. The largest cities have many more inhabitants in 2006 and tend now to be in LEDCs, for example, the largest city in 2006 is just over five times the size of the largest city in 1900 and there are only two MEDC cities in the table in 2006, but in 1900 all the world’s largest cities were in MEDCs.

[3]

(ii) Two reasons for the changing distribution of the world’s largest cities. Award [0] for a response not worthy of credit. Level 1 ([1]–[2]) A limited response. Candidates may simply identify two reasons or may provide a limited explanation of one reason only, e.g. LEDCs have the highest rates of rural to urban migration. Candidates present some relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is reasonably legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with some accuracy so that meaning is reasonably clear. A limited range of specialist terms is used appropriately. Level 2 ([3]–[4]) Candidates identify two reasons with limited explanation, e.g. many of the world’s largest cities are now in LEDCs which have the highest rates of rural to urban migration because people move to the cities looking for work. Candidates present relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with considerable accuracy so that meaning is clear. A good range of specialist terms is used appropriately.

Level 3 ([5])–[6]) Candidates identify two reasons with sound explanation, e.g. many of the world’s largest cities are now in LEDCs which experience the highest rates of rural to urban migration because people move to the cities such as Mexico City looking for work. Transnational Corporations (TNCs) now have factories in many LEDC cities providing a wide range of job opportunities with wage levels much higher than in rural areas. Candidates present, and organise effectively, relevant information in a form and style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is fluent and legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with almost faultless accuracy so that meaning is clear. A wide range of specialist terms is used skilfully and with precision. [6]

[50]

158


2 (a) (i) West and Central Africa has the lowest percentage of children at primary school.

[1]

(ii) Comparison of percentage of girls at primary school in less and more

economically developed regions. Award [1] for a brief statement referring correctly to either LEDCs or MEDCs with an implied comparison (higher/lower or more/less), e.g. there are more girls at primary school in MEDCs or there is a lower percentage of girls at primary school in LEDCs. Award [2] for a more specific comparison referring to appropriate regions from Fig. 6, e.g. there are more girls at primary school in MEDCs as in Western Europe. Award [3] for a full comparison naming at least one appropriate region from LEDCs and from MEDCs (two percentage values included), e.g. the percentage of girls at primary school in LEDCs is lower at only 55% in Africa and higher in MEDCs with 99% in Western Europe. [3]

(iii) Name one economic indicator:

• Gross National Product • Percentage employed in primary activities. • Social indicators not acceptable, e.g. Human Development Index. [1]

Any valid economic indicator of development may be used as the basis for this question. Award [1] for a valid statement about an indicator, economic or social, e.g. GNP measures the wealth of a country. Award [2] for some understanding of the fact that there is a need for other measures of development, e.g. GNP only measures wealth or the value of the goods and services produced by a country but development also is about the quality of people’s lives/their standard of living.

Award [3] for clear understanding shown of the fact that an economic indicator alone is an incomplete measure of development and social indicators are needed to indicate people’s living standards, e.g. GNP only measures the wealth of a country by the goods and services it produces but a country could have a high GNP and yet have a low level of social development, e.g. low literacy levels. Alternatively GNP only measures the wealth of a country by the goods and services it produces but a country could have a high GNP and its wealth may be shared by very few people or only some of the people in the country are wealthy and the majority are poor. [3]

159

(b) (i) Describe the changes in the price of coffee on the world market. Award [1] for a brief statement of a trend, e.g. the price of coffee has fallen or the price fluctuates. Award [2] for a statement which describes the pattern before and after 1978 but uses no figures, or uses many figures but not the change in trend, e.g. the price of coffee was high in the 1970s and has fallen irregularly. Award [3] for a statement with accurate figures and refers to the pattern up to 1978 and afterwards, e.g. the price of coffee was rising before 1978 when it peaked at 215 cents per pound and then it fluctuated with a downwards trend with a small peak of 160 cents and fell to 50 cents in 1992; it then rose to 115 cents in 1995 and fell below 50 cents in 2000 to 2005. [3]

(ii) Explain how the Fair Trade price helped coffee growers in LEDCs from

June 2004 to May 2005. Award [1] for a brief statement (quoting from the graph perhaps), e.g. Fair Trade paid growers more than the market price. Farmers to get a stable price. Award [2] for a statement with a consequence and which refers to Fig. 7(b), e.g. as Fair Trade pays a higher price of 106 cents to coffee growers, farmers will earn a higher income than if they got <50 cents which means they can balance their income and outgoings more easily. Award [3] for a statement with a consequence and elaboration of pattern on Fig. 7(b), e.g. Fair Trade pays a higher price of 106 cents which was steady all year while the market price varied and remained low at 25–50 cents, so Fair Trade farmers growing coffee will receive a fair income. This means that they can not only balance their income and outgoings more easily, they can also invest in their farm by buying equipment. [3]

160

(iii) One factor that could contribute to a lack of development in LEDCs. Award [1] for a statement of a valid factor (not dependence on primary activities), e.g. past history or environmental hazard (or, an example of one such as drought) or debt or politics. Award [2] for a statement of a valid factor with elaboration, e.g. the government spends money unwisely (for example, income is spent on a large army) or politicians cannot manage the economy. Award [3] for a statement of a valid factor with elaboration and consequence in LEDCs, e.g. the government spends money unwisely (for example income of the country is spent on a large army) or politicians cannot manage the economy efficiently so that less money is spent on improving education or health care etc to help people in LEDCs. [3]

(iv) Outline one international strategy to reduce the development gap between

countries. Award [0] for a response not worthy of credit. Level 1 ([1]–[3]) A valid strategy is stated with a limited evaluation relating to one aspect of the strategy’s success or failure only. Alternatively the candidate may outline a valid strategy with no attempt to evaluate it, e.g. the Make Poverty History campaign did not work because many LEDCs remain poor. Candidates present some relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is reasonably legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with some accuracy so that meaning is reasonably clear. A limited range of specialist terms is used appropriately. Level 2 ([4]–[6]) A valid strategy is outlined with a limited evaluation relating to both the success and failure of the strategy, e.g. the Make Poverty History is a campaign to get world leaders to either cancel the debt, increase aid or to establish free, fair trade. The campaign was successful because it helped to increase the awareness of poverty. 10 million people in the UK bought white wristbands. However, some LEDCs still have to pay back their debt. Candidates present relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with considerable accuracy so that meaning is clear. A good range of specialist terms is used appropriately.

161

Level 3 ([7]–[8]) A valid strategy is outlined with a sound evaluation relating to both the success and failure of the strategy, e.g. the Make Poverty History is a campaign to get world leaders to either cancel the debt, increase aid or to establish free, fair trade. The campaign was successful because it helped to increase the awareness of poverty in MEDCs; for example in the UK 10 million people bought white wristbands. However, the policy failed to fully eradicate poverty in LEDCs; only 18 out of 62 LEDC countries had their debt cancelled, so these LEDCs still have to pay back their debt and this is having a negative impact on new growth. Candidates present, and organise effectively, relevant information in a form and style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is fluent and legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with almost faultless accuracy so that meaning is clear. A wide range of specialist terms is used skilfully and with precision. [8]

[25]

162

Theme C: Managing our Resources 3 (a) (i) State the meaning of the term carbon footprint.

Award [1] for a limited definition, e.g. the total amount of pollution caused by a person or an event. Award [2] for a clear definition related to the production of greenhouse gases, e.g. the total set of greenhouse gases caused by an individual or event expressed as CO2 emissions. [2]

(ii) For a named MEDC city describe and explain how one traffic control

measure contributes to the sustainable development of the city. To obtain Level 3 a city must be named and answer must include at least two place-specific facts or figures. Any valid traffic control measure implemented in a named MEDC city. Award [0] for a response not worthy of credit. Level 1 ([1]–[2]) A valid statement naming a traffic control measure. Only the description is tackled, e.g. better public transport [1], cheaper bus travel [1], better public transport, trams were introduced [2]. Candidates present some relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is reasonably legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with some accuracy so that meaning is reasonably clear. A limited range of specialist terms is used appropriately.

Level 2 ([3]–[4]) A statement of a traffic control measure with an elaboration. This may be through a figure or the brief discussion on how the measure encourages sustainable development, e.g. better public transport has meant that more people use trams than twenty years ago. So people today travel as quickly through the city as then. Candidates present, relevant information in a form and using a style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with considerable accuracy so that meaning is clear. A good range of specialist terms is used appropriately.

163

Level 3 ([5]–[6]) Statement of method with a clear consequence and good elaboration relating to how the measure contributes to the sustainable development of the named city. It must contain at least two specific facts or figures that relate to the named city, e.g. City named: Freiburg. In Freiburg in 1969 the city council opted to extend the streetcar services, and have been adding and improving lines since. The streetcars have right-of-way at road intersections, roads have been narrowed to give more space to the light rail lines. This has halved the travelling time for tram users compared to car users. Trams now carry 59% of all passengers using public transport. This means the tram system contributes to the sustainable development of Freiburg as there is less congestion on roads which would cut journey time for future generations and air quality would be reduced due to the build up of pollution. Candidates present, and organise effectively, relevant information in a form and style of writing which suits its purpose. The text is fluent and legible. Spelling, punctuation and the rules of grammar are used with almost faultless accuracy so that meaning is clear. A wide range of specialist terms is used skilfully and with precision. [6]

164

(b) (i) Describe differences in pattern of world population and world energy consumption. Award [1] for a statement using one aspect of the table, i.e. population or energy consumption, e.g. Africa does not consume much energy. Award [2] for some comparison addressing both aspects but may be only a list, e.g. Asia had 60% world population and uses 18% energy whereas North America has 5% world population and uses 44% energy. Award [3] for a comparison which refers to differences between MEDCs and LEDCs in terms of both population and energy consumption. Figures should be used to justify the statement. [3]

(ii) Assess the implication for world energy use in the future.

Award [1] for a statement of one example from table, e.g. Thailand might use the most energy. Award [2] for a statement of examples with general consequence, e.g. countries such as Thailand and South Korea may need more energy. Award [3] for a statement, consequence and recognition that these countries have traditionally used less energy, e.g. most are from LEDCs. Countries which are presently using less energy are experiencing growth which leads to greater demand for energy, therefore this will put even greater pressure on energy sources in the future. There is no need to quote figures. [3]

(c) (i) Describe waste hierarchy.

Award [1] for brief statements from Fig. 9, e.g. it means we must reduce, reuse and recycle waste. Award [2] for a statement relating to the organisation of waste in the diagram either in the present or the future, e.g. we are disposing of most of our waste now and we are not are not reducing, reusing and recycling enough waste. Award [3] for a statement relating to the hierarchical organisation shown about how we are coping with waste now and how we should do so in the future, e.g. we are disposing of most of our waste now and we are not reducing, reusing and recycling enough waste; in the future, policy must be to recycle more of it and/or produce less waste. [3]

165

(ii) One reason why the current waste management shown in Fig. 9 is unsustainable. Award [1] for a simple explanation, e.g. we are disposing of too much waste. Award [2] for an explanation with consequence, e.g. we are disposing of too much waste which means it ends up in landfill. Award [3] for a sound explanation detailing a consequence and elaboration, e.g. we are disposing of too much waste which means it ends up in a landfill site or a dump, this makes it inaccessible to future generations and may even pollute their water supply. Instead we should be reducing the amount of waste we produce. [3]

(d) (i) One negative impact of tourists walking the INCA Trail.

Any valid negative impact of tourists on the landscape shown. Award [1] for a brief statement of a negative impact, e.g. tourists might leave litter or tourists might cause erosion. Award [2] for a detailed negative impact, e.g. tourists might leave litter behind e.g. plastic bags which will spoil the beauty of the Inca Trail. Alternatively tourists may stray off the paths causing erosion and damaging the environment. [2]

(ii) One positive benefit of tourism to the economy of this area.

Any valid benefit to the economy of this area. Award [1] for a brief statement, e.g. tourists spend money in the area. Award [2] for statement with a consequence, e.g. tourists will spend money in the area buying local goods and services which means more money for local people. Award [3] for a statement with a consequence and elaboration, e.g. tourists will spend money in the area buying goods such as souvenirs, and services such as meals from local people. This provides the local people with employment and provides a source of income. This allows them either to invest in their business or support their families by paying for education for their children. [3]

[25]

Total [100]

Documents

GCSE Geography Specimen Assessment Materials Geography Specimen Assessment Materials. ... guidance on the structure and character of the planned assessments in advance ... General