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AP HUMAN GEOGRAPHY

THE GRAND REVIEW (HANSEN REMIX)

Unit I Geography: It’s Nature and Perspectives Match the following geographical concepts with their definitions: 1. Location a. physical and human characteristics of a location 2. Place b. arrangement of objects on landscape (linear, grid, random) 3. Scale of analysis c. increasing interconnection of people, goods, ideas 4. Pattern d. chain of communication/linkages connecting places 5. Networks e. size of the unit used to analyze a problem (local, global) 6. Regionalization f. field observations, photographic interpretations 7. Globalization g. absolute or relative location of a spot on Earth’s surface 8. Landscape analysis h. a group’s perceived identification with a particular region Identify each of the following types of maps. In addition, classify them as reference or thematic. 9. 10.

11. 12.

13. 14.

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Identify each of the following types of map projections. Then circle which spatial relationships that particular projection distorts. 17. 18. shape area distance direction shape area distance direction 19. 20. shape area distance direction shape area distance direction Calculate the natural increase rate (NIR) for each of the scenarios: 21. CBR: 20 births per 1000 22. CBR: 9 births per 1000 CDR: 8 deaths per 1000 CDR: 14 deaths per 1000 Calculate the population doubling time for each of the scenarios: 23. NIR: 2.0% 24. If the doubling time is 140 years, what is the NIR?

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Match the following: 25. a computer system that stores, organizes, a. cultural diffusion retrieves, analyzes, and displays geographic data 26. the forms superimposed on the physical b. cultural ecology environment by the activities of humans 27. the spread of an idea or innovation from its source c. cultural landscape 28. interactions between human societies and the d. environmental physical environment determinism 29. a space-based global navigation satellite system e. GIS 30. the physical environment, rather than social f. GPS conditions, determines culture 31. the small- or large-scale acquisition of information g. remote sensing of an object or phenomenon, either in recording or in real time Choose the one that does not belong: 32. a. township and range 37. a. major airport b. clustered rural settlement b. grid street pattern c. grid street pattern c. major central park d. natural harbor 33. a. site e. public sports facility b. situation c. relative location 38. a. Iowa b. Muscatine County 34. a. latitude and longitude c. The Midwest b. site d. Corn Belt c. situation d. absolute location 39. a. time zones b. China 35. a. globalization c. United States railroads

b. nationalism d. 15 degrees c. foreign investment d. multinational corporations 40. a. 2,339 centimeters

b. 35 seconds 36. a. Westernization c. Two dollars and fifty cents b. uniform consumption preferences d. 216 footsteps c. enhanced communications e. 15 minutes d. local traditions

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Match the following (some regions have more than one answer): 41. formal region a. Des Moines 42. functional region b. the Des Moines Register 43. perceptual region c. Iowa d. the South e. an airline hub f. Rust Belt 44. The “why of where” refers to

a. geography’s emphasis on landscape features. b. spatial patterns on the landscape. c. a definition of geography that is simply locational. d. the idea that the explanation of a spatial pattern is crucial. e. the depiction of a region’s physical features.

45. Which of the following sets of maps would help explain how scale of analysis affects truth?

a. maps showing the area of France before and after surveying b. maps of Hudson Bay drawn by Native Americans and by the earliest European travelers c. maps showing Michigan’s population density by counties and the United States

population density by state d. maps showing the number of auto thefts per block in Seattle in the decades before and

after the Great Depression e. maps of gang graffiti in Philadelphia

Match the following countries with the world region where they are located. 46. Thailand, Vietnam, Cambodia, Laos a. Latin America 47. Congo, Cameroon, Angola, Gabon b. Western Europe 48. China, Koreas, Japan c. Eastern Europe 49. Brazil d. Central Asia 50. Somalia, Kenya, Tanzania e. Middle East 51. Peru, Guatemala, Argentina, Chile f. South Asia 52. Liberia, Mali, Nigeria, Sierra Leone g. Southeast Asia

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53. Togo, Congo, Kenya, Malawi h. East Asia 54. Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, Nepal i. North Africa 55. Lesotho, Zimbabwe, Botswana j. West Africa 56. Germany, Italy, Norway, UK k. East Africa 57. Sudan, Egypt, Libya, Morocco l. South Africa 58. Israel, Iraq, Turkey, Saudi Arabia m. Central Africa 59. Ukraine, Romania, Serbia, Estonia n. South America 60. Kazakhstan, Afghanistan o. Sub-Saharan Africa Unit II Population and Migration Label each of the following population pyramids as Stage 1, Stage 2, Stage 4, or Stage 5 of the demographic transition: 61. __________________ 62. __________________ 63. __________________ 64. __________________ 65. __________________ 66. __________________

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Label each of the following Detroit, MI; Laredo, TX; Lawrence, KS; Naples, FL; Unalaska, AK; or USA: 67. __________________ 68. __________________ 69. __________________ 70. __________________ 71. __________________ 72. __________________ Match the type of density with the description (some may have more than one answer): 73. Arithmetic Density a. measures pressure on land to produce food 74. Physiological Density b. population density 75. Agricultural Density c. population divided by unit of land area d. shows development of farming technology e. number of farmers per unit of arable land f. good indicator of a country’s level of development g. population divided by unit of arable land area h. high in Egypt i. low in the United States j. high in India

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Match the following: 76. the ability of a resource base to sustain a. brain drain its population 77. a population shift from urban to rural areas b. carrying capacity 78. the number of working-age people compared c. chain migration to the number of people too old or too young to work 79. migration within a state d. counterurbanization 80. migration between states e. dependency ratio 81. the difference between in-migration and f. external migration out-migration 82. the process by which immigrants from a g. infant mortality rate particular place follow others from that place to another place 83. flight of talented people away from an area h. internal migration 84. CBR – CDR per thousand i. natural increase rate 85. number of children a woman is likely to have j. net migration 86. number of deaths under the age of 2 per thousand k. total fertility rate Choose the cause of the other two: 87. a. water b. population growth c. agriculture 88. a. Columbus discovers America b. crops exchanged between the Western and Eastern hemisphere c. millions of Native Americans are killed by disease 89. a. one-child policy b. poverty c. overpopulation 90. a. high standard of living b. large metropolitan population c. Stage 3 of the demographic transition

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Choose the effect of the other two: 91. a. poverty b. war c. migration 92. a. racism b. exclusion of non-white immigrants c. quota laws from the 1920s to the 1960s 93. a. young age structure b. not married c. high level of migration 94. a. cold weather b. warm coastal waters c. population clusters near the equator and the coast 95. a. increased trade b. rich natural resources c. population cluster on the coast Identify each of the following as a “pull” factor or a “push” factor: 96. ethnic cleansing 100. war 97. natural disaster 101. chain migration 98. available jobs 102. overpopulation 99. religious freedom 103. unbalanced sex ratio Match the following: 104. refugees a. migration that crosses international borders 105. internally displaced persons (IDPs) b. most common form of migration in the world 106. asylum seekers c. flee home country, granted resettlement elsewhere 107. transnational migration d. migration that follows family or ethnic group 108. internal migration e. series of small, incremental moves to final location 109. chain migration f. flee persecution but do not leave the country 110. step migration g. migration within a country (intra- or inter-regional) 111. rural to urban migration h. flee country without legal status, seeking safety

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112. Two-thirds of the world’s population is clustered in four regions. Which of the following is NOT one of these four regions?

a. East Asia b. Southeast Asia c. Sub-Saharan Africa d. Europe e. South Asia

113. Assuming a world population of 6,000,000,000 and an annual growth rate of 2.0 percent, how

many people will be added to the world’s population in the next year? a. 120,000 b. 1,200,000 c. 12,000,000 d. 120,000,000 e. 1,200,000,000 114. The population of the United States is approximately 300 million, and the land area is

approximately 9 million square kilometers. The arithmetic density of the United States is about

a. 30 square kilometers per person. b. 30 persons per square kilometer. c. 0.03 square kilometers per person. d. 0.03 persons per square kilometer. e. 300 persons per square kilometer.

115. Which continent(s) is/are commonly associated with high numbers of refugees in the early

twenty-first century?

I. Africa II. Asia III. Australia IV. Europe V. North America VI. South America

a. I e. I, II, VI b. II f. III and IV c. I and II g. IV and V d. I, II, IV h. IV, V, VI

116. Payments made by migrants back to family/friends in their home countries. Often, these

payments make up a significant portion of the GNI in less-developed countries. a. restorative justice b. spatial diffusion c. development loan d. remittances

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Unit III Cultural Patterns and Processes Match the following terms with their definitions: 117. Culture a. how a culture shapes environment to reflect their values 118. Cultural traits b. intangible ideas or beliefs (religion, values, norms) 119. Material culture c. shared practices, technologies, attitudes, and behaviors 120. Nonmaterial culture d. minority culture maintains traits but adapts (Amish) 121. Acculturation e. belief in valuing diverse plurality of cultures 122. Assimilation f. individual elements of culture (food preferences, land use) 123. Multiculturalism g. visible elements of culture (homes, places of worship, art) 124. Cultural landscape h. minority has entire cultural loss to dominant culture Classify each of the following as folk culture or popular culture: 125. the Amish 131. relocation diffusion 126. sports 132. cultural homogeneity 127. small scale 133. traditional diet 128. large scale 134. McDonalds 129. slow change 135. blue jeans 130. rapid change 136. modern communication Match the following: 137. fragmentation of a region into smaller units a. Balkanization 138. a common language b. Shiite 139. an example of ethnic nationalism c. feng shui 140. an example of linguistic nationalism d. Gaelic 141. an example of linguistic fragmentation e. lingua franca 142. an example of how religion can influence geography f. Nunavut 143. minority branch of Islam but majority in Iraq and Iran g. Scandinavian

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Match the language family with the region in which it is spoken (some have more than one answer): 144. Afro-Asiatic a. Northern Canada 145. Dravidian b. North & South America 146. Indo-European c. Andes Mountains 147. Niger-Congo d. Amazon Basin 148. Sino-Tibetan e. Europe 149. Indigenous Languages f. North Africa g. Middle East h. Sub-Saharan Africa i. Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan, northern India j. southern India k. China, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos l. Papua New Guinea m. Australian Outback 150. Which of the following is the correct chronology of the origin and diffusion of English? a. Germanic Invasion à Celts à Norman Invasion à Vikings à North America à South Asia b. Celts à Germanic Invasion à Vikings à Norman Invasion à North America à South Asia c. Celts à Vikings à German Invasion à North America à Norman Invasion à South Asia Match the following terms with their definitions and examples: 151. Isogloss a. language used for business g. Haitian French 152. Dialect b. speaking one language h. Japan 153. pidgin c. language boundary i. Spain/France 154. creole d. varied pronunciation, spelling j. English 155. lingua franca e. mixing of languages k. color vs. colour 156. monolingual f. simplified language l. Broken Ojibwe

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Classify each of the following religions a monotheistic or polytheistic and ethnic or universalizing. Also indicate their hearth region.

religion mono or polytheistic ethnic or universalizing hearth region

157. Buddhism

158. Hinduism

159. Sikhism

160. Islam

161. Judaism

162. Mormonism

163. Orthodox Christianity

164. Protestantism

165. Roman Catholicism

Match the religions with the region in which they are practiced (some have more than one answer): 166. Roman Catholic a. Central & South America 167. Protestant b. United States 168. Eastern Orthodox c. Western Europe 169. Hinduism d. Eastern Europe & Russia 170. Judaism e. Northern Europe 171. Islam f. North Africa 172. Buddhism g. Middle East 173. Sikhism h. Sub-Saharan Africa 174. Animism i. India j. East and Southeast Asia k. Philippines l. Indonesia m. Japan n. Punjab

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Match related terms: 175. Hinduism a. pagoda f. Jerusalem 176. Buddhism b. church g. Israel 177. Judaism c. mosque h. Palestine 178. Christianity d. synagogue i. Mecca 179. Islam e. temple j. India 180. All of the following twentieth-century migration streams were propelled by persecution or open

conflict EXCEPT

a. Asians leaving Uganda. b. Kosovars leaving Yugoslavia. c. Tutsis leaving Rwanda. d. Hindus leaving Pakistan. e. Mexicans leaving Mexico.

181. If four languages have similar words for numbers and the name of fish, but different names for a

certain disease, what might be concluded about the time at which the disease first diffused?

a. The disease spread among a population that later divided and evolved into four different languages.

b. The population divided and evolved into the four different languages, and then the disease spread.

c. The disease spread to two different populations that later divided into different languages. d. The disease and language spread to four different regions at the same time at the same

rate. e. No conclusion possible.

182. Which of the following correctly sequences the continuum from language family to dialect?

a. Afro-Asiatic, Semitic, Arabic, Berber b. Sino-Tibetan, Sinitic, Mandarin, Chinese c. Indo-European, Indo-Iranian, Hindi, Bengali d. Indo-European, Balto-Slavic, Russian, Ukrainian e. Indo-European, Germanic, English, Midland-Northern

183. Contact zones between religions are most likely to be volatile when they are

a. inhabited by two major groups with divergent religious beliefs. b. made up of three or more religious groups. c. characterized by considerable interaction between religious groups. d. also language contact zones. e. associated with competing ethnonational claims to territory.

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184. __________ is to Canada as __________ is to the United States.

a. French, English b. French, Spanish c. presidential government; parliamentary government d. conflict over ethnicity; conflict over language e. northern hemisphere; southern hemisphere

185. Mexico is/has

I. the largest number of legal immigrants to the United States II. the largest number of illegal immigrants to the United States III. a member of NAFTA IV. a member of the OAS V. predominantly Catholic

a. II, V e. II, IV, V b. I, III, V f. I, II, III, IV c. II, III, V g. I, II, III, V d. I, IV, V h. I, II, III, IV, V

186. Which aspects of the diffusion of Western culture threaten non-Western ways of life?

I. loss of traditional values II. subjugation of women III. Western control of media IV. alteration of traditional landscapes V. pollution

a. I and II d. I, III, IV, V b. I and III e. I, II, III, IV, V c. I, II, IV

Unit IV Political Organization of Space 187. Put the following in order from the largest to the smallest: census tract, county, municipality,

nation-state, province, empire Identify each of the following as a centripetal force or a centrifugal force: 188. uneven development 192. national symbols 189. substate nationalism 193. compact state 190. linguistic homogeneity 194. fragmented state 191. a strong tradition of local governance 195. external threats

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Match the following: 196. Nation a. Korea 197. Nation-state b. Japan 198. Stateless nation c. Nunavut 199. Multinational state d. Kurds 200. Multistate nation e. Palestinians 201. Autonomous region f. Indonesia Match the following: 202. defined boundary a. existed before human settlement 203. delimited boundary b. Pyrenees Mountains (Spain/France) 204. demarcated boundary c. enforced by government 205. administered boundary d. drawn on map 206. superimposed boundary e. legal document/treaty 207. relic boundary f. marked on ground (wall, fence, post) 208. antecedent boundary g. ignores existing cultural landscape 209. natural boundary h. no longer exists, impact still felt Match the following geopolitical boundary dispute with the location: 210. corridor rights for landlocked states a. Sudan/South Sudan 211. meandering river with changing international boundary b. Albanians into Kosovo 212. median line through inland lake c. Bosnia 213. upstream abstraction of water d. Kurds 214. minority group overspill from neighbor state e. USA and Mexico border 215. unified homeland for ethnic group spanning the border f. USA and Canada border 216. seasonal movement of pastoral peoples across border g. Basques in Spain 217. internal separatist movement h. Colorado River

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218. Label the following zones according to the Law of the Sea:

a. Internal waters b. Territorial waters (12 miles) c. Contiguous zone (12 miles) d. Exclusive Economic Zone (200 miles) e. Continental shelf f. International waters

Match the following: 219. compact state a. Afghanistan 220. elongated state b. Indonesia 221. prorupted state c. Nicaragua 222. perforated state d. South Africa 223. fragmented state e. Vatican City 224. landlocked state f. Vietnam Match the following (some states have more than one answer): 225. Brazil a. was a hearth 226. China b. was a colony 227. Mesopotamia c. is a sovereign state 228. Taiwan d. has a forward capital Match the following (some states have more than one answer): 229. unitary state a. Canada e. Switzerland 230. federal state b. France f. USA 231. confederal state c. Germany g. Japan 232. devolution d. Mexico Colonial powers had three aims: 233. G__________, g__________, g__________

_________________

_________________

_________________________

_________________________

_________________________

_________________

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Place the following colonial powers under the appropriate headings: Belgium, Britain, France, Germany, Italy, Netherlands, Portugal 234. Africa, 1850 235. Africa, 1900 236. Africa, 1950 Match the following: 237. model that demonstrates the transfer of resources a. core-periphery from less developed to more developed areas 238. fringe of a state b. enclave 239. land beyond a border c. frontier 240. the node of a state d. gerrymandering 241. an area that retains a distinction from a larger area e. redistricting 242. manipulating boundaries for political gain f. heartland 243. an area rather than a line g. hinterland 244. reapportioning Congressional seats across new district h. rimland boundaries after each Census Label each boundary physical or cultural and give an example.

boundary physical or cultural example

245. mountain

246. language

247. religion

248. river

249. geometric

250. the Green Line

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Match the following (more than one answer possible): 251. economies of scale a. UN f. NAFTA 252. trade agreements b. NATO g. Walmart, Costco 253. military alliances c. EU h. TPP 254. transnational environmental challenge d. ASEAN i. WTO e. climate change Match the following examples that lead to the devolution of states (more than one possible): 255. physical geography a. Yugoslavia, the Caucasus 256. ethnic separatism b. ISIS in Syria and Iraq 257. terrorism c. Crimea annexed by Russia 258. economic and social problems d. Nunavut, Native Am reservations 259. irredentism e. Spain, Belgium, Canada 260. fragmentation into autonomous regions f. Catalonia, Basques 261. subnational political-territorial units g. Kosovo within Serbia 262. Balkanization h. Hawai’i and the mainland USA Match the following geopolitical theory with its definition and example: 263. MacKinder’s Heartland Theory a. sea power will keep heartland in check 264. Spykman’s Rimland Theory b. state must grow in territory to survive 265. Ratzel’s Organic (Geopolitical Theory) c. control of resource-rich Eastern Europe d. colonialism and imperialism e. USSR f. NATO g. UK naval power led to world domination h. Ukraine leads Europe in wheat production

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266. The European Union, the Arab League, and the United Nations are all examples of

a. pressure groups b. nation-states c. centrifugal organizations d. supranational organizations e. federations

267. Which of the following has fostered the most significant economic growth by eliminating import

tariffs between member states?

a. European Union (EU) b. Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) c. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) d. Association of Caribbean States (ACS) e. United Nations (UN)

268. The provisions of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea gives coastal countries

navigational and economic sovereignty over which of the following zones?

a. twelve-nautical-mile territorial sea zone and part of the Artic Circle b. export processing zone (EPZ) c. 200-nautical-mile exclusive economic zone d. empowerment zone e. continental shelf

269. An increasing number of states have adopted a federal form of government primarily to

a. grant different ethnicities or nationalities more effective representation. b. encourage the breakup of the superpower alliances. c. govern compact states more effectively. d. deploy scarce resources efficiently. e. meet all of the above needs.

Unit V Agriculture and Rural Land Use Match the following early hearths of domestication of plants and animals: 270. Southwest Asia (Fertile Crescent) a. squash, maize, sweet potato, llama, alpaca 271. Southeast Asia b. barley, wheat, oats, sheep, pig, goat, dog 272. The Americas c. rice, soybean, chicken 273. Sub-Saharan Africa d. yam, sorghum, coffee

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March the following: 274. terracing, Mediterranean agriculture, pastoralism a. Egypt 275. terracing, shifting cultivation b. Greece 276. arid climate, irrigation, little pork production, c. Italy pastoralism 277. wheat, little pork production, pastoralism d. Peru 278. factory farms, large pork production e. Mexico 279. wheat, Mediterranean agriculture f. Turkey 280. maize, irrigation g. USA Choose the one that does not belong: 281. a. increases the amount of land 287. a. Great Plains Native

under cultivation Americans – buffalo b. increases in the agricultural workforce b. Eskimos – snow

c. increases in the use of energy and c. Hawaiians – wigwams technology d. Eastern settlers – log cabins

e. Great Plains settlers – sod 282. a. plantation farming b. hunting and gathering 288. a. shifting agriculture c. subsistence agriculture b. tropical climate c. global warming 283. a. efficient transportation d. depletion of soil b. regionalized cuisine e. commercial agriculture c. corporately controlled farms 289. a. sustainable agriculture 284. a. factory farms b. limited use of chemicals b. genetic engineering c. integration of crops and livestock c. high food prices d. use of pesticide resistant seed d. Green Revolution e. organic farms 285. a. California 290. a. nomads b. Mediterranean agriculture b. pastoralism c. “happy cows” c. hunting and gathering d. sharecropping d. subsistence agriculture e. wheat e. shifting agriculture f. terracing 286. a. soybeans b. coffee 291. a. hunting and gathering c. wheat b. limited to tropical areas d. corn c. gender-based division of labor e. rice d. Stage 1 of demographic transition

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292. What is the milkshed and why is it important? 293. Isolated farmsteads in the United Sates evolved as a result of all of the following EXCEPT

a. political stability. b. colonization by individual pioneer families. c. agricultural private enterprise. d. government land policy. e. physical barriers preventing communal farm practices.

294. Grain raised in the United States is used today primarily as

a. human food. b. a source of fuel. c. livestock feed. d. an export to foreign countries. e. raw material for various industries.

295. A common difference(s) between farms in an LDC (like Pakistan) vs. farms in an MDC (like the

United States) that grow the same crop is

a. the amount of crop produced in a year b. the importance of the crop to the farmer c. the income derived from the crop d. A and B e. A and C

296. List the positives of the 297. List the negatives of the Green Revolution Green Revolution Label each of the following farming practices as intensive or extensive and subsistence or commercial. 298. Market gardening 301. Shifting cultivation 304. Feedlots 299. Nomadic herding 302. Mixed crop/livestock 305. Grain 300. Plantation agriculture 303. Ranching 306. Dairy

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307. Define the purpose of von Thünen’s model. 308. Label the rings of von Thünen’s agricultural land use model.

Old Model New Model Match the following 309. genetically modified organisms a. cultivation of seafood under controlled conditions 310. organic farming b. worker-owned co-ops, fair wages, environmental standards, permit union organizations 311. aquaculture c. degradation of semiarid areas due to overuse 312. desertification d. DNA altered to produce desirable trait 313. value-added specialty crops e. pesticide-free and herbicide-free, sustainable 314. fair trade f. change in product to increase value (strawberries

into jam) 315. local-food movements g. connect food producers/consumers within region

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Unit VI Industrialization and Economic Development Choose the cause of the other two: 316. a. availability of natural resources (water, power, coal, iron ore) b. industrialization c. development of new technologies 317. a. increased food supplies b. mechanical farming equipment c. Industrial Revolution, 1750 Great Britain 318. a. improvements in standards of living and population b. workers seek industrial jobs in cities c. new technologies 319. a. demand for raw materials b. colonialism and imperialism c. increased industrialization 320. Alfred Weber’s model of industrial location emphasized the owner’s desire to I. minimize transportation costs II. minimize labor costs III. maximize agglomeration economies IV. find cheap raw materials V. find cheap land

a. I and II d. I, II, II, IV, V b. I, II, II e. I, II, IV, V c. IV and V f. I, IV, V

Label each of the following as bulk-reducing, bulk-gaining, footloose, or just-in-time: 321. soft-drink bottling 335. automobile assembly 322. brewing 336. autoparts manufacturing 333. nickel smelting 337. Electronics manufacturing 334. baking 338. call centers Label each of the following as primary, secondary, tertiary, quaternary, or quinary economic activity: 339. extract natural resources 342. exchange of goods; provision of services 340. transform raw materials into product 343. production of fresh produce for market 341. collection and processing of information 344. government official

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Indicate the country or countries: 345. NAFTA 346. highest consumption of fossil fuels per capita 347. the Four Asian Tigers 348. maquiladoras 349. Atlantic-Pacific canal 350. BRICS Match the following: 351. high terminal cost, high line cost, high route flexibility a. airplane 352. high terminal cost, low line cost, high route flexibility b. railroad 353. high terminal cost, low line cost, low route flexibility c. ship 354. low terminal cost, high line cost, high route flexibility d. truck Label the five stages of Rostow’s Stages of Economic Growth Model and briefly describe the characteristics:

355. Stage 1

356. Stage 2

357. Stage 3

358. Stage 4

359. Stage 5

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Label the three tiers of Wallerstein’s World System Theory and briefly describe the characteristics:

360.

361.

362.

List the 8 areas of focus of the U.N. Millennium Development Goals and indicate by region the level of progress: Goal High Achievement/Progress Low Achievement/Progress

363. Goal 1

364. Goal 2

365. Goal 3

366. Goal 4

367. Goal 5

368. Goal 6

369. Goal 7

370. Goal 8

Assume a Stage 5 country and indicate if each of the following would be high or low: 371. standard of living 377. literacy 372. CBR 378. jobs in the informal sector 373. CDR 379. dependency ratio 374. NIR 380. IMR 375. life expectancy 381. GDP 376. GEM 382. pollution

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Match the following: 383. banking, finance, insurance a. Brazil 384. deforestation b. chlorofluorocarbons 385. desertification c. Mexico City 386. ecotourism d. national parks 387. ozone depletion e. New York, London, and Tokyo 388. smog f. Sahel 389. comparative advantage g. China Choose the effect of the other two: 390. a. outsourcing b. economic restructuring c. decline in jobs in manufacturing regions 391. a. diffusion of industry to LDCs b. emergence of new industrial division of labor c. increasing number of tertiary sector jobs in MDCs 392. a. maquiladoras, special economic zones, and free trade zones b. deindustrialization of MDC manufacturing regions c. growing interdependence in the world economy 393. Which of the following arguments help explain why seventy-five percent of those employed in

Export Processing Zones, such as maquiladoras, are women?

I. Women have better educational qualifications than men. II. Women are paid less than men. III. Many employers consider women to be more dexterous than men. IV. Many employers consider women more likely to organize unions than men.

a. I and III only d. I, II, and III only b. II and III only e. I, II, III, and IV c. II and IV only

394. United Nations recognition of a state’s “exclusive economic zone” allows the state to

a. establish economic free trade zones within the sovereign territory of other states. b. claim national economic jurisdiction over 200 miles of water extending from its coast. c. limit importation of competitive goods and services from other countries. d. protect domestic production by imposing tariffs on all foreign-made products. e. form limited economic alliances with other countries.

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395. Which of the following has contributed most to the deindustrialization of regions like the English

Midlands and the North American Manufacturing Belt?

a. the increased percentage of women in the labor force b. competition from foreign imports c. environmental legislation d. the formation of free trade associations e. the decline of labor unions

396. In recent decades, all of the following have played a major role in the rapid growth of Sun Belt

cities of the United States EXCEPT

a. immigration from Latin America. b. high levels of per capita federal spending in the South and West. c. cheap land and labor. d. climatic changes leading to colder northern winters. e. the increasing demand for retirement and resort centers.

397. Contemporary manufacturing is characterized by

a. production facilities that are generally located as close as possible to the sites of raw material production.

b. strong unions and localized involvement in all facets of the production process. c. spatial disaggregation of the production process. d. reliance on highly skilled labor at all phases of the production process. e. production facilities located close to railroads.

Unit VII Cities and Urban Land Use Match Borchert’s epochs of urban growth with the description/city/region: 398. 1st Epoch (1790-1830) a. Steamboat & Iron Horse 399. 2nd Epoch (1830-1870) b. Sail & Wagon 400. 3rd Epoch (1870-1920) c. Auto & Air 401. 4th Epoch (1920-1970) d. Steel Rail e. coincided with Industrial Revolution f. river cities along the Mississippi, Great Lakes g. 13 Colonies h. suburbanization

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Label each country with either the rank-size rule or the primate city rule: 402. Canada 405. India 408. Rwanda 403. France 406. South Korea 409. Mexico 404. Germany 407. United States 410. Indonesia Choose the one that does not belong: 411. a. megalopolis 415. a. France b. core area b. Mesopotamia c. Boston to Washington, D.C. c. Mexico d. Los Angeles to San Diego d. North China e. the Indus Valley 412. a. Coral Ridge Mall 416. a. world cities b. edge city b. Chicago c. gentrification c. Mumbai d. suburban sprawl d. Tokyo e. white flight 417. a. 500 B.C. – defensive sites 413. a. agglomeration b. A.D. 1700 – water power b. business park c. A.D. 1800 – railroad junctions c. decentralization d. pre-1950 – navigable waterways d. edge cities e. post-1950 – highways 414. a. blockbusting and racial steering 418. a. urban b. redlining by financial institutions b. Africa c. concentration of public housing c. Asia d. fixed school district boundaries d. South America e. Economic Enterprise Zones 419. Place the following in order form least recent to most recent: “big box” superstore, downtown

business district, shopping mall, Internet Match the following: 420. Latin America city model a. mosque in center, winding streets, walled 421. Sub-Saharan Africa city model b. business and wealth extend from CBD, squatter

settlements along periphery 422. Islamic city model c. colonial CBD, ethnic neighborhoods, mining 423. European city model d. wealthy near CBD, poor on outskirts

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Match the following: 424. export primarily to consumers outside a. basic industries

the settlement 425. sell to people within the settlement b. CBD 426. basic industries minus non-basic industries c. central plaza 427. related to talent d. economic base 428. related to the level of services provided e. human capital 429. center of Latin American cities f. intervening opportunity 430. provided to people by government g. non-basic industries 431. downtown h. public housing 432. the presence of which greatly diminishes i. squatter settlement the attractiveness of site farther away 433. illegal occupation of a residential district j. urban hierarchy 434. Which of the following environmental issues is of most immediate concern to policy-makers in New England?

a. overharvesting of breeding stock by commercial fishers b. oil-spill liability c. desertification by overgrazing of cattle d. intensification of urban heat islands e. generation of electric power by wind

435. Which of the following was NOT a reason for rapid suburbanization in the United States after

the Second World War?

a. mass production of the automobile b. reduction in long-distance commuting c. expansion of home construction d. expansion of the interstate highway system e. availability of low down payment terms and long-term mortgages

436. Today, most of the United States and Canadian population lives in which of the following?

a. farming areas b. rural non-farming areas c. central cities d. metropolitan areas e. small towns

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437. According to rank-size rule, if the largest city in a country has a population of 10 million, the fifth

largest city will have a population of

a. 9 million. b. 2 million. c. 7.5 million. d. 5 million. e. 3.5 million.

438. Public transit is more extensive in Western European cities than in the US primarily because

a. Europeans cannot afford cars. b. European governments subsidize public transit. c. Density is lower. d. The central city contains fewer high-rises. e. Suburbs are built at subway terminals.

439. The attraction of the call center industry to locate in India can best be explained by

a. low wages and wide use of English. b. low wages and geographic situational factors. c. wide use of English and the large number of working students. d. Indian students’ ability to work at night and geographic situational factors. e. the rising middle class.

440. Historically, the growth of North American suburbs was most constrained by

a. high land values. b. zoning ordinances. c. limited transportation. d. housing shortages. e. cultural preferences.

441. In Latin America, data for employment in large urban areas is often incomplete because

a. employment is growing too rapidly. b. most people are unemployed. c. people change jobs frequently. d. records are kept mainly for male workers. e. many people work in the informal sector.

442. Spreading parts production and fabrication among many countries or communities

a. increases proximity to markets. b. increases large corporations bargaining power with local governments and labor. c. decreases the unequal distribution of industry. d. leaves unmet consumer demand. e. Reduces transportation distances.

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Label each of the following models and explain how geographers use the model. 443. 444. 445. 446. 447.