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: 1 : IBPS REASONING Directions (1 – 4): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it: (1) Six boys B 1 , B 2 , B 3 , B 4 ,B 5 , B 6 and six girls, C 1 , C 2 ,C 3 , C 4 , C 5 and C 6 are standing in rows in such a way that each girl faces one boy, not necessarily in the same order. (2) C 1 is to the immediate right of the girl who is facing B 5 the boy at the extreme right. Only B 2 is between B 4 and B 5 . B 6 is to the immediate left of B 1 , and to the immediate right of B 3 . C 3 is facing B 1 and is to the immediate left of C 2 . C 6 is third to the left of C 4 1. Which of the following girls is facing B 4 ? 1)C 5 2)C 4 3)C 3 4)C 6 5) None 2. Which of the following pairs of a boy and a girl is at one of the extreme ends ? 1) B 1 , B 5 2) C 4 , B 5 3)C 5 , B 2 4) Data inadequate 5) None 3. Which of the following boys is to the immediate left of B 4 ? 1) B 1 2) B 2 3) B 1 or B 2 4) Data inadequate 5) None 4. Who is facing C 2 ? l) B l 2) B 6 3) B 4 4) Data inadequate 5) None Directions (5 -8): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: (i) Six books on different subjects viz., Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, Zoology, English and History are placed one above the other but not necessarily in the same order. Each book belongs to different persons viz., A, B, C, D, E and F but not necessarily in the same order. (ii) Only the book of Zoology, which belongs to F; is placed between the books of History and Chemistry. The book of English is just above the book of Chemistry and just below the book of Physics. The book of Mathematics is not kept above the book of Zoology. (iii) The book of B is neither on the top nor at the bottom. The book of Chemistry of D is kept just below the book of A, The book of E is at the bottom. 5. On which subject does B have the book ? 1) Chemistry 2) English 3) History 4) Data inadequate 5) None 6. Which of the following books is kept on the top ? 1) Mathematics 2) English 3) Zoology 4) Physics 5) None 7. Who among the following does have book of History ? 1)B 2)E 3)C 4) Data inadequate 5) None 8. Which of the following books is third from the bottom ? 1) Chemistry 2) Zoology 3) History 4) English 5) None

IBPS RRBs Officer (Scale - I) Model Paper · Officer. 20. Aditi Sahay is a doctorate (Ph.D.) in Personnel Management. She has been working in a company, as personnel officer for the

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IBPS

REASONINGDirections (1 – 4): Study the following information carefully and answer thequestions given below it:(1) Six boys B1, B2, B3, B4,B5, B6 and six girls, C1, C2,C3, C4, C5 and C6 are standingin rows in such a way that each girl faces one boy, not necessarily in the sameorder.(2) C1 is to the immediate right of the girl who is facing B5 the boy at the extremeright. Only B2 is between B4 and B5. B6 is to the immediate left of B1, and to theimmediate right of B3. C3 is facing B1 and is to the immediate left of C2. C6 is thirdto the left of C4

1. Which of the following girls is facing B4 ?1)C5 2)C4 3)C3 4)C6 5) None

2. Which of the following pairs of a boy and a girl is at one of the extreme ends ?1) B1, B5 2) C4, B5 3)C5, B2 4) Data inadequate 5) None

3. Which of the following boys is to the immediate left of B4 ?1) B1 2) B2 3) B1 or B2 4) Data inadequate 5) None

4. Who is facing C2 ?l) Bl 2) B6 3) B4 4) Data inadequate 5) NoneDirections (5 -8): Study the following information carefully and answer thequestions given below:(i) Six books on different subjects viz., Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, Zoology,English and History are placed one above the other but not necessarily in thesame order. Each book belongs to different persons viz., A, B, C, D, E and F but notnecessarily in the same order.(ii) Only the book of Zoology, which belongs to F; is placed between the books ofHistory and Chemistry. The book of English is just above the book of Chemistryand just below the book of Physics. The book of Mathematics is not kept above thebook of Zoology.(iii) The book of B is neither on the top nor at the bottom. The book of Chemistry ofD is kept just below the book of A, The book of E is at the bottom.

5. On which subject does B have the book ?1) Chemistry 2) English 3) History 4) Data inadequate 5) None

6. Which of the following books is kept on the top ?1) Mathematics 2) English 3) Zoology 4) Physics 5) None

7. Who among the following does have book of History ?1)B 2)E 3)C 4) Data inadequate 5) None

8. Which of the following books is third from the bottom ?1) Chemistry 2) Zoology 3) History 4) English 5) None

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IBPS Officer Scale - I
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REGIONAL RURAL BANKS (RRBs)Officer Scale - I MODEL TEST
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Directions (9 – 13): Study the following information carefully and answer thequestions given below:The consonants of English alphabet have been coded by using digits I to 8 and thevowels have been coded by using different symbols.Letters : G B K H Z M F

R V C S D Q XJ N T L W Y P

Digit : 5 4 1 3 2 8 7If any vowel is not in the beginning nor in last, it is coded as ‘6’. If any vowel is atthe beginning or in the last, it is coded as ‘9’. However, if the same vowel is placedat both beginning and in the last, it is coded as $ at both the places. How thefollowing letter-groups will be coded ?

9. PKDEJHI1)712653$ 2)7129539 3)7126539 4)712$53$ 5) None

10. AFDQENI1)9728649 2)$72864$ 3)9728949 4)6728949 5) None

11. OPTIONALl)$7166463 2)$7199493 3)67199493 4)97166463 5) None

12. EGTARLQE1)95165389 2)65195386 3)$519538$ 4) $51 $538$ 5) None

13. ENIANGE1)$4$$45$ 2)9466459 3)$46645$ 4)6499456 5) NoneDirections (14 – 18): Below is given a passage followed by several possibleinferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have toexamine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide uponits degree of truth or falsity.Mark answer 1): if the inference is “definitely true” i.e. it properly follows fromthe statement of facts given.Mark answer 2): if the inference is “probably true” though not “definitely true”in the light of the facts given.Mark answer 3): if the data are inadequate i.e., from the facts given you cannotsay whether the inference is likely to be true or false.Mark answer 4): if the inference is “probably false” though not “definitely false”in the light of the facts given.Mark answer 5): if the inference is “definitely false” i.e., it cannot possibly bedrawn from the facts given or it contradicts the facts. Procurement of wheat is in full swing in the northwestern states of India. ByJune end, public agencies are likely to end up with foodgrain stocks of about 40 to42 million tonnes, the highest ever witnessed in the history of this country. Thisstock should be more than sufficient to ensure that the country’s “food security”is not endangered even if India faces two consecutive droughts. But strangelyenbugh, while the granaries overflow, there is still widespread hunger in thecountry even without a drought. The estimates of poverty are being debated, butbroadly one-third of India seems to remain underfed. And this co-existence ofgrain surpluses with large scale hunger should make any serious policy makerthink and examine the existing policy mix with a view to ensure faster economicgrowth and reduction in poverty.

14. India’s foodgrains stock has been satisfactory over the past few years.15. India, at present, is one of the countries in the world to have sufficient food for its

people.16. The distribution of foodgrains to the masses has remained a problem area for

India.

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17. The policy of India needs to be revamped to reduce the extent of poverty in thecountry.

18. India always maintains foodgrain stocks to withstand two consecutive droughts.Directions (19– 25): Read the following information carefully and answer thegiven questions: Following are the criteria for appointing a Personnel Manager fora company. The candidate must—(A) not be more than 35 years as on 1.6.2000.(B) be a post graduate in personnel management.(C) have work experience as personnel officer/manager of at least five years.(D) have good command over English.In the case of a candidate—(i) who satisfies all the other criteria except at (A) above but has work experienceas personnel manager for at least 10 years, his/her case may be referred toDirector (Personnel) for consideration,(ii) who satisfies all the other criteria except at (C) above but has obtained Ph. D.degree in Personnel Management, his/ her case may be referred to ManagingDirector for consideration. You are given the following cases on 1.6.2000. Depending upon theinformation provided in each case in each of the questions given below and basedon the criteria mentioned above, recommend your decision. You are not to assumeanything. Mark yourNanswer as per the following:Mark answer 1): if the candidate is to be selected.Mark answer 2): if the candidate is not to be selected.Mark answer 3): if the case is to be referred to Director (Personnel).Mark answer 4): if the case is to be referred to Managing Director.Mark answer 5): if complete information is not provided.

19. Kamini Gadgil is a post-graduate in Personnel Management and was born on 15thAugust 1967. She has been working in a company for the last 10 years as PersonnelOfficer.

20. Aditi Sahay is a doctorate (Ph.D.) in Personnel Management. She has been workingin a company, as personnel officer for the last two years. She has good commandover English and was born on 2nd November 1964.

21. Vijay Kulkarni is a graduate in personnel management. He was 32 years old ason 1st December 1999. He has good command over English and has been workingin a company as personnel manager for the last 12 years.

22. Pradeep Sarkar is post-graduate in Personnel Management and he has been workingin a company as a Personnel Manager for the last 15 years. He has good commandover English and his date of birth is 13th April, 1964.

23. Praveen Chopra is post-graduate in Personnel Management and he has beenworking in a company as Personnel Officer for the last 7 years. He has goodcommand over English and his date of birth is 20th March, 1967.

24. Priya Karkhanis was born on 25th January 1968. She has been working in acompany as Personnel Manager for the last three years. She has good commandover English. She has done Ph.D. in Personnel Management.

25. Nirmala Pandey has passed postgraduation examination in Personnel Management.She has good command over English and she has been working in a company asPersonnel Officer for the last five years. She was born on 17th May, 1969.

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Directions (26 – 30): In the following questions the symbols @ , @ , © © and $

are used with the following meaningP @ Q means P is greater than Q.P $ Q means P is equal to Q.

P @ Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.

P © Q means P is either smaller than or equal to Q.

P © Q means P is either greater than or equal to Q.Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true,find which of the two conclusions numbered I and II given below them is/aredefinitely true ?Give answer 1): if only conclusion I is true.Give answer 2): if only conclusion II is true.Give answer 3): if either I or II is true.Give answer 4): if neither I nor II is true.Give answer 5): if both I and II are true.

26. Statements: M@K, P © K, K$TConclusions: I. P$T II. M@T

27. Statements: R@M, M$P, P © TConclusions: I. R@ T II. R$T

28. Statements: T©N, R@N, R © KConclusions: I. N@K II. T©K

29. Statements: M@R, R$A, A©KConclusions: I. K@M II. K © R

30. Statements: P©M, M@K, K$TConclusions: I. P$M II. T@PDirections (31 – 35): In each question below is given a statement followed by twocourses of action I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision tobe taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard the problem, policy,etc. on the basis of the information given in the statement. You have to assumeeverything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the given suggestedcourses of action (s) logically follows for pursuing.Give answer 1): if only I follows.Give answer 2): if only II follows.Give answer 3): if either I or II follows.Give answer 4): if neither I nor II follows.Give answer 5): if both I and II follow.

31. Statement: Severe draught is reported to have set in several parts of the country.Courses of Action:I. Govt, should immediately make arrangement for providing financial assistance tothose affected.II. Food, water and fodder, should immediately be sent to all these areas to save thepeople and cattle.

32. Statement: A larger number of lower ranked politicians are murdered by anti-socialelements in City A.Courses of Action:I. All those in the city with criminal records should immediately be arrested.II. The city police should keep a close vigil on the movements of antisocial elementsso as to prevent future attacks.

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33. Statement: It is reported that though Vitamin E present in fresh fruits and freshvegetables is beneficial for human body, capsuled Vitamin E does not have sameeffect on human body.Courses of Action:I. The sale of capsuled Vitamin E should be banned.II. People should be encouraged to take fresh fruits and fresh vegetables to meetthe body requirement of Vitamin E.

34. Statement: India has been continuously experiencing military threats from its neighbouringcountries.Courses of Action:I. India should engage into an all out wair to stop the nagging threats.II. India should get the neighbours into a serious dialogue to reduce the tensionat its borders.

35. Statement: India has now been recognised by the Western World as a vast resourceof knowledge and are eager to use the same.Courses of Action:I. India should exploit this opportunity to hasten its economic growth.II. India should bargain effectively with the Western World and become a super powerin South Asia.Directions(36-40): Each of the questions below consists of a question and twostatements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data providedin the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statementsand given the answer—1) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, whilethe data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.2) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, whilethe data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.3) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient toanswer the question.4) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer thequestion.5) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answerthe question.

36. On which date of March was Rohan born?I. He was born on a date which was an even and also a prime number.II. He was born exactly four weeks after the first Sunday of the previous month.

37. How is ‘sky’ coded in the language ?I. ‘Fine blue sky’ is coded as ‘ta so la’.II. ‘Beautiful night sky’ is coded as ‘so ja pi’.

38. Who is the heaviest amongst P, Q,R,S and T?I. P is heavier than T but not as heavy as Q.II. R is heavier than only S.

39. Is the time in the clock 5 O’clcok ?I. After five hours the hour hand and the minute hand will be at a straight line.II. After 2 hours the hour hand and the minute hand will be at an angle of 90°.

40. How many sisters does Meeta have ?I. Ashok, the father of Meeta’s brother has only two children.II. Meeta’s brother has only one sister.

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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE41. 34.95 + 240.016 +23.9800 = ?

1) 299:09 2) 298.0946 3) 298.111 4) 298.946 5) None42. 48.95 – 32.006 = ?

1) 16.089 2) 16.944 3) 16.35 4) 16.89 5) None43. 3889 + 12.952 – ? = 3854.002

1) 47.95 2) 47.752 3) 47.095 4) 47.932 5) None44. ? + 72.64 = 74.64

1) 145.28 2) – 2.00 3) –145.28 4) 147.28 5) None45. 6.25 0.0025 = ?

1) 2.5 2) 25 3) 250 4) 2500 5) None46. A businessman purchased a plot of land for Rs. 1,60,00,000. He then spent 280

per cent of the cost of land for constructing 28 flats. At what price should he selleach flat to make 25 per cent profit?1) Rs. 15,00,000/- 2) Rs. 25,00,000/- 3)Rs. 18,00,000/-4) Rs. 20,00,000/- 5) None

47. Four of the following are equal. Find out the 5th one which is not equal toremaining.1) a2 + b2 – 4ab 2) (a + b)2 – 6ab 3) (a – b)2 –2ab4) a(a + b)+b(b-2a)-3ab 5) (a - b) a - b (a - b) - ab

48. Two-fifth of one-third of three-seventh of a number is 15. What is 40 per cent ofthat number1) 136 2) 140 3) 72 4) 84 5) None

49. If 3167 is added to 4093 and the sum is divided by 145, approximately what willbe the outcome ?1) 50 2) 75 3) 60 4) 90 5) 80

50. When a number is divided by 31 the remainder is 29. When the same number isdivided by 16, what will be the remainder?1) Data inadequate 2) 13 3) 15 4) 11 5) NoneDirections (51 -55): Find out the approximate value which is closest to the valuethat should replace the question mark (?) in the following questions. (You areNOT expected to find out the exact value)

51. 1223.9975 ?1) 110 2) 144 3) 34 4) 12.55 5) 125

52. 503 x 201=?1) 101100 2) 1000000 3) 110000 4) 100003 5) 1000103

53. 1205 2.5 = ?1) 3000 2) 4800 3) 300 4) 480 5) 500

54. 22020 0.011 =?1) 20020 2) 2000000 3) 200200 4) 200002 5) 200020

55. 20800 ?

1) 12 2) 120 3) 140 4) 102 5) 1020

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Directions (56-60) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and twostatements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the dataprovided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.Read both the statements and—Give answer 1) : if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer thequestion, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer thequestion.Give answer 2) : if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer thequestion, while the data in statement I atone are not sufficient to answer thequestion.Give answer 3) : if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II aloneare sufficient to answer the question.Give answer 4) : if the data in both the statements I and II together are notsufficient to answer the question.Give answer 5) : if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessaryto answer the question.

56. What was the ratio between the ages of P and Q four years ago ?I. The ratio between the present ages of P and Q is 3:4.II. The ratio between the present ages of Q and R is 4:5.

57. What was the cost price of the suitcase purchased by Samir ?I. Samir got 20 per cent concession on the labelled price.II. Samir sold the suitcase for Rs, 2,000 with 25 per cent profit on the labelledprice.

58. What is the height of a triangle ?I. The area of the triangle is 20 times its base.II. The perimeter of the triangle is equal to the perimeter of a square of 10 cm.side.

59. What percentage rate of simple interest per annum did Ashok pay to Sudhir ?I. Ashok borrowed Rs. 8,000 from Sudhir for four years.II. Ashok returned Rs. 8,800 to Sudhir at the end of two years and settled theloan.

60. What was the speed of a running train ?I. The train crosses a signal post in 6 seconds.II. The train crosses another train running in the opposite direction in 15 seconds.

61. Somesh bought a microwave oven and paid 10% less than its original price. Hesold it with 30% profit on the price he had paid. What percentage of profit didSomesh earn on the original price ?1) 32% 2) 117% 3) 20% 4) 17% 5) None

62. A builder purchased a plot of land for Rs. 80 lacs and constructed a five storeybuilding inclusive of ground floor on it. How much should he charge for each flatto make 25% profit on his investment on land, if there are five flats on eachstorey ?1) Rs. 50,000 2) Rs. 1,00,0003) Rs. 5,00,000 4) Rs. 20,00,000 5) None

63. A trader purchased an old bicycle for Rs. 480, He spent 20% of the cost on itsrepair. If he wants to earn Rs. 144/- as net profit on it, how much percentageshould he add to the purchase plrice of the bicycle ?1) 50% 2) 48% 3) 96% 4) 100% 5) None

64. One-third of Ramani’s savings in National Savings Certificate is equal to. one-half of his savings in Public Provident Fund. If he has Rs. 1,50,000 as total savings,how much has he saved in Public Provident Fund?1) Rs.60,000 2) Rs. 50,000 3) Rs. 90,000 4) Rs.30,000 5) None

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65. A man spends Rs. 1,810/- for buying bedsheets at Rs. 200/- each and pillows atRs. 70/- each. What will be the ratio of bedsheets to pillows when maximumnumber of bedsheets are bought1) 3:8 2) 8:3 3) 9:1 4) 1 :9 5) NoneDirections (66 -70): In each of the following number series, a wrong number isgiven. Find out that number.

66. 5 10 17 27 37 50 651) 10 2) 17 3) 27 4) 37 5) 50

67. 108 54 36 18 9 6 41) 54 2) 36 3) 18 4) 9 5) 6

68. 2 3 5 8 14 23 41 691) 5 2) 8 3) 14 4) 41 5) 69

69. 0 1 9 36 99 225 4411) 9 2) 36 3) 99 4) 225 5) 441

70. 3 7.5 15 37.5 75 167.5 3751) 167.5 2) 75 3) 37.5 4) 15 5) 7.5Directions (71-75): Study the following table carefully and answer the questionsgiven below:

Number of bales of woll processed by 5 woollen mills

Name of the Company Month Polar Shepherd Kiwi Warm

wear Comfy

Jan 900 850 350 1000 850 Feb. 800 700 1050 1100 850

March 1050 800 1000 1100 950 April 800 850 850 1100 850 May 950 900 1050 1150 850 Total 4500 4100 4900 5450 4350

71. ln the case of which mill is the processing of wool in March the highest percentage

of the total processing by that mill during the five month period?1) Polar 2) Shepherd 3) Kiwi 4) Warmwear 5) Comfy

72. The wool processing by Warmwear in April is what percent of its wool processing inJanuary ?1) 91 2) 110 3) 115 4) 10 5) 11

73. Which of the five mills has the highest ratio of wool processing done in April tothat done in February ?1) Polar 2) Shepherd 3) Kiwi 4) Warmwear 5) Comfy

74. In the case of which mill is the wool processing in February and March togetherthe lowest among the five mills processing during the same period ?1) Comfy 2) Warmwear 3) Kiwi 4) Shepherd 5) Polar

75. The total of wool processing done by Kiwi during the given period is approximatelywhat per cent of that done by Shepherd ?1) 80 2) 87 3) 8 4) 108 5) 120.

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Directions (76 -80): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questionsgiven below:

10

25

30

15

7

35

25

20

30

15

20

25

30

25

20

25

30

20

0

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

In la

kh b

ottl

es

2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007

Year

Dew-drop Cool-sip Pep-up

76. In which year was the sale of ‘Pep-up’ the maximum ?1) 2004 2) 2005 3) 2006 4) 2007 5) None

77. In the case of which soft drink was the average annual sale maximum in thegiven period ?1) Pep-up only 2) Cool-sip only 3) Dew-drop only4) Cool-sip and Dew-drop 5) Pep-up and Dew-drop

78. In the case of ‘Cool-sip drink, what was the.approximate percent increase in salein 2006over its sale in 2005 ?1) Less than 20 2) 20-25 3) 25 4) 31 -35 5) 36-40

79. In the year 2004, what was the difference between the number of Pep-up’ and Cool-sip’bottles sold?1) 50,00,000 2) 5,00,000 3) 50,000 4) 5,000 5) 10,00,000

80. What was the approximate per cent drop in sale of Pep-up in 2004 over its sale in2003 ?1) 5 2) 12 3) 14 4) 20 5) 28

GENERAL AWARENESS81. Which of the following cannot be called an anti-inflationary measure?

(1) Raising the Bank Rates (2) Raising the Reserve Ratio Requirements(3) Purchasing securities in the Open Markets(4) Rationing of the Credit (5) None

82. GK Pillai resigned as the MCX-SX chairman recently. Who among the followinghas been appointed the new chairman of the MCX-SX stock exchange?1) Saurabh Sarkar 2) KV Kamath 3) OP Bhatt4) Thomas Mathew T 5) None

83. We often come across the term CSR. What does letter S denote in the word CSR?1) Security 2) Specified 3) Social 4) Substitute 5) Senior

84. Which of the following is NOT a delivery channel for the banking sector in India?1) Call centre 2) Branch 3) Internet 4) Kiosk 5) None

85. In context of business and banking, what is CRAR?(1) Capital to Risk Weighted Asset Ratio(2) Credit to Risk Asset Ratio(3) Credit to Risk Assessment Ratio(4) Capital to Risk Assessment Rate (5) Credit Rate Assessment Ratio

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86. First service of Metro was launched in which Indian city in June 2014 ?1) Kochin 2) Bangalore 3) Mumbai 4) Chennai 5) None

87. Govt shareholding in public sector banks cannot be below(1) 33% (2) 51% (3) 74% (4) 76% (5) 100%

88. As we all know, Govt of India collects tax revenue on various activities in thecountry. Which of the following is a part ofA. Tax on Income B. Tax on ExpenditureC. Tax on Property or Capital AssetD. Tax on Goods and Services(1) Both (A) and (C) only (2) Both (B) and (D) only(3) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) (4) Only (B), (C) and (D) (5) None

89. Which of the following Acts was framed specially to deal more effectively with theproblem of Non-Performing Assets in banking system?(1) Companies Act (2) Banking Regulation Act(3) Foreign Exchange Management Act(4) Industrial Dispute Act (5) SARFAESI Act

90. Very often we read in newspapers/magazines about ‘Sovereign Wealth Funds’.Which of the following is/are the correct description of the same?A. These are the funds or the reserves of a government or central bank of acountry which are invested further to earn profitable returns.B. These are the funds which were accumulated by some people over the yearsbut were not put in active circulation as they retain them as black money forseveral years.C. The funds which are created to be used as relief funds or bailout packages.(1) Both (B) and (C) only (2) Only (B) (3) Only (C)(4) Only (A) (5) None

91. Credit Rating(1) is used to rate the borrowers while giving advances.(2) is used to work out performance of the employees.(3) Ts used to calculate the number of excellent audit-rated branches.(4) is not used in any bank.(5) is necessary before giving promotion to employees:

92. Invisible Export means export of(1) Perishable goods (2) Prohibited goods(3) Unrecorded goods (4) Goods through smuggling (5) Services

93. In Banking terminology, NPA means(1) No-Promise Account (2) Non-Personal Account(3) Non-Performine Asset (4) Net Performing Asspt (5) None

94. Govt of India has launched special Green Revolution project for which of thefollowing states/group of states?(1) North-East states (2) Bihar and Jharkhand(3) West Bengal (4) Tamil Nadu and Kerala (5) None

95. World day against child labour is observed on ____1) 14 June 2) 15 June 3) 12 June 4) 11 June 5) None

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96. Which of the following is known as Plastic Money?A. Demand Draft B. Credit Card C. Debit Card(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Only (C)(4) Both (B) and (C) (5) All (A), (B) and (C)

97. In which of the following countries 16 big banks has been sued, recently, accusingthem of fraud and conspiring to keep a key global interest rate low to enrichthemselves?1) UK 2) US 3) Switzerland 4) China 5) None

98. The ICC T20 World Cup 2014 is scheduled to be organised in which of the followingcountries from 16 Mar to 6 Apr?1) Sri Lanka 2) South Africa3) Bangladesh 4) England 5) Australia

99. The Election Commission announced free telecast/broadcast time on Doordarshanand AIR for campaigning for upcoming parliamentary elections. Which of thefollowing is NOT correct in this respect?1) The facility will be available to six national and 47 state parties.2) The facility is not available to registered unrecognised parties and Independents.3) The criticism of other countries, attack on religions or communities, defamatoryor obscene matter etc will not be allowed.4) The concept of free time for parties on stateowned TV and radio was introducedby EC in Feb, 1998. 5) None

100. The committee constituted by the govt to assess implementation of the SacharCommittee recommendations and the Prime Minister’s 15-point programme forminorities submitted its report recently. The Committee was chaired by:1) Amitabh Kundu 2) VR Krishna Iyer3) Binayak Sen 4) Sandeep Pandey 5) None

101. Expand the term ICAAP.1) Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Process2) International Capital Adequacy Assessment Process3) Internal Capital Advance Assessment Process4) Internal Capital Adherence Assessment Process5) International Capital Adherence Assessment Process

102. Which of the following is a scheme to augment the urban infrastructure in India?1) JNNURM 2) Bharat Nirman3) RAY 4) TRYSEM 5) None

103. The Supreme Court refused to lift the restraint on the sale of its Indian assets bywhich of the following mobile handset makers as part of its global deal with thesoftware giant Microsoft?1) Motorola 2) Nokia 3) Huawei 4) HTC 5) None

104. Which of the following is NOT the name of the currency of a country?1) Rand 2) Pound 3) Ngultrum 4) Ecuador 5) Dollar

105. Which of the following functions are not being performed by the Reserve Bank of India?1) Regulation of banks in India2) Regulation of foreign direct investment in India3) Foreign currency management in India4) Control and supervision of money supply 5) None

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106. Which of the following sector(s) make(s) maximum contribution to the nationalincome of India?(1) Services (2) Agriculture (3) Industry(4) Both Agriculture and Industry (5) None

107. What is the condition for a bank to be called a ‘Scheduled Bank’?1) Its business has crossed Rs 1000-cr mark.2) Its branch network is over 100.3) It is included in the second schedule of the RBI Act.4) It complies with all the above conditions. 5) None

108. Which of the following is NOT a banking related term?1) MSME 2) Overdraft 3) Syndication 4) Turnover 5) Equinox

109. Ten-rupee notes contain the signature of(1) Finance Secretary, GOI(2) Chairman, State Bank of India(3) Governor, Reserve Bank of India(4) Finance Minister, GOI (5) Prime Minister

110. We often read about CRISIL and ICRA in financial newspapers. These are:1) brokerage firms 2) credit rating agencies3) mutual funds 4) telecommunication service providers 5) None

111. Many times we read in financial newspapers about the performance of the “coresector” in Economy. Which of the following is NOT included in the core sector?1) Coal 2) Auto sector 3) Steel4) Cement 5) Oil and Petroleum industry

112. Which of the following is a programme launched for school children which hasbeen very successful?1) Antyodaya Yojana 2) Food for work3) Mid Day Meal 4) ASHA 5) None .

113. The names of which of the following rates/ratios cannot be seen in financialnewspapers?(1) Bank Rate (2) Repo Rate (3) Statutory Liquidity Ratio(4) Cash Reserve Ratio (5) Pulse Rate

114. Consider the following:(A) Bank Rate Policy(B) Open Market Operations(C) Devaluation of RupeeWhich of the above are called fiscal measures?(1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) and (B) (3) Both (A) and (C)(4) Only (C) (5) None

115. “World Refugee Day” is observed on ____1) 24 June 2) 22 June 3) 20 June 4) 21 June 5) None

116. Which of the following names is not associated with the operations of the defenceforces in India?1) Sukhoi-30 2) MIG-29 3) Tejas 4) SARAS 5) None

117. What is the currency of Australia ?1) Dollar 2) Pound 3) Peso 4) Ringgit 5) None

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118. Which of the following policies is known as Annual Policy Statement?(1) Annual budget of Central Govt(2) Credit and monetary policy of RBI (3) Foreign trade policy of DGFT(4) Regulations issued by SEBI (5) None

119. The recently released book titled, “India at Risk: Mistakes, Misconceptions andMisadventures of security policy” has been authored by who among the following?1) AK Antony 2) Jaswant Singh 3) Pranab Mukherjee4) George Fernandes 5) None

120. Who is the author of the book “The Immortals of Meluha”?1) Amish Tripathi 2) Chetan Bagat3) Arvinda Adiga 4) Vikram Seth 5) None

ENGLISH LANGUAGEDirections (121-130) : Read the following passage to answer the. given questions.Some words have been printed in bold to help you to locate-them while answeringsome of the questions.

We tend to be harsh on our bureaucracy, but nowhere do citizens enjoydealing with their government. They do it because they have to. But thatdoesn’tmean that the experience has to be dismal. Now there is a new wind blowingthrough government departments around the world,’ which could take some ofthis pain away. In the next five years it may well transform not only the waypublic services are delivered but also the fundamental relationship betweengovernment and citizens. Not surprisingly, it is the Internet that is behind it.After e-commerce and e-business, the next revolution may be e-governance.

Examples abound. The municipality of Phoenix, Arizona, allows its citizensto renew their car registrations, pay traffic fines, replace lost identity cards.etc.online without having to stand in endless queues ‘ in a grubby municipal office.The municipality is happy because it saves $5 a transction-’ it costs only $1.60 toprocess an online transaction versus $6.60 to do it acrosss the counter. In Chile,people routinely submit their income tax returns over the Internet, which hasincreased transparency, drastically reduced the time taken and the number oferrors and litigation with the tax department. Both tax payers and the revenuedepartment are happier.

The furthest ahead, not .surprisingly, is the small, rich and entrepreriurialcivil service of Singapore, which allows citizens to do more functions online thanany other. As in many private companies, the purchasing and buying of Singapore’sgovernment departments is now on the Web, and cost benefits come throughmore competitive bidding, easy access to global suppliers and time saved by onlineprocessing of orders. They can post their catalogues on their site, bid for contractssubmit in voices and check their payment, status over the Net.

The most useful idea for. Indian municipalities is Gov Works a private sector-run site that collects local taxes, fines, and utility bills for 3,600 municipalitiesacross the United States. It is a citizen’s site, which also provides information ongovernment jobs, tenders, etc. The most ambitious is the British government,which has targeted to convert 100 per cent of its transactions with its citizens tothe Internet by 2005.

Cynics in India will say, ‘Oh, e-govemment will never work in India. We are ;so poor and we don’t have computers.’ But they are wrong! There are manyexperiments afoot in India as well. Citizens in Andhra Pradesh can download

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government forms and submit applications on the Net without having to bribeclerks. In many districts, land records are online and this has created transparency.Similarly, in Dhar district to Madhya Pradesh, villagers have begun to fileapplications for land j transferes and follow their progress on the Net. In seventyvillage in the Kolhapur and Sangli districts in Maharashtra, Internent boothshave come up where farmers can daily check the market rates of agriculturalcommodities in Marathi, along with data on agricultural schemes, information oncrop technology, when to spray and plant their crops and bus and railway timetables.They also find vocational guidance on jobs; applications for ration cards, kerosene/gas burners and land record extracts with details of land ownership.

Sam Pitroda’s World Tel, Reliance Industries and the Tamil Nadu governmentare jointly laying 3,000 km of optic fibre cables to create a Tamil Network whichwill offer ration cards, school college and hospital admission forms, land records,-and pension records. If suceessful, World Tel will expand the network to Gujarat,Karnataka and West Bengal. In Kerala, all the villages are getting linked onlineto the district headquarters, allowing citizens to compare the development prioritiesof their village with other villagers in the state.

Many are still skeptical of the real impact because so few Indians havecomputers. The answer lies in interactive, cable. T.V. and in Internet kiosks.Although India has only five million computers and thirty-eight million telephones,it has thirty-four million homes with cable TV and these are growing eight percent a year. By 2005 most cable homes will have access to the. Interenet frommany of the 700,000 local STD/PCO booths. Internet usage may be low today, butit is bound to grow rapidly in the future, and e-governance in India may not be adream.

121. According to the passage, which country has the most ambitious plan fore-governance ?1) USA 2) Chile 3) Singapore 4) India 5) UK

122. GovWorks is working in which of the following countries ?1) India 2) UK 3) Chile 4) Singapore 5) None

123. Choose the word that is opposite in meaning of the word “dismal” as used in thepassage.1) grim 2) approve 3) pleasing 4) better 5) enrich

124. How can India overcome low penetration of computers for e-govemance?1) By manufacturing more computers2) Through cable TV and Internet Kioshs3) ByopeningmpreSTD/PCObooths4) By making the internet free 5) By putting more services on internet

125. Which of the following has not been one of the effects of submitting income taxreturn over internet in Chile ?1) Reduction of legal cases 2) Reduction in errors3) Increase in transparency 4) Increase in number of returns5) Reduction in time’taken

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126. Choose the word that is same in meaning as the word “abound” as used in thepassage.1) around 2) proliferate 3) flourish 4) plentiful 5) few

127. Choose the word that is same in meaning as the word “post” as used in thepassage.1) deliver 2) send 3) put up 4) dropout 5) later

128. According to the passage which country is at present the- most advanced in e-governance ?1) Singapore 2) Chile 3) India 4) USA 5) UK

129. In which direction is the new wind blowing ?1) More and more interaction of citizens with government through internet2) Outsourcing the work of infrastructure creation for internent3) Increasing the penetration of computers in rural areas4) Integrating e-commerce, e-business and e-governance5) Introducing e-governance programmes in schools and colleges

130. According to the passage, what is the annual growth rate of computer in India ?1) 8% 2) 5% 3) 0-5% 4) Not mentioned 5) NoneDirections (131-140): In each of the following questions four words are given ofwhich two wrods are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the twowords which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate thenumber of the correct letter combination.

131. (A) Proximate (B) Elevated (C) Nimble (D)Agile1) A-B 2) B-C 3) A-C 4) B-D 5) C-D

132. (A) Notion (B) Symbol (C) Concept (D) Message1) A-B 2) B-C 3) A-C 4) C-D 5) B-D

133. (A) Umpid (B) Luscious (C) Acrid (D) Benign1) A-B 2) B-C 3) C-D 4) B-D 5) A-C

134. (A) Asinine (B) Furious (C) Fortunate (D) Ridiculous1) A-D 2) A-B 3) A-C 4) B-C 5) B-D

135. (A) Companion (B) Amateur (C) Adept (D) Adherent1) B-C 2) B-D 3) C-D 4) A-B 5) A-D

136. (A) Squander (B) Disunite (C) Flicker (D) Preserve1) A-C 2) -B-C 3) A-D 4) C-D 5) B-D

137. (A) Mitigate (B) Acquiesce (C) Relinquish (D) Duplicate1) A-C 2) B-D 3) A-B 4) C-D 5) B-C

138. (A) Fable (B) Legend (C) Portrayal (D) Contract1) A-C 2) B-C 3) B-D 4) A-B 5) C-D

139. (A) Occurrence(B) Pretence (C) Profusion (D) Extravagance1) B-D 2) C-D 3) B-C 4) A-G 5) A-B

140. (A) Excellent (B) Passionate (C) Apathetic (D) Discrepant1) A-B 2) A-C 3) A-D 4) B-C 5) C-D

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Directions (141-145): Pick out the most effective pair of words from the given pairof words to make, the sentence/s meaningfully complete.

141. Of all the problems that have............... human beings since the’ beginning ofrecorded history, perhaps the most significiant has been the............of their ownnature.1) encountered.............importance 2) perplexed......:,.....value3) questioned.............scope4) confronted.............riddle 5) directed.............issue

142. Self-concept and self-esteem are crucial to personal and professional effectivenessbecause if they are not fully ..............I may act in mystifying andsometimes.............ways.1) positive.............destructive 2) developed.............proactive3) nurtured.............reactive 4) nourished.............listless5) devised.............vulnerable

143. A key factor in.............an effective and fulfilling life in our complex society is theability to.............control over our actions. .1) achieving.............exert 2) obtaining.............energize3) projecting.............restrain 4) providing.............admonish5) expressing.............withhold

144. A theory is............: evaluated to the degree that its concepts...... .....to themselvesa verification by independent investigators.1) critically............pertain 2) positively.............lend3) obviously.............yield 4) alarmingly.............introduce5) delightfully.............submit

145. It is often the.............that everyone agrees about objectives; thedisagreement............. about exactly how they are to be achieved.1) view.............follows 2) situation.............talks3) matter’.............projects 4) happening.............matters5) case.....arisesDirections (146-150): Which of the phrases 1) , 2) , 3) , and,4) given below shouldreplace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence grammatically correct.If the sentence is correct as it is no correction is required, mark 5) .as theanswer.

146. He went to the blast site to save his colleague who was stranding there.1) had been stranded 2) had to strand3) ’ was being stranding 4) was been stranding 5) No correction required

147. When I receive the letter, the date for the interview was already over.1) I received the letter 2) the letter I had received3) I had to receive letter 4) I was receiving 5) No correction required

148. Everyone is requested to attend the dinner party hosted by the president.1) is requesting to; 2) is requested to3) will request to 4) is to requested to 5) No correction required

149. The chairman approved the recommendations to the committee with partialmodifications1) by the committee for 2) of the committee with3) to the committee 4) at the committee in 5) No correction required

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150. Had the opportunity been given to him he will have proved successful1) will have to prove 2) will be proving3) would have proved 4) would have proven 5) No correction requiredDirections (151 -160): In the following passage there are blanks each of whichhas been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and againsteach five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out,the appropriate word in each case,

In an upper class drawing room in Mumbai, a dozen or’ so (151) the city’sintelligentsia is (152) on the dregs of what was a live-wire party an hour ago.Poets, editors, writers, filmmakers, all card-carrying members of the rich andpowerful, not at this late hour, on their ninth drink, are (153) in what Indians arebest known to do: media-bashing, armchair criticism and name-calling.

Inevitably the talk turns toTehelka, and its managing director and editorrin-chief, Tarun Tejpal, and the party’ quickly degenerates into an orgy of guilt andshame and that peculiar habit of the Indian intelligentsia: passing the buck, withevery one present attacking his neighbour for not supporting Tejpal more. It is atrait Tejpal is (154) with and has been telling me about in the weeks preceding thisinterview.

“Often at parties-when someone (155) me ‘great job, cany on what you aredoing’, and showers with me staggering praise, staggering love, staggering (156)just smile and let it pass as I don’t want to score a brownie point and say, ‘andwhat about you boss, what will you do ?”

This lightly-tossed sentence with the slightest hint of a dark’chuckle is theonly time I have seen Tejpal allow for bitterness, though I have been (157) him forweeks for sings of it. Because, tor a man who has been the victim of the most(158) government witch-hunts in recent years, Tejpal is astonishingly devoid of(159) You expect him to rage, to spew fire, to heap scorn and anger at his enemies,and instead, what you encounter, is a man in whose eyes you see only compassionand a weary understanding of the nature of the beast.

The abiding irony in all this is that unlike his armchair supporters in themiddle class, who rave and rant on his behalf,, but do nothing else, Tejpal displaysforbearance. ‘The fact that I am essentially a literary animal and that my entiresensibility has been shaped by literature has helped. I1 m not a black-and-whiteperson. I’m a (160) who understands the greys,” he says to me at a coffee shop,over tea.

151. 1) of 2) In 3) into 4) off 5) from152. 1) feed 2) feeds 3) fed 4) feeding 5) feeded153. 1) mixing 2) lending 3) scaring . 4) indulging 5) pushing154. 1) ordinary 2) familiar 3) strange 4) free 5) rutine155. 1) bold 2) said 3) ask 4) say 5) tells156. 1) delight 2) contempt 3) worship 4) affection 5) admiration157. 1) lure 2) teasing 3) baiting 4) harassing 5) matching158. 1) gentle 2) gpbd 3) virtuous 4) vicious 5) wicked159. 1) forbearance2) anger 3) wrath 4) for giveness 5) gale160. 1) boy 2) guy 3) youth 4) humanbeing 5) fellow

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COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE161. The ALU is a device that performs

1) arithemetic operations 2) logicaI oeprations3) numerical operation 4) both A and B 5) None

162. CPU is a unit that1) has ALU 2) has control unit3) controls the entire system functioning 4) all the above 5) None

163. A micro-computer is a system designed using a_______ as its _______1) CPU. brain 2) microprocessor. CPU3) ALU. CPU 4) all of these 5) None

164. A microprocessor based system consists1) microprocessor and memory2) microprocessor and input-output devices3) microprocessor I/O devices and interfacing devices4) all of the above 5) None

165. Generally I/O devices are_______ devices1) low speed 2) high speed3) medium speed 4) all of these 5) None

166. _______ memory is used to store variable quantitites fo the data1) RAM 2) ROM 3) PROM 4) RPl’OM 5) None

167. _______ are the CPUs of personal computers1) ICs 2) Transistors3) source program 4) both (1) and (2) 5) None

168. An operating system is also called a1) supervisor 2) disk storage3) source program 4) all of these 5) None

169. CYBER 205 is an example of1) mini computer 2) micro computer3) super computer 4) all of these 5) None

170. A_______ purpose computer can store different programs1) general 2) digital 3) hybrid 4) all of these 5) None

171. A_______ computer is a device that operates by directly computing numbers1) general 2) hybrid 3) digital 4) all of these 5) None

172. Second generation computers used_______ instead of vacuum tugbes1) ICs 2) Transistors 3) Superchips 4) both (1) and (2) 5) None

173. Home computers are personal computers are called1) mini computers 2) micro computers 3) super computers 4) all of these 5) None

174. Third generation computers were used during the period_______ and_______1) 1955,1965 2) 1975.1985 3) 1965,1975 4) both (1) and (2) 5) None

175. Which is generally used as the secondary storage device in a home completer ?1) cassette recorder 2) drum3) hard disk 4) both (1) and (2) 5) None

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176. The basic configuration of a personal computer consists of1) transistors, system and ICs2) system unit, keyboard and VDU3) system unit, CPU and key board4) both (1) and (2) 5) None

177. PC stands for1) extended technology 2) advanced technology3) personal computer 4) both (1) and (2) 5) None

178. XT stands for1) extended technology 2) advanced technology3) personal computer 4) all of these 5) None

179 _______ are also known as mini computers1) super computers 2) mini computers3) micro computers 4) main frame computers 5) None

180. Time-sharing system is a variation of_______ system1) single programming 2) multi programming3) batch processing 4) all of these 5) None

181. PDP II. designed by DEC is an example of a1) mini-computer 2) micro-computer3) super-computer 4) all of these 5) None

182. Batch-processing, multi programming and time-sharing are the different modes ofoepration in a1) single-user system 2) single-user system3) multi-programming 4) all of these 5) None

183. The concept of stored - program was introduced in1) 1st generation 2) 2nd generation3) 3rd generation 4) 4th generation 5) None

184. The processor is not used’ throught in1) Time-sharing 2) Batch-processing3) Multi programming 4) all of these 5) None

185. Fourth generation computers appeared in1) 1965 2) 1970 3) 1975 4) 1978 5) None

186. Programs are executed on the basis of a priority number is1) time-sharing system 2) multi-programming system3) batch-processing system 4) all of these 5) None

187. Computing capability of a super computer at present is1) 40,000 PCs 2) 60,000 PCs 3) 6 million PCs 4) 400 PCs 5) None

188. In a personal computer the speed of CPU is1) 10 kilo instructions per second2) 100 kilo instructions per second3) 10.000 kilo instructions per second 4) both (1) and (2) 5) None

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189. Catridge disk is a1) hard disk 2) floppy 3) cluster 4) both (1) and (2) 5) None

190. To maintain a record of the files we use1) file allocation table 2) packaged programs3) record allocation table 4) all of these 5) None

191. Bootstrap loader is used to load1) the operating system 2) a compiler3) special programs other than A and B 4) all of these 5) None

192. A relational data base1) stores all technical information2) is a large database for which we required systems with large memory3) does not repeat the same information4) repeat the same information 5) None

193. Data base are used in1) Colleges 2) Hospitals 3) Offices 4) All the above5) None

194. A database is a collection of1) logically related data elements 2) all accessible files3) suitably organised records 4) all of these 5) None

195. A program with certain special features is a1) data base 2) word processor3) office automation 4) both (1) and (2) 5) None

196. If a word is misspelt while creating a database1) The computer indicates this word long with all the other misspelt words at theend of the file2) The computer cautions the user3) The computer cannot make any correction4) all of these 5) None

197. A spread sheet is dixaded into several1) rows 2) columns 3) rows and columns

4) all of these 5) None198. A piece of information that is filled in each field of a data base is a

1) data item 2) system data 3) wild cards4) both (1) and (2) 5) None

199. A word processor can be used1) to write and edit any text2) to print a text only if it is edited3) to write a text only if it is edited4) both (1) and (2) 5) None

200. In a card reader the name of the space at the top of the card is1) reader codes 2) graphic row 3) deck 4) all of these 5) None

P

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1.3 2.2 3.1 4.2 5.3 6.4 7.1 8.2 9.3 10.1 11.4 12.5 13.3 14.3 15.116.1 17.1 18.4 19.5 20.2 21.1 22.3 23.1 24.4 25.1 26.2 27.4 28.4 29.2 30.431.2 32.2 33.2 34.2 35.5 36.1 37.5 38.5 39.4 40.3 41.4 42.2 43.1 44.5 45.446.5 47.5 48.5 49.1 50.1 51.3 52.1 53.4 54.2 55.1 56.4 57.5 58.1 59.5 60.461.4 62.5 63.1 64.1 65.2 66.3 67.4 68.5 69.3 70.1 71.1 72.2 73.2 74.4 75.576.5 77.1 78.3 79.5 80.3 81.3 82.4 83.3 84.5 85.1 86.3 87.2 88.3 89.5 90.491.1 92.5 93.3 94.21 95.3 96.4 97.2 98.3 99.5 100.1 101.1 102.1 103.2 104.4 105.2106.1 107.3 108.5 109.3 110.2 111.2 112.3 113.5 114.4 115.3 116.5 117.1 118.2 119.2 120.1121.3 122.5 123.3 124.5 125.4 126.4 127.2 128.1 129.1 130.4 131.5 132.5 133.2 134.1 135.5136.3 137.5 138.4 139.2 140.4 141.4 142.3 143.1 144.1 145.5 146.1 147.1 148.5 149.2 150.3151.1 152.4 153.4 154.2 155.5 156.5 157.3 158.4 159.2 160.2 161.4 162.4 163.2 164.4 165.1166.4 167.3 168.1 169.3 170.1 171.3 172.2 173.2 174.3 175.1 176.2 177.3 178.1 179.4 180.2181.1 182.2 183.1 184.2 185.3 186.2 187.1 188.2 189.2 190.1 191.3 192.3 193.4 194.3 195.2196.3 197.3 198.1 199.1 200.2

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