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NAME (PRINT): Last/Surname First IGiven Name

STUDENT#: __________ SIGNATURE: _______

UNIVERSITY OF TORONTO MISSISSAUGA APRIL 2012 FINAL EXAMINAJION

PSY270H5S Introduction to Cognitive Psychology

Christine Burton Duration· 3 hours

Aids: None

The University of Toronto Mississauga and you, as a student, share a commitment to academic integrity. You are reminded that you may be charged with an academic offence for possessing any unauthorized aids during the writing of an exam, including but not limited to any electronic devices with storage, such as cell phones, pagers, personal digital assistants (PDAs), iPods, and MP3 players. Unauthorized calculators and notes are also not permitted. Do not have any of these items in your possession in the area ofyour desk. Please turn the electronics off and put all unauthorized aids with your belongings at the front of the room before the examination begins. If any of these items are kept with you during the writing ofyour exam, you may be charged with an academic offence. A typical penalty may cause you to fail the course.

Please note, you CANNOT petition to re-write an examination once the exam has begun.

This exam contains two sections. SECTION 1 consists of 48 multiple choice questions worth 1

point each. Please fill in your answers on the scantron sheet provided. SECTION 2 consists of

10 short answer questions, worth 42 points. Please answer SECTION 2 in pen directly on the test paper. Make sure you write your NAME on the top of the exam.

Good luck!

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SECfION 1

Please choose the most correct answer from among the choices. Please answer on the scantron sheet provided. You may answer in pencil or pen but DO NOT make any additional marks on your scantron

sheet. (48 marks).

1. After a bicycle accident, Amanda finds it difficult to keep her balance along rough terrain. She also finds that she often "misses" objects she tries to reach for - either she reaches too far, or not far enough. Where does Amanda likely have damage?

a. Medulla b. Cerebellum c. Motor cortex d. Parietal lobe

2. The ability to make causal inferences is a benefit ofwhich of the following research methods? a. Laboratory experiments b. Case studies c. Naturalistic observations d. Self-report studies

3. Compared to other brain-imaging techniques, ERP displays a. worse temporal resolution b. better temporal resolution c. better spatial resolution d. similar spatial resolution

4. Which of the following provides support for the theory that facial recognition involves holistic processing?

a. People with prosopagnosia can recognize people with distinctive features b. Participants can recognize parts of faces as easily as parts of houses c. Eye movement data reveals people inspect faces and scenes in a similar way d. Inverted features on inverted faces look relatively normal

5. When recording from a single neuron, stimulus intensity is represented in a single neuron by the a. size of the action potentials. b. size of the synapse. c. firing rate ofthe neurotransmitters. d. firing rate of the action potentials.

6. Which ofthe following is consistent with the idea oflocalization offunction? a. Specific areas of the brain serve different functions. b. Neurons in different areas of the brain respond best to different stimuli. c. Brain areas are specialized for specific functions. d. All of these

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7. Generally, if we can see an obj ect's geons, we are able to identify the object. This is known as the a. principle of size constancy. b. principles of componential recovery. c. perceptual organization. d. feedback signal.

8. Evidence for the role of top-down processing in perception is shown by which of the following examples?

a. When someone can easily select a target that has a feature distinct from distracters b. When someone cannot read an illegible word in a written sentence c. When someone easily identifies an object even though that object is unexpected in that

context (e.g., identifying a telephone inside a refrigerator) d. When someone accurately identifies a word in a song on a radio broadcast despite static

interfering with reception

9. Things that form patterns that are meaningful are likely to be grouped together according to the law of

a simplicity. b. similarity . c. pragnanz. d. familiarity .

10. When Sam listens to his girlfriend Susan in the restaurant and ignores other people's conversations, he is engaged in the process of__ attention.

a. low load b. divided c. cocktail party d. selective

11. A high threshold in Treisman's model of attention implies that a. weak signals can cause activation. b. it takes a strong signal to cause activation. c. all signals cause activation. d. no signals cause activation.

12. Automatic processing occurs when a. cognitive resources are high. b. response times are long. c. tasks are well-practiced. d. attention is focused.

13. The use of an eye tracker can help reveal the shifting ofone's ____ attention.

a. overt b. covert c. divided d. dichotic

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14. Research on the use of cell phones while driving indicates that a. the negative effect can be decreased by using "hands-free" units. b. the problem with cell phones is that attention is distracted from the task of driving by the

need to hold the phone and drive with one hand. c. the main effect ofcell phone use on driving safety can be attributed to the fact that

attention is used up by the cognitive task of talking on the phone.

d. both a and b are correct

15. How long does information remain in sensory memory? a. seconds or a fraction of a second b. 15-30 seconds c. 1-3 minutes d. as long as it is rehearsed

16. If a person has a digit span of two, this indicates that he has __ memory. a. poor sensory b. poor short-term c. normal sensory d. normal short-term

17. What determines the capacity of visual short-term memory? a. Acoustic similarity b. Number of items c. Presentation duration d. Semantic relatedness

18. You volunteer to participate in a memory experiment. The experimenter shows you a list of words, then takes the list away and asks you to count backwards by 7's for 10 seconds before trying to remember the words. What type of memory is the experimenter trying to test?

a. Long-term memory b. Short-term memory c. Working memory d. Sensory memory

19. For the second task, the experimenter from above shows you one word and then gives you a simple arithmetic question to answer. You are then shown another word and another arithmetic question. This continues until you have seen 5 words, which you are asked to remember. What type of memory is the experimenter trying to test?

e. Long-term memory f. Short-term memory g. Working memory h. Sensory memory

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20. In which of the following ways does working memory differ from short-term memory? a. short-term memory consists of a number of components b. short-term memory frequently stores information as an auditory code c. working memory is concerned with the manipulation of information d. working memory has unlimited capacity

21. The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon can be viewed as evidence for which of the following? a. Retrieval failures b. Interference c. Decay d. Semantic memory

22. Not all of the members ofeveryday categories have the same features. Most fish have gills, fins, and scales. Sharks lack the feature of scales, yet they are still categorized as fish. This poses a problem for the approach to categorization.

a. prototype b. exemplar c. definitional d. family resemblance

23. Which ofthe following reaction time data sets illustrate the typicality effect for the bird category,

given the following three trials?

(NOTE: Read data sets as RTs for Trial I: Trial 2: Trial 3)

Trial I: An owl is a bird. Trial 2: A penguin is a bird. Trial 3: A sparrow is a bird.

a. 583: 518: 653 rnsec b. 518: 583: 653 rnsec c. 583: 653: 518 rnsec d. 653: 583: 518 msec

24. In the semantic network model, a specific category is represented at a

a. link. b. input unit.

c. node. d. output unit.

25. The "imagery debate" is concerned with whether imagery a. actually exists. b. can be used to solve spatial problems.

c. is similar for all people. d. are the primary way we use to represent knowledge.

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26. One of Sarah's friends asks her to describe her new house by asking her how many windows are on the front of it. After a minute, Sarah answers 12. Which of the following best describes why

Sarah was able to do this task? a. Perceptual equivalence b. Spatial equivalence c. Structure equivalence d. Implicit encoding

27. Mental-scanning experiments found a. a positive linear relationship between scanning time and distance on the image. b. a negative linear relationship between scanning time and distance on the image. c. a constant scanning time for all locations on an image. d. that imagery does not represent spatial relations in the same way perceptual information

does.

28. Which property below is NOT one of the characteristics that makes human language unique? a. Hierarchical structure b. CommW1ication c. Governed by rules d. all of these make human language W1ique

29. You are conducting a study on how fluency influences the phonemic restoration effect. You study two groups of non-native English speakers, one with a year of English classes and the other with 10 years. All ofyour stimuli are in English. Who would you expect to show the greatest phonemic restoration effect?

a. The group with one year ofEnglish instruction b. The group with 10 years ofEnglish instruction c. The two groups would show equal phonemic restoration effects d. Neither group would show an effect

30. In the lexical decision task, participants are asked to a. separate a sentence into individual words. b. decide which meaning of an ambiguous sentence is correct in a specific situation. c. identify words that are contained in sentences. d. decide whether a string of letters is a word or a non-word.

31. What is syntax? a. the rules for combining words into sentences. b. the meanings of words. c. the way people pronounce words in conversational speech. d. the mental grouping of words in a sentence into phrases.

32. What does "productivity" with respect to language refer to? a. Meaningful speech W1its can be broken down into smaller units b. A phoneme can have more than one allophone but still sound like the same speech sound c. An infinite number of utterances can be made from a limited number of speech signals d. One word can have more than one meaning

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33. Ill-defined problems are so named because it is difficult to specifY __ for the problems. a. analogies b. initial states c. a single correct answer d. schemas

34. Making probable conclusions based on evidence involves reasoning. a. deductive b. syllogistic c. inductive d. connective

35. Consider the following syllogism:

All of the students are tired. Some tired people are irritable. Some ofthe students are irritable.

It is likely that most people will judge this syllogism as a. invalid because ofthe influence ofthe atmosphere effect. b. invalid because this syllogism does not involve a pragmatic reasoning schema. c. valid because this is indeed a valid syllogism and the logic is apparent. d. valid because this conclusion makes sense based on past knowledge

36. When the "abstract" version ofthe Wason four-card problem is compared to a "concrete" version of the problem (in which beer, soda, and ages are substituted for the letters and numbers),

a. performance is better for the concrete task. b. performance is better for the abstract task. c. performance is the same for both tasks. d. performing the abstract task improves performance ofthe concrete task.

37. Failing to consider the law oflarge numbers most likely results in errors concerning a. confirmation bias. b. utility. c. the falsification principle. d. the representativeness heuristic.

38. Which of the following is the most difficult step to achieve in the process of analogical problem solving?

a. Noticing that there is an analogous relationship between problems because most participants need prompting before they notice a connection

b. Mapping corresponding parts between the problems because the elements are difficult to identifY

c. Applying the mapping to generate a parallel solution because of the difficulty in generalizing from one problem to another

d. Solving the problem through reorganization because past experience can make it more difficult to reorganize a problem

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39. People tend to overestimate a. what negative feelings will occur following a decision more so than positive feelings. b. what positive feelings will occur following a decision more so than negative feelings. c. what positive and negative feelings will occur following a decision to the same degree. d. subjective utility values following a decision.

40. The elements of the problem space include all ofthe following EXCEPT a. initial state. . b. operators. c. goal state. d. intermediate states.

41. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to the results of research on differences between how experts and novices solve problems?

a. Experts possess more knowledge ,about their fields than novices. b. Experts often group problems differently than novices, based on principles. c. Experts often get off to a slower start than novices. d. Being an expert in one field can transfer to better problem solving in another field.

42. Which of the following false statements is the result of the representativeness heuristic? a. Emily is most likely blonde and dumb rather than just blonde b. I'll buy this candy because it's 75% sugar-free instead of the one that's got 25% sugar c. I knew you'd get the job, I don't know what you were worrying about d. Getting 79% on a test is worse than getting 77% on the same test

43. Which of the following is an example of the belief-bias? a. If my finger is cut, then it bleeds. My finger is cut. Therefore, it is bleeding. b. If a baby is hungry, then it cries. The baby is crying. Therefore, it is hungry. c. If you don't go to school, then you will get in trouble. You didn't get in trouble.

Therefore, you went to school. d. If you pay your rent, then you will not get evicted. You paid your rent. Therefore, you

will not get evicted. e. If you eat too much, then you will be full. You are not full. Therefore, you did not eat too

much.

44. Which of the following requires inductive reasoning? a. If it is raining, then I am carrying an umbrella. It is raining, am I carrying an umbrella? b. Some nerds are geeks. Some geeks like Star Trek. Therefore, some nerds like Star Trek. c. All frogs I've seen are green. All turtles I've seen are green. Therefore, all frogs and

turtles are green. d. Allan drives faster than Wanda Wanda drives faster than Raoul. Who drives the fastest?

45. Well-defined problems frequently require ______; whereas ill-defined problems frequently require ______

a. Analysis; synthesis b. Convergent thinking; divergent thinking c. Insight; heuristics d. Algorithms; heuristics

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Questions 46-48 each refer to the following description of an experiment:

Professor Morgan had 2 groups of participants take part in a simulated police interrogation. For both groups, there was an interrogator and a guard present. The goal of the interrogator was to get participants to admit to a crime they didn't commit (they were just participants in an experiment, after all!). In one group the interrogator tried to trick participants into admitting guilt while the guard looked on. The other group of participants were similarly interrogated but were also physically confJ;onted by the guard if they did not comply with the interrogator. After the interrogation, participants in the first group displayed higher correct recognition of a photograph of the interrogator than the second group.

46. What is the independent variable in the experiment described above? a. The presence of the guard b. The behaviour of the guard c. The behaviour of the interrogator' . d. Recognition ofthe interrogator e. Admission ofthe crime

47. What is the dependent variable in the experiment described above? a. The presence of the guard b. The behaviour of the guard c. The behaviour of the interrogator d. Recognition of the interrogator e. Admission of the crime

48. What conclusion can most reasonably be drawn from the results of the above experiment? a. Physical confrontation leads to increased admission ofcrime b. Physical confrontation causes stress in the person being interrogated c. Physical confrontation impairs memory d. Interrogation leads to increased admission of crime e. Interrogation impairs memory

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SECTION 2

Answer each question in the space provided. You may answer in point form but make sure you include

sufficient detail in your answers. (42 points)

1. What are flashbulb memories? What are the similarities and differences between flashbulb memories

and everyday memories? (3)

2. What is the Flanker Compatibility task? What do results from experiments using this task suggest about attention? (4)

3. Indicate whether each ofthe following is considered to involve bottom-up or top-down processing, AND whether it is considered serial or parallel. (4)

i. Feature matching theories ofobject recognition: _______________

ii. Visual search tasks that share features (conjunction search): ___________

iii. Parallel distributed processing models ofknowledge: _____________

iv. Word superiority effect: _______________________

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4. Describe the structure and limiting factors of sensory memory_ What process is used to transfer information from sensory memory to short-term memory? (4)

5. Describe an experiment we discussed in class that provides evidence that schemas can help us organize our memories (6)

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6. According to Pavio's dual code theory, thoughts can be represented in two ways. List and describe those 2 types ofrepresentation. How does the dual code theory differ from propositional theory? (4)

7. Describe experiment discussed in class which demonstrates the effect ofexpert knowledge on problem solving. (4)

8. What is the McGurk effect? How does it relate to the idea that speech is "special"? (3)

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9. Indicate whether the following statements are true or false. For each ofthe false statements, indicate what makes it untrue. (7)

___The only 2 valid conditional reasoning strategies are to confirm the antecedent and to confirm the consequent

__--'Experts are less likely to fall victim to the co'njunction fallacy

___Typically, we seek to avoid risk when faced with potential gains and seek risks when faced with potential losses

__---:According to the rules of logical reasoning, it is possible that no outcome can be reached with certainty

___It is unlikely for a person to reach an invalid conclusion ifthey employ mental models during a reasoning task

___Evidence for the Somatic-Marker hypothesis comes in part from observing individuals with hippocampal damage

___The benefit of expected utility theory is that one of its major claims involves the role of emotion on decision making into account

___The Gambler's Fallacy is a result of the representativeness heuristic

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10. Match the following problem solving-related tenns on the left with the correctly corresponding list of attributes on the right: (3)

i) Ill-defined problem: __

ii) Means-end analysis

iii) Divergent thinking: ___

iv) Analogical encoding: __

v) Functional fixedness: ___

vi) Problem space: ___

A: sudden realization of a problem's solution

B: a problem in which it is difficult to specify a clear goal state or specific operators

c: an effect that occurs when the ideas a person has about an object's use inhibit the person's ability to use the object for a different purpse

D: the initial state, goal state, and all the possible intennediate states for a particular problem

E: a problem-solving strategy that seeks to reduce the difference between the initial and goal states. This is achieved by creating subgoals that are closer to the goal.

F: a procedure in which participants are asked to say out loud what they are thinking while working on a problem.

G: the application of problem-solving strategies that were used to solve one problem to the solution of another similar problem

B: thinking that is open-ended, involving a large number of potential solutions

I: thinking that works toward finding a solution to a specific problem that usually has a correct answer

J: a problem that has a correct answer

Total marks =90