YEAR 11 PHYSICS EXAMSSEPARATE SCIENCES

PAPER 2MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

AQA (9-1) GCSE PHYSICS PRACTICEThis booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions designed to help you prepare for Paper 2 of your Physics exam, on Friday 15th June 2018.

The topics that are covered in Paper 2:Topic 5 – ForcesTopic 6 – WavesTopic 7 – Magnetism and ElectromagnetismTopic 8 - Space

All questions in this booklet are designed to test the content of the AQA GCSE Physics examination but are not in the same format as the questions that will be on the paper. The intention of this booklet is to aid in the assessment and revision of the material on the specification, not to familiarise the students with the question format.Questions that are exclusively higher content only are marked as such, but otherwise all questions are linked to content you may be tested on in either paper.

Each question in this publication has one answer only – A, B, C or D.A full set of answers is provided at the end of the booklet.

Print the following pages 2 to 1, to save paper!

If you are struggling with the questions…

There is a range of resources you can use to recover the topics:1. Your classwork will contain a lot of practice and explanations for

each topic2. EzyScience – the website contains a vast amount of videos for you

to learn from3. Youtube – We have taken short bitesized videos from youtube and

made them available on Moodle for you to watch to further revise each topic.

Forces questions:

Scalars and vectors:

1 Which of the following statements is correct?

A Scalars have a magnitude and a direction

B Vectors have a magnitude and a

direction C Vectors have magnitude only

D Scalars are represented by arrows to show their magnitude and direction

Your answer

2 Which row below correctly shows a scalar and a vector?

Scalar VectorA Speed MassB Velocity DistanceC Displacement VelocityD Speed Acceleration

Your answer

3 Which of the following shows a pair of vectors?

A Speed and displacement

B Speed and velocity

C Velocity and distance

D Velocity and displacement

Your answer

4 Which of the following shows a pair of scalar quantities

A Mass and speed

B Speed and acceleration

C Distance and velocity

D Force and pressure

Your answer

Contact and non-contact forces:

5 Which of the following is an example of a contact force?

A Magnetism

B Gravity

C Friction

D Electrostatic

Your answer

6 Which of the following statements is true for forces?

A Gravity is a contact force

B Air resistance and the normal force are examples of contact forces

C Friction will act on bodies that are separated by a distance

D The electrostatic force only acts when charges are physically touching

Your answer

7 Which of the following pairs are examples of contact and non-contact forces?

Contact force Non-contact forceA Friction Magnetic forceB Magnetic force Air resistanceC Tension Normal forceD Gravitational force Tension

Your answer

8 Which of the following statements about forces is true?

A Frictional force and tension are examples of non-contact forces

B The magnetic force and the electrostatic force are contact forces

C Force is a vector quantity

D Force is a scalar quantity

Your answer

Gravity:

9 Which of the following statements about weight is correct?

A Weight is measured in kg

B Weight is the force acting on an object due to gravity

C Weight is a scalar quantity

D Weight does not depend on the gravitational field strength of where that body is

Your answer

10 Which of the following statements is true regarding the force of gravity on

Earth?

A The gravitational force is a contact force

B Gravitational force is a scalar quantity

C The size of the gravitational force on Earth is greatest near to the surface of the Earth

D The gravitational force increases as a body move further from the surface of the Earth

Your answer

11 What is the weight of a body of mass 12kg on the surface of Earth?

A 0.12N

B 1.2N

C 12N

D 120N

Your answer

12 Which of the following statements is correct?

A The weight and mass of a body are both measured in kg

B Weight and mass are both vector quantities

C The weight of an object can be considered to act through its ‘centre of mass’

D Weight is measured using a displacement can

Your answer

Your answer

Resultant forces:

13 What is the minimum number of forces required to stretch a spring?

A 1

B 2

C 3

D 4

Your answer

14 A force of 5N acts on a body to the right and a force of 20N acts on the body to

the left. Which row below shows the size and direction of the resultant force

acting on the body?

Size of resultant force Direction of forceA 15N To the leftB 15N To the rightC 25N To the leftD 25N To the right

Your answer

15 What is the size of the resultant force acting on the body below?

A 20N to the right

B 20N to the left

C 10N to the left

D 10N to the right

Your answer

16 Which of the following statements is true about a resultant force?

A A resultant force will cause a body to move at a constant speed

B Two forces of 10N acting in opposite directions give a resultant force of 20N

C A resultant force will act on a stationary body

D A resultant force will cause a body to accelerate in the direction of the resultant force

Your answer

Work done and energy transfer:

17 How much work is done when a force of 20N moves a trolley through a

horizontal distance of 10m?

A 0.5 J

B 2 J

C 30J

D 200J

Your answer

Forces and elasticity:

18 How much energy is stored in a spring of spring constant 0.5Nm-1 when it is

stretched by 50cm?

A 0.0625 J

B 0.625J

C 0.125J

D 1.25J

Your answer

19 Which of the following is true?

A 1 J = 1 Nm

B 1J = 1 N/m

C 1J = 1 Nm2

D 1J = 1

N/m2

Your answer

20 How much work is done when a mass of 30kg is lifted through a vertical height

of 20m? Take the value of ‘g’ to be 10N/kg.

A 60 J

B 600 J

C 6000 J

D 60000 J

Your answer

21 Which of the following statements is true?

A Lifting a mass of 5kg through a height of 10m increases its g.p.e. by 50 J

B Less work is required to push a crate a distance of 20m on ice than 20m on concrete

C 400 J of work is done when a force of 40N moves a body through a distance of 20m

D A falling body transfers energy from a kinetic store to a gravitational potential store

Your answer

22 What force is required to move a body a horizontal distance of 400m when

600,000 J of work is done?

A 150 N

B 1500 N

C 15,000 N

D 240,000,000 N

Your answer

Moments, levers and gears:

23 What size force, F, is needed for the see saw to be in equilibrium?

A 10N

B 40N

C 72N

D

Your answer

90N

Your answer

24 A rod is pivoted as shown. What is the size of the clockwise moment?

A 32 NmB 40 NmC 50 NmD 72 Nm

Your answer

25 The diagram shows three gears, A, B and C. Gear A is made to rotate at 8.0 revolutions per second in an anticlockwise direction.

Which row of the table correctly describes the motion of gear C?

Direction of rotation Number of rotations per secondA clockwise 8.0B anti-clockwise 12.0C anti-clockwise 8.0D clockwise 12.0

Your answer

26 Which of the following statements is not true?

A Forces that act at a distance from a pivot can cause a turning effect

B The turning effect of a force acting at a distance from a pivot is called a moment

C When calculating a moment, the force must be at right angles to the distance from the

pivot

D A body will rotate when the clockwise and anticlockwise moments are equal.

Your answer

27 What is the value of the force, F, needed for the see-saw to balance below?

A 450 N

B 600 N

C 900 N

D 1200 N

Your answer

28 A spanner is 50cm long. A perpendicular force of 12N is applied to the end of

the spanner to tighten a nut. What is the size of the moment?

A 2.4 Nm

B 4.8 Nm

C 6.0 Nm

D 600 Nm

Your answer

29 Which statement about gears is correct?

A High gears lead to a high speed and a low turning effect

B High gears lead to a low speed and a high turning effect

C Low gears are when a large input gear turns a smaller output gear

D Low gears lead to a high speed and a low turning effect

Your answer

Pressure in a fluid (F tier material only):

30 Which of the following statements is not true?

A Upthrust, weight and density will determine whether a body will float or sink

B A fluid is a liquid or a gas

C A ship will float higher up in fresh water than in sea water

D A body may float in one liquid, but may sink when placed in another liquid

Your answer

31 A force of 320 N acts over an area of 4m2. What pressure is being exerted?

A 0.125 N/m2

B 80 N/m2

C 1280 N/m2

D 12,000 N/m2

Your answer

32 A pressure of 12N/m2 acts over an area of 6m2. What size force is being

exerted?

A 0.5 N

B 2 N

C 72 N

D 144 N

Your answer

33 What is the pressure at the bottom of a column of mercury that is 15m high, if

the density of mercury is 13,600 kg/m3.

A 907 N/m2

B 13,615 N/m2

C 204,000 N/m2

D 2,040,000 N/m2

Your answer

Atmospheric pressure:34 What is the value of atmospheric pressure at sea level?

A 10,000 Pa

B 100,000 Pa

C 1,000,000 Pa

D 10,000,000 Pa

35 Which statement about atmospheric pressure is correct?

A The value for atmospheric pressure at sea level is close to 10,000 N/m2

B Atmospheric pressure increases as you go up, away from the surface of the Earth

C Air density increases as you go further up in the Earth’s atmosphere

D There is less weight of air above you as you go up, so atmospheric pressure decreases

Your answer

36 Which of the following correctly shows the total pressure acting on a scuba

diver who is underwater?

A Total pressure = pressure from the atmosphere only

B Total pressure = pressure from atmosphere + pressure from water

C Total pressure = water pressure only

D Total pressure = weight of diver + water pressure + atmospheric pressure

Your answer

37 What is being shown below by the three water jets that are leaving the can?

A Pressure in a fluid increases with depth

B Pressure in a fluid decreases with depth

C Pressure in a fluid increases with density

D Pressure in a fluid decreases with gravitational field strength

Your answer

Your answer

Distance and displacement:38 A man walks 400m to a nearby shop, buys a newspaper and then walks back

home, following the same path. Which of the following statements is correct?

A His total displacement when he gets back home is 800m

B His displacement depends on the route he took to get back from the shop

C The total distance he has travelled is 800m

D The distance and displacement at the end of the journey are both 800m

Your answer

39 A baby, starting at point A, crawls 3m south to point C, then stops, turns

through 90o and crawls 4m west to point B. This is shown below:

Which of the following is true?

Total distance crawled Displacement from starting pointA 4m 1mB 7m 5mC 7m 4mD 11m 5m

Your answer

40 Which of the following statements is true for distance and displacement?

A Distance is a vector quantity

B Displacement is a scalar quantity

C Distance only has a direction associated with it

D Displacement has a size and a direction associated with it

Your answer

41 Three distance-time graphs for three different car journeys are shown.

Distance is plotted on the y-axis and time is plotted on the x-axis.

Which of the following statements is true?

A The car in graph 1 is moving with a constant acceleration

B The car in graph 2 is travelling at a lower speed than the car in graph 3

C The car in graph 1 is fastest, then the car in graph 2, and the car in graph 3 is

stationary

D The cars in graph 1 and 2 are speeding up and the car in graph 3 is moving at a steady

speed

Speed:

42 A car takes 5 minutes to travel 4km. What is the average speed of the car?

A 20km/h

B 24km/h

C 48km/h

D 60km/h

Your answer

43 Which row shows the correct ‘typical speeds’ for in the table below?

Walking (m/s) Cycling (m/s) Sound waves (m/s)A 1.5 6 330B 3 8 3 x 108

C 6 12 330D 4 9 3 x 108

Your answer

44 A motorcyclist covers a distance of 3km in 5 minutes. Which of the following is

the correct value for the average speed of the motorcyclist?

A 1 m/s

B 10 m/s

C 15 m/s

D 20 m/s

Your answer

45 What distance is travelled by a car that moves at an average speed of 18m/s

for 20 minutes?

A 360 m

B 2.2 km

C 21.6 km

D 3600 m

Your answer

46 What length of time would it take a cyclist, travelling at a constant speed of

8m/s, to cycle twice around a 400m running track?

A 50 seconds

B 1 minute 40 seconds

C 200 seconds

D 320 seconds

Your answer

Velocity:47 Which of the following best describes the term ‘velocity’?

A Velocity is speed in a given direction and is a vector quantity

B Velocity is speed in a given direction and is a scalar quantity

C Velocity is how much the acceleration of a body changes each second

D Velocity is distance x time

Your answer

48 A cyclist travels at an average velocity of 6m/s for 2 minutes in an easterly

direction. Which of the following statements will be true based on this?

A His speed will be the same value at all times during the journey

B His final displacement from his starting point will be zero

C His final displacement will be 1.2km from home, to the west

D His final displacement will be 720m from his starting point, to the east

Your answer

*49 Which of the following statements is true for a body moving at a constant

speed in a circular path?

A The velocity of the body will be constant

B The acceleration of the body will be zero

C The velocity of the body will be constantly changing

D The speed of the body will be constantly changing

Your answer

50 Which of the statements below is true, based on this velocity-time graph for a

moving car?

A The maximum velocity of the car is 30 m/s

B The acceleration of the car is greatest between 0s and 10s

C The car travels at a constant velocity for 40s of its journey

D The acceleration of the car is greatest between 60s and

80s

Your answer

Distance-time relationship:51 Four different distance-time graphs are shown below.

Which of the following statements is correct based on the four graphs shown?

A Graph 1 shows a body travelling at a constant speed

B Graph 2 shows a body travelling at a constant acceleration

C Graph 3 shows a body that is accelerating

D Graph 4 shows a body travelling at a constant speed

Your answer

52 A train travels a distance of 4000m in a time of 200s. What is its average speed

in m/s?

A 0.05 m/s

B 20 m/s

C 200 m/s

D 800,000 m/s

Your answer

Your answer

53 A tennis ball is thrown up in the air. Which of the distance-time graphs below

best describes its journey up to its highest point?

A Graph 1

B Graph 2

C Graph 3

D Graph 4

Your answer

54 Which statement is correct, based on the distance-time graph for the moving

body shown below?

A The maximum speed of the moving body is 200 m/s

B The maximum speed of the moving body is 800 m/s

C The body is stationary for most of the time of its journey

D The average speed of the moving body is 2.67 m/s

Your answer

Acceleration:55 Which of the following is the correct equation for acceleration?

A Acceleration = change in velocity ÷ change in time

B Acceleration = change in velocity x change in time

C Acceleration = change in distance ÷ change in time

D Acceleration = change in velocity ÷ change in distance

Your answer

56 A motorcyclist changes her speed from 4 m/s to 16 m/s over a time of 4 s.

What is the acceleration of the motorcyclist?

A 1 m/s2

B 2 m/s2

C 3 m/s2

D 4 m/s2

Your answer

57 Which of the following distance time graphs shows a body that is decelerating?

A Graph 1

B Graph 2

C Graph 3

D Graph 4

58 A car travelling at 20 m/s is brought to rest over a time of 4 s. What is the

acceleration of the car?

A 5 m/s2

B – 5 m/s2

C 10 m/s2

D 80 m/s2

Your answer

59 Which of the statements below is true for the graph shown below?

A Between 12 s and 16 s the vehicle is not moving

B In the first 2 s of its journey, the vehicle has an acceleration of 8m/s2

C Between 10 s and 12 s the acceleration of the vehicle is – 2m/s2

D The car has stopped between 2 s and 10 s

Your answer

Newton’s first law:60 Which of the following is Newton’s first law of motion?

A Force = mass x acceleration

B Forces that act on interacting bodies are equal in size and opposite in direction

C Work = force x distance

D A body will remain at rest or continue in a straight line at a constant speed as long as

the forces acting on it are balanced

Your answer

61 A stationary ball hangs by a string from the ceiling of a room as shown.

The tension in the string is 25N. Which of the following statements must be true?

A The weight of the ball must be less than 25N

B The weight of the ball must be more than 25N

C The weight of the ball must be equal to 25N and be acting downwards

D The weight of the ball is in the same direction as the tension in the string

Your answer

Your answer

62 A car is moving at a constant speed to the right as shown below:

Based on the forces P, F, R and W shown, which of the following must be true in

this example?

A P > F

B P = F

C F > P

D W = R

Your answer

63 Which of the following cannot be true for a body that has balanced forces

acting on it?

A The body can be stationary

B The body can be moving with a constant speed

C The body can be moving with a constant velocity

D The body can be moving with a constant acceleration

Your answer

Newton’s second law:

64 A toy car has a resultant force of 12N acting on it. If the mass of the toy car is

8kg, what will be the acceleration of the car?

A 1.5 m/s2

B 4 m/s2

C 8 m/s2

D 96 m/s2

Your answer

65 Which of the following best describes Newton’s second law of motion?

A Forces that act on interacting bodies are equal in size and opposite in direction

B A body will remain at rest or continue in a straight line at a constant speed as long as

the forces acting on it are balanced

C Work = force x distance

D Force = mass x acceleration

Your answer

66 What is the resultant force acting on a body if its mass is 8kg and its

acceleration is 5m/s2?

A 0.625 N

B 1.6 N

C 40 N

D 100 N

67 When a resultant force of 200N acts on a body, it accelerates at 2m/s2. What is

the mass of the body?

A 0.01 kg

B 100 kg

C 200 kg

D 400 kg

Your answer

68 What will be the acceleration of a ball of mass 800g when a resultant force of

10N acts on it?

A 12.5 m/s2

B 80 m/s2

C 8000 m/s2

D 1250 m/s2

Your answer

Newton’s third law:

69 Which of the following best describes Newton’s second law of motion?

A Forces that act on interacting bodies are equal in size and opposite in direction

B A body will remain at rest or continue in a straight line at a constant speed as long as

the forces acting on it are balanced

C Work = force x distance

D Force = mass x acceleration

Your answer

70 A man pushes on a wall with a force of 80N. Which of the following must be

true, based on Newton’s third law?

A The wall will accelerate in the direction that the force is acting

B The wall will push back, in the opposite direction, on the man with a force of 80N

C The wall will push back on the man with a force that is less than 80N

D The wall will push back on the man with a force that is greater than 80N

Your answer

71 Which of the following is not true for Newton’s third law?

A The action force and reaction force act on different bodies

B The action and reaction force act in opposite directions

C Two equal and opposite forces can be an example of an action-reaction pair

D Newton’s third law refers to an action-reaction pair that acts on the same body

Your answer

72 A man stands on a concrete floor. The gravitational pull of the Earth on the

man is one force acting on him. Which other force makes up the action-reaction

pair in this case?

A The reaction force of the floor pushing up on the man

B The force of friction acting between his shoes and the floor

C The gravitational pull of the man on the Earth

D The force of air resistance when he starts to move

Your answer

Your answer

Thinking, braking and stopping distances:

73 Which of the following affects the thinking distance but not the braking

distance of a moving vehicle?

A Tiredness, alcohol or drugs

B Condition of the road

C Condition of car’s tyres and brakes

D The number of passengers in the car

Your answer

74 The thinking distance for a car travelling at 20mph is 6m and its braking

distance is 6m. What will be the stopping distance of the car?

A 0m

B 6m

C 12m

D

18m

Your answer

75 The thinking distance for a car travelling at 20mph is 6m. What will the

thinking distance be when the car is travelling at 40mph?

A 6m

B 12m

C 18m

D 24m

Your answer

76 The braking distance for a car travelling at 20mph is 6m. What will the braking

distance be when the car is travelling at 40mph?

A 6m

B 12m

C 18m

D 24m

Your answer

77 The thinking distance for a car travelling at 30mph is 9m and the braking

distance is 14m. What will be the overall stopping distance for a car travelling at

60 mph?

A 23m

B 46m

C 56m

D

74m

Your answer

Reaction time:

78 What is a typical value for the human reaction time?

A

0.02s B

0.2s C

1.8s D

Your answer

2.0s

79 A driver travelling at 24m/s has a reaction time of 0.25s. What will be the

driver’s thinking distance under these conditions?

A 6m

B 12m

C 48m

D 96m

Your answer

80 Which of the following does not affect the reaction time of a driver?

A Alcohol and drugs

B Tiredness

C Mass of the car

D Distractions

Your answer

**Momentum (H tier only)81 A car and its passengers has a total mass of 1250kg and is moving with a velocity of 20 m/s. The brakes are applied and the car comes to rest in a time of 5s. Calculate the average force acting on the car.

A 5000 NB 10000 NC 20000 ND 75000 N

Your answer

82 A car of mass 1000kg is moving at 20m/s. Which of the following is the correct

value for its momentum?

A 50 N

B 20,000 N

C 20,000 kgm/s

D 20,000 J

Your answer

83 A ball of mass 6kg is moving at 2m/s towards a stationary ball of mass 4kg. The

moving ball stops when it hits the stationary ball, and the stationary ball moves

off along the same path. What will be the speed of the 4kg ball after the collision?

A 2 m/s

B 3 m/s

C 4 m/s

D 6 m/s

Your answer

84 Before the collision, trolley A has a mass of 1.5kg and a velocity of 4m/s. It is

moving towards trolley B which is stationary and has a mass of 2.5kg. The two

trolleys join and move off together as shown. What velocity will the trolleys be

moving at after the collision?

A 0.8 m/s

B 1.2 m/s

C 1.5 m/s

D 2.4 m/s

Your answer

85 Two ice-skaters, Nina and Matt, are initially stationary. They push apart. Matt

moves away at +3m/s. What will Nina’s velocity be?

A +1.8

m/s B – 3

m/s C – 5

m/s D + 5

m/s

Your answer

Waves questions:86 Which of the following statements is the most accurate description of a wave?

A Waves transfer energy, information and matter

B Waves transfer energy and information without transferring matter

C Waves transfer matter only

D Waves always transfer energy at the speed of light

Your answer

87 An observer notices that 360 water waves pass by her in 3 minutes. Which

statement below describes the wave?

A The wave has an amplitude of 2.5 m

B The wave has a time period of 0.4 s

C The wave has a frequency of 2 Hz

D The wave is travelling at 120 m/s

Your answer

88 A wave has a frequency of 50Hz. What is the time period of the wave?

A 0.002 s

B 0.02 s

C 0.2 s

D 2.0 s

Your answer

89 Which row in the table below shows the correct information?

Sound waves Light wavesA Longitudinal Travel at 3 x 108 m/s in a vacuumB Transverse LongitudinalC Travel at 3 x 108 m/s in air Travel at 340 m/s in airD Travel at 340 m/s in air Longitudinal

Your answer

Transverse and longitudinal waves:

90 Which of these pairs of waves travel as a longitudinal wave?

A Sound and ultrasound

B Radio waves and infrared waves

C Sound and visible light

D Radio waves and ultrasound

Your answer

91 Which statement below is true for longitudinal waves?

A Examples of longitudinal waves include ripples on water and S - waves

B Particles in longitudinal waves vibrate in the same direction that the wave travels

C Light waves are examples of longitudinal waves

D Particles in longitudinal waves vibrate at right angles to the direction of the wave

Your answer

92 Which row below provided correct examples of longitudinal and transverse

waves

Longitudinal wave Transverse waveA Radio wave Infra red radiationB Water waves P - wavesC S - waves X raysD Sound waves Ultra violet radiation

Your answer

Properties of waves:

93 What is the amplitude of the wave shown?

A 2.0 mm

B 4.0 mm

C 0.25 mm

D 5.0 mm

Your answer

94 Which of the following best describes the term wavelength?

A The number of waves passing a point each second

B The distance from a crest to a trough

C The distance between two successive crests on a wave

D The distance between a crest and a trough

Your answer

95 A wave has a frequency of 2000Hz and a wavelength of 0.5m. What is its wave

speed?

A 0.00025 m/s

B 1000 m/s

C 2500 m/s

D 4000 m/s

Your answer

96 A radio wave travels at 300,000,000 m/s in air and has a wavelength of 3000

m. What is the frequency of the radio wave?

A 0.001 Hz

B 1000 Hz

C 100,000 Hz

D 900,000,000,000 Hz

Your answer

97 A sound wave travels at a speed of 340 m/s in air. If the frequency of the sound

wave is 2000 Hz then what is the wavelength of the sound wave?

A 0.17 m

B 5.9 m

C 11.8 m

D 680,000 m

Your answer

98 A student conducts an investigation to calculate the value of the speed of sound

in air. He claps his hands and measures the time between clapping his hands and

hearing the echo.

If the distance, d, from the student to the wall is 250m and the time between the

clap and the echo is 1.5s, then what value will he get for the speed of sound?

A 167 m/s

B 333 m/s

C 340 m/s

D 375 m/s

Your answer

Reflection of waves:99 A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror as shown. Which of the rays is the

correct reflected ray?

Your answer

100 A ray of light is shone onto a plane mirror such that the angle of incidence is

40o. What will the value of the angle of reflection be?

A 20o

B 40o

C 60o

D 80o

Your answer

101 Which of the following describes the image seen in a plane mirror for an

object that is placed 1m in front of it?

Size of image Nature of image Position of imageA Same size as object Real On the mirror glassB Smaller than object Virtual 1m behind the glassC Bigger than object Real On the mirror glassD Same size as object Virtual 1m behind mirror

Your answer

Refraction of waves:

102 Which of the following statements best describes what happens during

refraction?

A There may be a change in speed

B There may be a change in direction

C There may be a change in speed and direction

D There is no change in speed or direction

Your answer

103 A ray of light passes from air into glass. The angle of incidence at the air-glass

boundary is 30o. Which of the following statements is true?

A The ray of light will speed up when it travels from air into glass

B The ray of light will bend away from the normal when it travels from air into glass

C The ray of light will speed up and bend away from the normal when it enters the glass

D The ray of light will slow down and bend towards the normal

Your answer

104 The diagram below shows wavefronts travelling from air into a glass block.

Which of the statements below best describes what is happening ?

A As the light enters the glass block, it slows down and its wavelength decreases

B As the light enters the block, its frequency decreases and it slows down

C The light waves bend away from the normal in the glass block as they speed up

D The light rays travel through the glass block at the same speed as in air

Your answer

**Sound waves (H tier only)105 Which of the following statements best describes sound waves?

A Transverse waves with frequencies above 20,000 Hz

B Longitudinal waves with frequencies between 20Hz and 20,000 Hz

C Transverse waves with frequencies between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz

D Longitudinal waves with frequencies below 20 Hz

Your answer

106 Which of the following is the best description of how sound waves are

produced and heard?

A Objects vibrate, causing sound waves to travel to the ear and be converted to

electrical signals and be heard

B A series of transverse waves travel through a vacuum to be detected by the ear

C Longitudinal waves with frequencies above 20,000 Hz cause the ear drum to vibrate

D Wave energy is transferred via electromagnetic waves and heard by the ear

Your answer

107 Which row correctly shows the lower and upper limit of human hearing?

Lowest audible frequency Highest audible frequencyA 2 Hz 2,000 HzB 200 Hz 2,000, 000 HzC 20 Hz 20, 000 HzD 2000 Hz 3 x 108 Hz

Your answer

108 A sound wave travels at a speed of 5000 m/s in a copper rod. If the frequency

of the sound wave is 2500 Hz then what is the wavelength of the wave?

A 0.5 m

B 2.0 m

C 5.0 m

D 1.25 x 107 m

Your answer

**Waves for detection and exploration (H tier only)109 Which of the following is used to look at babies in the uterus, for medical

imaging and to detect cracks in metal pipes?

A X rays

B Sound waves

C Ultrasound

D Gamma rays

Your answer

110 An ultrasound wave has a frequency of 30,000 Hz and travels at a speed of

1500 m/s in muscle tissue. What is the wavelength of the ultrasound wave when it

is inside the muscle?

A 5 cm

B 50 cm

C 5 m

D 50 m

Your answer

111 Sonar can be used to measure distances.

If the time between the signal being transmitted and received is 400 ms, then how

far below the boat is the seabed? The speed of sound in water is 1,500 m/s.

A 6 m

B 60 m

C 300 m

D 600 m

Your answer

112 Which of the following is true regarding seismic waves?

A S-waves are faster than P-waves

B S-waves will travel through liquids and solids

C P-waves are transverse waves and S-waves are longitudinal

D The behaviour of P-waves and S-waves is evidence for Earth having a solid inner core,

a solid mantle and a liquid outer core

Your answer

Types of Electromagnetic waves:113 Which statement about electromagnetic waves is correct?

A Electromagnetic waves all have the same energy values

B All electromagnetic waves are transverse and travel at the speed of light in a vacuum

C Radio waves have the highest frequencies of all electromagnetic waves

D Gamma rays are the least harmful electromagnetic waves

Your answer

114 Which electromagnetic waves have frequencies and wavelengths between

those of microwaves and visible light?

A Infrared waves

B X rays

C Radio waves

D Ultraviolet waves

Your answer

115 Which of the rows below correctly shows the electromagnetic waves with the

longest wavelength and highest frequency?

Longest wavelength Highest frequencyA Gamma rays Radio wavesB Infrared waves Ultraviolet raysC Microwaves X raysD Radio waves Gamma rays

Your answer

116 Which of the rows below correctly states how energy, frequency and

wavelength change in the electromagnetic spectrum?

A Wavelength, frequency and energy all increase going from radio waves to gamma rays

B Frequency and energy increase going from radio to gamma and wavelength decreases

C Wavelength decreases from radio to gamma, but energy and frequency do not change

D Energy and wavelength increase from radio to gamma and frequency decreases

Your answer

Properties of electromagnetic waves:

117 Which of the following is not true for electromagnetic waves?

A They can all be reflected and refracted

B They all travel at the same speed in a vacuum

C They are all transverse waves

D The waves will all have the same energy

Your answer

118 Which type of electromagnetic radiation is found between visible light and X

rays?

A Infrared rays

B Ultraviolet rays

C Microwaves

D Gamma rays

Your answer

119 Which of the following types of radiation is least dangerous to human bodily

tissues?

A X rays

B Ultraviolet radiation

C Infrared radiation

D Radio waves

Your answer

120 Which of the following rows shows electromagnetic waves in order of

increasing frequency from left to right?

A Radio waves, infrared waves, microwaves

B Visible light, X rays, Ultraviolet rays

C Infrared, Visible light, X rays

D Gamma rays, microwaves, X rays

Your answer

121 Which pair of electromagnetic waves is most commonly used for

communications?

A Radio waves and microwaves

B X rays and gamma rays

C Microwaves and X rays

D Infrared and ultraviolet

Your answer

122 Which of the following statements is true for electromagnetic waves?

A Radio waves are used to communicate via communication satellites

B X rays and gamma rays reach us at the Earth’s surface from outer space

C Visible light is transmitted by the walls of houses

D Ultraviolet rays are absorbed by the skin but not by the Earth’s atmosphere

Your answer

123 Which of the following statements is not true for electromagnetic waves

A They can all be reflected off a surface

B They may be refracted when they pass from one material to another

C They are all absorbed by the same materials by the same amount

D They can all be transmitted through different materials

Your answer

Uses and applications of electromagnetic waves:

124 Which of the following pairs of electromagnetic waves can be used for

cooking food?

A Microwaves and infrared

B Radio waves and X rays

C Visible light and ultraviolet rays

D Gamma rays and X rays

Your answer

125 Which member of the electromagnetic spectrum is used for lighting,

photography and illuminations?

A Microwaves

B Infrared

C Visible light

D X rays

Your answer

126 Which member of the electromagnetic spectrum is used for cooking, TV

remote controls and in thermal imaging?

A Microwaves

B Infrared

C Visible light

D X rays

Your answer

127 Which member of the electromagnetic spectrum is used for cooking, in

mobile phones and in satellite communication?

A Microwaves

B Infrared

C Radio waves

D X rays

Your answer

128 Which member of the electromagnetic spectrum is used to detect and to treat

cancer?

A Microwaves

B Infrared

C Radio waves

D Gamma rays

Your answer

Lenses:129 Which type(s) of image(s) can be produced by a convex lens?

A Real images only

B Virtual images only

C Real and virtual images

D Magnified images only

Your answer

130 Which row correctly describes the nature of the image formed by the convex

lens below?

A Real, larger than the object, upright

B Real, smaller than the object, upside down

C Virtual, smaller than the object, upright

D Virtual, larger than the object, upside down

Your answer

Your answer

131 Which statement is true for two lenses of different thicknesses, both made of

the same type of glass?

A The thicker lens will refract light more than the thinner lens and have a shorter focal

length

B The thicker lens will refract light less than the thinner lens and have a longer focal

length

C The thicker lens will refract light more and have a longer focal length than the thinner

lens

D The thickness of the lens does not affect how much the light is refracted by it

Your answer

132 What is the diagram below showing a convex lens being used as?

A A cinema projector

B A camera lens

C A telescope

D A magnifying glass

Your answer

133 Which of the following is true for a concave lens?

A The produce real images only

B They produce virtual images only

C They can produce real and virtual images

D They can only produce images that are larger than the object

Your answer

Visible light:134 Which of the following best describes why a jumper looks red when viewed in

white light?

A The jumper absorbs red wavelengths but reflects all other colours

B The jumper absorbs all wavelengths of visible light

C The jumper transmits all wavelengths apart from red

D The jumper absorbs all wavelengths apart from red which it reflects

Your answer

135 What colour will a body look if it absorbs all wavelengths of visible light that

are incident on it?

A White

B Black

C Red

D Green

Your answer

136 Which type of reflection is being shown below?

A Diffuse reflection

B Differential reflection

C Specular reflection

D Spectral reflection

137 Which row correctly shows the colours that would be seen at A and B on the

screen below?

Colour seen at A Colour seen at BA Red VioletB Blue RedC Violet RedD Blue Green

Your answer

138 Which of the following correctly explains what happens when white light is

incident on a green filter?

A Green light will be absorbed and all other wavelengths will be transmitted

B Green light will be transmitted and all other wavelengths will be absorbed

C White light will be transmitted by the filter

D No light will be transmitted and the filter will appear black

Your answer

Black body radiation:139 Which of the following statements is true?

A Only hot bodies emit infrared radiation

B Only black surfaces absorb infrared radiation

C All bodies above absolute zero of temperature will emit and absorb infrared radiation

D Light, shiny surfaces are the best radiators of infrared radiation

Your answer

140 What is meant by the term ‘perfect black body’?

A A perfect black body is a perfect emitter of radiation

B A perfect black body is a perfect absorber of radiation

C A perfect black body is a perfect reflector of radiation

D A perfect black body is a perfect absorber and emitter of radiation

Your answer

141 Which of the following statements is true?

A A cup of tea at 90oC and a bath filled with water at 90oC contain the same amount of

thermal energy

B A cup of tea at 90oC emits radiation that is mostly infrared

C Objects that are at the same temperature emit the same intensity of infrared each

second

D The amount of infrared radiation emitted by a hot body does not depend on the

nature of its surface.

Your answer

142 Which of the following statements is not true?

A A body will remain at a constant temperature if it absorbs the same amount of

radiation as it emits

B A body will increase its temperature if it absorbs more radiation than it emits

C A body will decrease its temperature if it emits more radiation than it absorbs

D A body will increase its temperature if it emits more radiation than it absorbs

Your answer

143 Which of the following is the correct meaning of the word ‘intensity’?

A The energy emitted per second by a hot body

B The energy emitted per second per square metre by a hot body

C The total energy emitted by a hot body

D The change in temperature of a hot body per second

Your answer

144 The apparatus shown is called ‘Leslie’s cube’.

Which of its four surfaces is the best emitter of infrared radiation?

A Matt black

B Gloss black

C Silver

D White

Your answer

145 The apparatus shown is called ‘Leslie’s cube’.

Which of its four surfaces is the best absorber of infrared radiation?

A Matt black

B Gloss black

C Silver

D White

Your answer

146 Which of the following statements is correct?

A Only objects that are above room temperature will emit radiation

B The intensity and wavelength distribution of any emission depends on the

temperature of the object

C The intensity of the emitted radiation increases as temperature decreases

D The wavelength corresponding to the peak intensity increases as the body gets hotter

Your answer

147 The graph shows the intensity curves for the Sun, a fire and the Earth.

Intensity is plotted on the y-axis and wavelength is plotted on the x-axis.

Which of the following is true, based on the graph above?

A The Earth emits more radiation per second, per square metre than the fire

B The fire emits more radiation per second, per square metre than the Sun

C The wavelength that corresponds to the peak emission decreases as the temperature

increases

D The wavelength that corresponds to the peak emission increases as the temperature

increases

Your answer

Your Answer

Magnetism and electromagnetism

questions:

Poles of a magnet:

148 Which of the following is true for magnetic materials?

A Magnetic poles always attract each other

B A North pole will repel a South pole

C Like poles will repel each other

D Magnetic field lines are from a S pole to a N pole

Your Answer

149 Which of these pairs of objects will repel each other?

A A N pole and a S pole

B A N pole and a piece of iron

C A S pole and a piece of steel

D Two S poles facing each other

Your Answer

150 Which of the following is an example of induced magnetism?

A A bar magnet being used to attract another bar magnet

B The Earth’s magnetic field

C A bar magnet picking up an unmagnetised steel paper clip

D Two N poles repelling each other

Your Answer

151 Which of the following will always lead to magnetic attraction?

A Two magnetic poles placed facing each other

B A N-pole facing a N-pole

C An electromagnet placed next to a piece of unmagnetised iron

D Two pieces of iron placed close to each other

Your Answer

Magnetic fields:

152 Which of the following will not be picked up by a permanent magnet?

A Iron

B Steel

C Cobalt

D Copper

Your Answer

153 Which of the following is true for a magnetic compass?

A It is made from a material that is not magnetic

B The behaviour of a compass shows that the Earth has a magnetic core

C It can only be used for measuring the magnetic field around the Earth

D A magnetic compass needle will not move if placed near a current-carrying wire

Your answer

154 Which one of these images correctly shows the field lines around a bar magnet?

A B C D

Your Answer

155 The diagram shows the magnetic field around a current-carrying wire as viewed from above.

Which of the following statements is true?

A The magnetic field strength increases as the distance from the wire increases

B The current is flowing upwards in the wire (out of the plane of the page)

C The current is flowing downwards in the wire (into the plane of the paper)

D The wire will move to the left if the current flowing through it increases

The motor effect and electromagnetism:

156 Which of the following changes will not lead to a change in the strength of a

magnetic field around a conducting wire?

A Increasing the size of the current flowing in the wire

B Changing the direction of the current flowing

C Decreasing the size of the current flowing in the wire

D Changing the material that the wire is made from

Your Answer

157 Which of the following is true for the magnetic field strength around a

straight conductor?

A It depends on the size of the current flowing in the wire

B It increases as the distance from the wire increases

C It has the same shape as the magnetic field around a bar magnet

D It will not attract a piece of iron placed near to it

Your Answer

Your answer

158 Which of these images correctly shows the magnetic field for a straight current-carrying wire with the current travelling downwards when viewed from above?

A B C D

Your Answer

159 What is the proper name given to a wire that has been shaped as shown

below?

A A Transformer

B A relay

C A coil

D A solenoid

160 Which of the following changes will not lead to an increase in magnetic field

strength inside or around a conducting wire?

A Increasing the size of the current flowing through a wire

B Shaping a wire into a solenoid

C Increasing the amount of resistance in the wire through which the current is flowing

D Adding an iron core to a solenoid to make an electromagnet

Your answer

**Fleming’s left hand rule (H tier only)161 Which of the following rows correctly shows which fingers on the left hand

indicate which variable?

Thumb First finger Second fingerA Motion of wire Direction of field Direction of currentB Direction of field Direction of current Motion of wireC Direction of current Motion of wire Direction of fieldD Motion of wire Direction of current Direction of field

Your answer

162 In which direction will the wire move below?

A Left

B Right

C Inwards (away from you, into the page)

D Outwards (towards you, out of the page)

Your answer

Your answer

163 A current of 1.5A flows in a wire of length 0.2m that is inside a magnetic of

magnetic flux density 0.0004T. What size force does the wire experience?

A 0.00012 N

B 0.0012 N

C 75 N

D 750 N

Your answer

164 A wire experiences a force of 1.6 x 10-3N when a current of 2.4A flows through

a length of 80cm that is within a magnetic field. What is the size of the magnetic

flux density of the magnetic field?

A 8.3 x 10-6 T

B 8.3 x 10-4 T

C 3.1 x 10-3 T

D 0.31 T

Your answer

** Electric motors (H tier only)165 Which of the following statements is true for an electric motor?

A Kinetic energy input leads to an electrical energy output

B Forces only act on the parts of the wire that are parallel to the magnetic field lines

C An electrical input is transferred to a kinetic store as the coil rotates

D The forces on the parts of the wire at right angles to the magnetic field are in the same

direction

166 Which items are missing from the arrow labels in the artwork below?

A Cell and slip rings

B Slip rings and carbon brushes

C Commutator and carbon brushes

D Magnetic field and commutator

Your answer

Your answer

167 Which statement correctly describes the motion of the dc motor shown

below?

A Clockwise at a constant speed

B Anti-clockwise at a constant speed

C Clockwise at a constant velocity

D Anti-clockwise at a constant velocity

Your answer

168 Which of the following will not lead to an increase in the speed of rotation of

a motor coil

A Increase the current flowing in the coil

B Increase the magnetic flux density of the magnetic field

C Increase the number of turns of wire on the motor coil

D Reverse the direction that the current is flowing in the coil

Your answer

**Loudspeakers and microphones (H tier only)169 Which of the following statements is correct for a loudspeaker?

A An input of sound waves is transferred into an electrical output

B Loudspeakers only work with a dc input

C An electrical input is transferred as an output of sound waves

D Loudspeakers make use of the generator effect to convert changes in current to sound

waves

Your answer

170 Which of the following rows correctly shows how the pitch and loudness of

sound waves are affected by the vibrations of the loudspeaker cone?

Pitch of sound Loudness of soundA Amplitude of cone vibration Frequency of cone vibrationB Frequency of cone vibration Amplitude of cone vibrationC Amplitude of cone vibration Direction of current flowD Direction of current flow Amplitude of cone vibration

Your answer

171 Which statement is true relating to loudspeakers and microphones?

A Loudspeakers make use of the generator effect and microphones make use of the

motor effect

B Loudspeakers make use of the motor effect and microphones make use of the

generator effect

C A loudspeaker transfers energy in sound waves to an electrical output

D A microphone transfers energy electrically to sound waves

Your answer

172 Which of the following statements is true for a microphone?

A Pressure variations in the sound waves allow a varying electrical current to travel

through the wires of the microphone

B The microphone makes use of the motor effect to make sound waves

C Microphones will convert sound waves above 20,000 Hz to sounds we can hear

D Microphones require converting an ac electrical input to a sound output

Your answer

**Induced potential (H tier only)173 Which of the following will not lead to an induced current in a conducting

wire?

A Moving the wire slowly inside the magnetic field

B Moving the wire quickly inside the magnetic field

C Moving the magnet and keeping the wire still

D Keeping the wire and the magnet still

Your answer

174 Which of the following factors does not affect the size of an induced current?

A Changing the direction of motion of the wire

B Moving the wire faster

C Using stronger magnets

D Using more loops of wire

Your answer

175 Which statement regarding the arrangement below is not correct?

A As the North pole of the magnet moves towards to the coil, it will be attracted by the

end of the coil that is nearest to it

B As the North pole of the magnet moves towards the coil, it will be repelled by the coil

C If the magnet is moved away from the coil, the current will flow in the opposite

direction through the coil

D If the magnet is moved away from the coil, the needle on the meter will swing to the

left

Your answer

176 Which of the following rows shows how to induce the largest size current in

the coil of the wire?

Motion of magnet Number of turns on coil Magnet strengthA Fast Small WeakB Slow Large StrongC Fast Large StrongD Stationary Small Weak

**Transformers (H tier only)

177 Which of the following statements about transformers is not correct?

A Transformers can be used to change the size of an alternating voltage or current

B Transformers only work with a dc input

C Transformers only work with an ac input

D Step-up transformers are used to increase voltage

Your answer

178 A transformer is used to change a voltage from 12V input to 240 V output.

There are 300 turns on the primary coil. Which of the following rows is correct

based on this information?

Type of transformer Number of turns on secondary coilA Step down 600B Step up 20C Step down 15D Step-up 6000

Your answer

179 A transformer has 4000 turns on its primary coil and 800 turns on its secondary coil. The input voltage is 60V. What is the size of the output voltage?

A 8 V

B 12 V

C 60 V

D 300 V

Your answer

180 A transformer has an input voltage of 18V and an output voltage of 360V. The

current in the primary coil is 40A. Based on this information, which of the

following rows below is correct?

Type of transformer Current in the secondary coilA Step up 2AB Step down 2AC Step up 800 AD Step down 800 A

Your answer

Space Physics questions:

181 Which of the following is evidence for the Big Bang?

A The age of rocks and the existence of Earth

B Red-shift

C The existence of dark matter

D The existence of hydrogen gas and nuclear fusion in the Sun

Your answer

182 Which of the following best describes how stars are formed?

A Gravity leads to dust and gas being brought together followed by fusion reactions

B Supernova explosions

C Nuclear fission takes place when stars become hot enough

D A change in gravitational collapse and expansion occurs during fusion

Your answer

183 Which of the following is not true for the Solar System?

A The 8 planets move in near-circular orbits around the Sun

B The Solar System contains some planets which have their own natural satellites

C There are minor planets and artificial satellites present in the solar system

D There are many millions of stars in the Solar System

Your answer

Our solar system:184 Which of the following best describes the contents of our Solar System?

A Many stars, nine planets, dwarf planets, comets

B Many stars, eight planets, moons

C One star, eight planets, dwarf planets and moons

D Natural satellites, one star, millions of planets, many dwarf planets

Your answer

185 Which of the following has the planets listed in increasing distance from the

Sun?

A Jupiter, Saturn, Mercury, Earth

B Mars, Venus, Earth, Saturn

C Venus, Jupiter, Saturn, Mars

D Mercury, Venus, Earth, Jupiter

Your answer

186 Which of the following has the bodies in our Solar System arranged in order

of increasing mass?

A The Sun, Earth, The Moon, Jupiter

B The Moon, Earth, Jupiter, The Sun

C Jupiter, The Moon, The Earth, The Sun

D Mercury, Earth, The Sun, Jupiter

Your answer

187 Which of the following statements is not true?

A The Sun was formed when dust and gas was pulled together by gravitational

attraction

B The size of a star depends on the mass of dust and gas that is the nebula the star

comes from.

C Our Sun is a star of average mass and brightness

D Stars and planets have approximately the same mass and size

Your answer

The life cycle of a star:188 What stage is a star at in its life cycle just before it becomes a main sequence

star?

A Red giant

B White dwarf

C Protostar

D Black hole

Your answer

Your answer

189 What will a star about the same size as the Sun become straight after it leaves

the main sequence stage of its life?

A A red giant

B A red supergiant

C A white dwarf

D A supernova

Your answer

190 What will a star the size of the Sun turn into at the end of its life?

A A red giant

B A red supergiant

C A white dwarf

D A black dwarf

Your answer

191 Which statement best describes the fate of stars that are many times the mass

of the Sun?

A They will leave the main sequence and become red giants

B They will explode in a supernova to become neutron stars and black holes

C They will exist forever and will never run out of fuel

D They will end up as black dwarf stars

Your answer

192 Which of the following statements is not true?

A Nuclear fusion processes in stars produce all of the naturally occurring elements

B Elements heavier than iron are produced in a supernova

C Supernova distribute the heavier elements throughout the Universe

D All main sequence stars the size of our Sun will undergo a supernova explosion

Your answer

Orbital motion, natural and artificial satellites:

193 Which force is responsible for keeping planets moving in a circular orbit?

A Magnetism

B Electrostatic force

C Gravity

D Friction

Your answer

194 Which of the following is an example of an artificial satellite?

A The Moon orbiting the Earth

B The Earth orbiting the Sun

C The moons of Saturn which orbit the planet

D GPS satellite placed in a geostationary orbit above the Earth

Your answer

195 Which of the following about satellites is not true?

A Natural satellites were formed by natural processes

B Natural satellites include the eight planets in the Solar System which orbit the Sun

C Natural satellites include the moons which orbit the planets in the Solar System

D Natural satellites include the military satellites in low polar orbits above the Earth

Your answer

196 Which statement is true for bodies travelling in a circular orbit?

A The velocity of the body will be constant

B The speed of the body will constantly be changing

C If the radius of orbit changes then the speed must also change to remain in a stable

orbit

D The force of gravity acting on the body leads to a changing speed and velocity

197 Which statement is not true for a body moving in a stable orbit?

A For a body moving in a stable orbit, the radius and speed are linked

B If a satellite’s orbital speed increases, it will move to a stable orbit of greater radius

C If a satellite’s orbital speed decreases, it will move to a stable orbit of smaller radius

D If a satellite’s orbital speed increases, it will move to a stable orbit of smaller radius

Your answer

Red-shift:

198 Which of the following statements is not true?

A There is an observed increase in the wavelength of light from most distant galaxies

B The further away a galaxy is, the faster it is moving away from us

C The further a galaxy is away from us, the greater the red-shift

D Galaxies moving towards us have small red-shifts

Your answer

199 Which of the following statements is not true?

A Red-shift provides evidence for the Big Bang theory

B Most of the matter in the Universe can be detected and accounted for by scientists

C The Big Bang theory suggests the Universe started from a very small region about 14

billion years ago

D Observations of supernovae suggest that galaxies are receding ever faster

Your answer

200 What can be determined from the artwork below?

A The Universe is expanding, but the rate at which it is expanding is decreasing

B Galaxies closest to Earth are the most red-shifted

C Galaxies furthest from Earth are moving faster than those closer to Earth

D The Universe is mostly composed of dark matter

Your answer

AQA Mega Bundle H tier and F tier Paper 2 Answers

1B 26D 51C 76D 101D 126B 151C 176C2D 27A 52B 77D 102C 127A 152D 177B3D 28C 53D 78B 103D 128D 153B 178D4A 29A 54D 79A 104A 129C 154A 179B5C 30C 55A 80C 105B 130B 155C 180A6B 31B 56C 81A 106A 131A 156B 181B7A 32C 57D 82C 107C 132D 157A 182A8C 33D 58B 83B 108B 133B 158C 183D9B 34B 59C 84C 109C 134D 159D 184C10C 35D 60D 85C 110A 135D 160C 185D11D 36B 61C 86B 111C 136C 161A 186B12C 37A 62B 87C 112D 137A 162D 187D13B 38C 63D 88B 113B 138B 163A 188C14A 39B 64A 89A 114A 139C 164B 189A15C 40D 65D 90A 115D 140D 165C 190D16D 41C 66C 91B 116B 141B 166C 191B17D 42C 67B 92D 117D 142D 167A 192D18C 43A 68A 93A 118B 143B 168D 193C19A 44B 69A 94C 119D 144A 169C 194D20C 45C 70B 95B 120C 145A 170B 195D21B 46B 71D 96C 121A 146B 171B 196C22B 47A 72C 97A 122D 147C 172A 197D23D 48D 73A 98B 123C 148C 173D 198D24D 49C 74C 99C 124A 149D 174A 199B25B 50B 75B 100B 125C 150C 175A 200C