Malpeli Revision

Malpeli Revision

200 - 299

200. A way of reducing future risks and injuries occurring in sports is:

A Using the SIPP strategy (Sports Injury Prevention Program)

B Adopting injury surveillance systems

C Focussing more on skill development

D All of the above

ANSWER:B Adopting injury surveillance systems

201. School settings-based programs for promoting physical activity are superior to workplace and community settings because they:

A: Use a combination of social influences

B: Have a captive audience – i.e. schooling is compulsory until 15 years of age

C: Can incorporate policy into any promotion strategies

D: All of the above

ANSWER:D: All of the above

202. Aerobic glycolysis:

A: Would be very important to a 200m runner

B: Resynthesizes ATP quicker than anaerobic glycolysis

C: Switches to fats when carbohydrates are running low

D: Doesn’t result in harmful by-products

ANSWER:

D: Doesn’t result in harmful by-products

203. The following is an example of an objective measure of physical activity:

A: A GPS unit

B: Direct observation

C: A Physical Activity Diary

D: None of the above

ANSWER:A. A GPS unit

204. An athlete with low levels of fitness will experience proportionately greater gains in fitness than an athlete who is fitter can be explained by:

A: The law of proportional returns

B: The law of inverse proportionality

C: The law of diminishing returns

D: The law of proportional return

ANSWER:C: The law of diminishing returns

205. Stage 6 of the “Stages of Change” model is known as the Termination stage which:A: Sees performers meet the NPAG guidelines for a minimum of 24 months

B: Sees performers being physically active most nights of the week

C: Sees performers reduce the amount of physical activity to maintain fitness gains

D: Sees performers involved in regular physical activity for a period of more than 5 years

ANSWER:D: Sees performers involved in regular physical activity for a period of more than 5 years

206. The following is an example of a “constructed environment”

A: A walking track around a school oval

B: A playground

C: A skate bowl and ramp

D: All of the above


207. The following would occur after 12 months of plyometrics training:

A: Increased glycolytic capacity

B: Increased muscle buffering ability

C: Increased energy substrate stores

D: All of the above


208. Biofeedback is used to enhance performance by:

A: Promoting improved focus

B: Reducing arousal

C: Increasing arousal

D: Creating life-like images

ANSWER:B: Reducing arousal

209. Creatine supplementation:

A: Increases the rate of PC resynthesis

B: Increases the rate of PC splitting

C: Increases phosphorylation

D: Results is osmotic efflux at the muscles

ANSWER:A: Increases the rate of PC resynthesis

210. At sub-maximal intensity, most of our energy comes from:

A: Glucose

B: Carbohydrates

C: Adipose


ANSWER:A: Glucose

211. The ATP-PC system:

A: Produces more ATP than the aerobic energy system

B: Has a greater yield of ATP than the LA system

C: Produces ATP at a slower rate than the glycoltyic system


ANSWER:D: None of the above

212. The energy system interplay is best described when:

A: All three systems work in a sequential manner

B: ATP is interdependent of ADP release

C: Oxygen supply can meet oxygen demand

D: ATP is released from all 3 energy systems, but one contributing more than the other two systems

ANSWER:D: ATP is released from all 3 energy systems, but one contributing more than the other two systems

213. Once the lactate threshold is exceeded, the following occurs :

A: Most ATP resynthesis occurs as a result of anaerobic glycolysis

B: LIP balances with BLA

C: Ventilation decreases


ANSWER:A : Most ATP resynthesis occurs as a result of anaerobic glycolysis

214. Steady state occurs when:

A: Oxygen deficit is greater than oxygen debt

B: Oxygen demand is greater than oxygen supply

C: Oxygen consumption equal carbon dioxide production

D: Oxygen supply is equal to oxygen demand

ANSWER:D: Oxygen supply is equal to oxygen demand

215. The most likely cause of fatigue for a 400m sprinter (athletics) is:

A: H+ accumulation

B: Pi+ accumulation

C: Na+ accumulation


ANSWER:A: H+ accumulation

216. Following a 10 second interval sprint (max intensity) how long would it take to replenish fuel stores used in the work period?

A: 1 minute

B: 2 minutes

C: 3 minutes

D: 4 minutes

ANSWER:C: 3 minutes

217. Protein is mainly used for:

A: ATP resynthesis

B: Repair of hair follicles

C: Athletes who have depleted their PC stores

D: Muscle growth and repair

ANSWER:D: Muscle growth and repair

218. Anaerobic capacity is a measure of:

A: How much glycogen is used in the Kreb’s cycle

B: The infinite amount of energy the lactic acid system can produce

C: The finite amount of energy the anaerobic systems can provide


ANSWER:C: The finite amount of energy the anaerobic systems can provide

219. The most important fitness component for a 1,500m swimmer is:

A: Flexibility

B: Local Muscular Endurance

C: Speed

D: Power

ANSWER:B: Local Muscular Endurance

220. The purpose of conducting a games analysis is to:

A: Determine which components of fitness are important

B: Identify areas for improvement

C: Design a series of fitness tests to be undertaken

D: All of the above


221. The most appropriate fitness tests on offer are:

A: Norm referenced

B: Valid

C: Activity specific

D: All of the above


222. The most specific test to assess the agility of a pole vaulter would be the:

A: The Semo agility tests

B: Bend Twist Touch test

C: The Illinois agility test

D: The shoulder hyperextension test

ANSWER:B: Bend Twist Touch test

223. Males would be expected to score better in beep test than females because they:

A: Have bigger hearts

B: Have higher lung capacities

C: Have more blood

D: All of the above


224. A training year can be broken down into smaller sections such as “pre-season”, “competition” and “off-season”. These are examples of”

A: Periodisation

B: Privatisation

C: Localisation


ANSWER:A: Periodisation

225. The recommended frequency for athletes seeking aerobic training improvements is:

A: 4-5 times / week

B: 3-4 times / week

C: 2-3 times / week

D: 1-2 times / week

ANSWER:A: 4-5 times / week

226. Any “plateau” during a training program indicates:

A: Steady state

B: A period of adaptation

C: Overtraining

D: Specificity

ANSWER:B: A period of adaptation

227. The modified pull up tests is useful to measure :

A: Alactacid power

B: Strength

C: Local muscular endurance

D: Power

ANSWER:C: Local muscular endurance

228. “Fartlek” training :

A: Was named after the Swedish cross country champion Sven Far Tlek

B: Trains both aerobic and anaerobic energy systems

C: Has a work to rest ratio larger than long interval training


ANSWER:B: Trains both aerobic and anaerobic energy systems

229. Plyometrics are exemplified by the following group of activities:

A: Dodges, weaves and directional changes

B: Depth Jumps, clap push-ups, bounding

C: Maximal contractions applied over a period of time

D: All of the above

ANSWER:B: Depth Jumps, clap push-ups, bounding

230. Plyometrics can be overloaded by:

A: Increasing the height and depth of jumps

B: Increasing the number of repetitions performed

C: Jumping whilst wearing a back pack filled with 5kg sand

D: All of the above


231. In the following exercise prescription for resistance training ~ 4 x 8 x 80kg, the 80 represents:

A: The weight of the performer

B: The resistance

C: The overload

D: The replication

ANSWER:B: The resistance

232. The following is most likely to result from participation in an aerobic training program lasting 12+ mths:

A: Increased anabolic enzymes

B: Increased catabolic processes

C: Increased catalytic enzymes


ANSWER:D: None of the above

233. Increased myoglobin levels resulting from aerobic conditioning / training assists in:

A: Moving more oxygen away from the intercostals to working muscles

B: Moving more oxygen from cell membranes to the mitochondria

C: Moving more carbon dioxide from the right ventricle to the lungs

D: Moving arteriovenous oxygenated blood back to the alveoli

ANSWER:B: Moving more oxygen from cell membranes to the mitochondria

234. Shin splints are an example of:

A: Overtraining

B: Overloading

C: Overcompensating

D: Overarching principles

ANSWER:A: Overtraining

235. Aerobic training has the following effect on muscle oxygen delivery:

A: Decreases

B: Increases

C: Absorbs more


ANSWER:B: Increases

236. Short interval training will result in the following chronic changes to fast twitch muscle fibres:

A: Increased FFA stores

B: Increased capillarisation

C: Increased glycolytic enzymes

D: Increased oxidative enzymes

ANSWER:C: Increased glycolytic enzymes

237. Continuous training will result in the following chronic changes to slow twitch muscle fibres:

A: Increased nervous transmission

B: Increased contraction speed

C: Increased PC stores

D: Increased capillarisation

ANSWER:D: Increased capillarisation

238. Short interval training will result in the following adaptations to the LIP:

A: Regulate

B: Remain the same

C: Decrease

D: Increase

ANSWER:D: Increase

239. Training with high intensity/loads and low repetitions will generally result in greater changes in:

A: Fast twitch fibres

B: Slow twitch fibres

C: Medium twitch fibres


ANSWER:A: Fast twitch fibres

240. Massage assists recovery by:

A: Increasing blood flow

B: Preventing venous pooling

C: Facilitating removal of metabolic by-products

D: All of the above


241. The most effective way of monitoring training responses is to:

A: Listen carefully to your personal trainer

B: Conduct post tests

C: Video your training

D: Keep a training log

ANSWER:D: Keep a training log

242. The following is a strategy that can be used for 1:1 counselling:

A: Contracting

B: Identifying opportunities to be active

C: Enlisting social support

D: All of the above


243. Groups most at risk of being physically inactive include:

A: White collar workers

B: Racial and ethnic minorities

C: High SES groups

D: All of the above

ANSWER:B : Racial and ethnic minorities

244. Relapse is most likely to occur at the following stage:

A: Action

B: Precontemplation

C: Termination

D: Preparation

ANSWER:D: Preparation

245 Someone suffering from pre-game “jitters” should use the following strategy to get to a better psychological state. A: Progressive muscle relocation

B: Elevated breathing rate

C: Energising muscle contractions

D: All of the above

ANSWER:A : Progressive muscle relocation

246. Caffeine is often taken by endurance performers to enhance their performances by:

A: Promoting glycogen sparing

B: Providing an acid-base balance

C: Being a diuretic

D: Assisting thermoregulation

ANSWER:A: Promoting glycogen sparing

247. A psychlogical sign of overtraining is:

A: Loss of competitive drive

B: Loss of appetite

C: Loss of muscle tone

D: All of the above

ANSWER:A: Loss of competitive drive

248. Direct observation:

A: Is most effective in the workplace setting

B: Allows for collection of contextual information

C: Is time efficient

D: Is unobtrusive

ANSWER:B: Allows for collection of contextual information

249. EPO is often taken by endurance athletes despite being banned by WADA. Side-effects include:

A: Decreased blood pressure

B: Anaemia

C: Hypertension

D: Flatulence

ANSWER:C: Hypertension

250. An example of a medico-legal issue being raised by athletes taking legal performance enhancers such as creatine monohydrate is:

A: Athletes suffering an allergic reaction to the substance

B: A doctor being removed from the medical practitioner’s board

C: Athlete’s not knowing what they were being given and the side effects

D: All of the above


251. The recommended activity levels for adults (CDHAC) are:

A: Combining long sessions of different activities for a total of 60 minutes five days per week (minimum)

B: Combining short sessions of different activities for a total of 30 minutes five days per week (minimum)

C: Combining short sessions of different activities for a total of 60 minutes five days per week (minimum)

D: Combining continuous sessions of different activities for a total of 30 minutes five days per week (minimum)

ANSWER:B: Combining short sessions of different activities for a total of 30 minutes five days per week (minimum)

252. The physical activity pyramid encourages people to:

A: Participate most in Level 1 activities

B: Participate least in Level 1 activities

C: Participate most in Level 4 activities

D: Participate least in Level 4 activities

ANSWER:

D: Participate least in Level 4 activities

253. The following is an example of an objective measure of physical activity:

A: SOPLAY

B: NOWAY

C: CISCO


ANSWER:A. SOPLAY

254. For overweight and obese individuals, to prevent weight regain once weight is lost:

A: 60 minutes of physical activity accumulated in as many sessions as possible

B: 30-60 minutes of physical activity is recommended per day

C: 60-90 minutes of physical activity is recommended per day

D: 90-120 minutes of physical activity is recommended per day

ANSWER:C: 60-90 minutes of physical activity is recommended per day

255 Oxygen deficit occurs. A: Only occurs at the beginning of an activity

B: Equals oxygen debt

C: When the aerobic system kicks in

D: When oxygen supply is less than oxygen demand

ANSWER:D : When oxygen supply is less than oxygen demand

256 EPOC allows for the following to occur:

A: Lactate to be converted to glycogen

B: Thermogenic regulation

C: Kreb’s cycle phosphorylation

D: All of the above

ANSWER:A: Lactate to be converted to glycogen

257. The aerobic energy system has the:

A: Greatest yield of ATP production

B: Highest rate of ATP production

C: Greatest reliance on ATP generation

D: Highest oxygen cost per mole of ATP

ANSWER:A: Greatest yield of ATP production

258. The fitness components are mainly reliant upon the:

A: ATP-PC energy system

B: LA energy system

C: Aerobic energy system

D: PC-ATP energy system

ANSWER:A: ATP-PC energy system

259. Maximal testing :

A: Is highly accurate

B: Involves a lengthy recovery period

C: Is conducted until physiological failure / fatigue

D: All of the above


260. Underload occurs when:

A: Overload is applied and then “backed off” a little bit later in the week

B: Training intensity is reduced leading up to competition

C: A workload becomes easier and fails to produce further improvements

D: Training become painful and recoveries take longer

ANSWER:C : A workload becomes easier and fails to produce further improvements

261. Swiss ball training is used to develop:A: Wrist extensors

B: Hip flexors

C: More stability

D: Core stability

ANSWER:D: Core stability

262. The energy system interplay is best described when:

A: The LIP is increased

B: ATP is released from the anaerobic energy systems and then the aerobic system kicks in

C: ATP is released from all 3 energy systems, but only when the previous one has run out

D: ATP is released from all 3 energy systems, but one contributing more than the other two systems

ANSWER:D: ATP is released from all 3 energy systems, but one contributing more than the other two systems

263. Once the lactate threshold is exceeded, the following occurs :

A: LIP remains above aerobic thresholds

B: ATP is resynthesised from available fuels

C: LIP cannot remove excess H+ ions

D: Most ATP resynthesis occurs as a result of anaerobic glycolysis

ANSWER:D: Most ATP resynthesis occurs as a result of anaerobic glycolysis

264. Steady state occurs when:

A: Respiratory levels equal ventilatory levels

B: Oxygen demand meets LIP

C: EPOC occurs during a warm-down

D: Oxygen supply is equal to oxygen demand

ANSWER:D: Oxygen supply is equal to oxygen demand

265. The most likely cause of fatigue for a 200m butterfly swimmer is:

A: Neuro muscular blocks

B: Depletion of fats

C: Accumulation of H+ ions

D: Depletion of NaCl ions

ANSWER:C: Accumulation of H+ ions

266. The following practice could potentially lead to injuries during training

A: Inappropriate choice of training methods

B: Allowing players to train whilst injured

C: Inadequate maintenance of equipment

D: All of the above


267. Keeping a training log ensures:

A: Goals can be reviewed and revised

B: Injuries can be linked to specific events or behaviours

C: Careful monitoring of training progressions

D: All of the above


268. Athletes take illegal performance enhancing drugs because:

A: They want to push the limits

B: A win: win mindset exists

C: They believe they can get away with it

D: Testing is random

ANSWER:C: They believe they can get away with it

269. Low GI foods are best consumed:

A: After each station in a circuit

B: Before a 2 hour endurance event

C: After a 2 hour endurance event

D: Before an event requiring quick release of ATP

ANSWER:B: Before a 2 hour endurance event

270. The purpose of conducting a games analysis is to:

A: Work out the important fitness components

B: Consider the interplay of energy systems during the activity

C: Decide on how to best prepare / train for the actual game

D: All of the above


271. The most appropriate fitness tests on offer are:

A: Reliable

B: Valid

C: Relevant

D: All of the above


272. The most specific test to assess the agility of a tennis player would be the:

A: Illinois Agility Run

B: Semo Agility Test

C: Harvard Twist Touch Test

D: Margarita Agility Run

ANSWER:B: Semo Agility Test

273. Males would be expected to score better on the vertical jump test than females because they:

A: Have greater cross sectional area in the quadriceps/hamstring regionB: Train more than femalesC: Possess greater ankle flexibility and can generate greater push off as a result of thisD: Play more football than girls and this is an action specific to the game

ANSWER:A: Have greater cross sectional area in the quadriceps/hamstring region

274. A training year can be broken down into smaller sections such as “pre-season”, “competition” and “off-season”. These are examples of”

A: Periodisation

B: Mesocycles

C: Microcycles

D: Tri-cycles

ANSWER:A: Periodisation

275. The recommended frequency for athletes seeking aerobic training improvements is:

A: 2 times / week

B: 3 times / week

C: 4-5 times / week

D: 7 times / week

ANSWER:C: 4-5 times / week

276. Any “plateau” during a training program indicates:

A: Training needs to taper

B: A period of adaptation

C: A rest period

D: A period of hyperplasia

ANSWER:B: A period of adaptation

277. The best example of circuit training listed below is:

A: Fixed load

B: Individual time

C: Individual load

D: Fixed time

ANSWER:C: Individual load

278. “Fartlek” training :

A: Heavily calls up fats

B: Mainly works the LA system

C: Is primarily aerobic based

D: Means “fart” play and adds variety to training

ANSWER:C : Is primarily aerobic based

279. When returning to injury following an injury it is important to:

A: Think positive

B: Conduct a functional assessment test

C: Place athletes under game conditions


ANSWER:B: Conduct a functional assessment test

280. Plyometrics can be overloaded by:

A: Increasing the number of reps by about 1/3

B: Increasing the number of repetitions up to 10%

C: Decreasing the intensity

D: Decreasing the rest in between activities

ANSWER:B: Increasing the number of repetitions up to 10%

281. In the following exercise prescription for resistance training ~ 4 x 8 x 80kg, the 8 represents:

A: Resistance

B: Sets

C: Repetitions

D: Rest

ANSWER:C: Repetitions

282. The following is most likely to result from participation in an aerobic training program lasting 12+ mths:

A: Increased oxygen production by the diaphragm

B: Increased respiratory quotient (RQ)

C: Decreased maximal heart rate

D: Decreased sub maximal heart rate

ANSWER:D: Decreased sub maximal heart rate

283. Increased myoglobin levels resulting from aerobic conditioning / training assists in:

A: Moving more oxygen from cell membranes to the mitochondria

B: Moving more oxygen from the lungs to the capillaries

C: Moving more oxygen from the alveolar capsules to the tribronchial sacs


ANSWER:A : Moving more oxygen from cell membranes to the mitochondria

284. An increased stroke volume will lead to n:

A: Increased cardiac output

B: Increased gaseous exchange

C: Increased arterial elasticity

D: Increased a-VO2 diff

ANSWER:A: Increased cardiac output

285. Cross training will allow:

A: A 5000m runner to become a good 100m sprinter

B: A 100m sprinter to become a good 5000m runner

C: A 1500m swimmer becoming a good springboard diver

D: A springboard diver becoming a good 1500m swimmer

ANSWER:B: A 100m sprinter to become a good 5000 runner

286. Short interval training will result in the following chronic changes to fast twitch muscle fibres:

A: Increased contraction speed

B: Increased contractile mitochondria

C: Increased w:r ratio

D: Increased fatigue resistance

ANSWER:A: Increased contraction speed

287. To determine the effectiveness of intervention programs it is important to:

A: Conduct pre-intervention and post-intervention tests

B: Conduct surveys after the intervention has been in place

C: Use appropriate PA measures

D: Measure objectives and perceived benefits

ANSWER:A: Conduct pre-intervention and post-intervention tests

288. Choking can best be overcome by:

A: Stress inoculation training

B: Shifting focus from external to internal stimuli

C: Positive self-talk

D: All of the above


289. Reactivity considers how much:

A: A behaviour is changed due to an assessment being undertaken

B: Someone’s personal space is affected

C: Contextual change results from observation


ANSWER:

A: A behaviour is changed due to an assessment being undertaken

290. The amount of physical activity occurring in a sport education class would best be measured by using:

A: SAID

B: SOSPORT

C: SOPLAY

D: SOFIT

ANSWER:D: Sofit

291. The most effective way of monitoring training responses is to:

A: Keep a training log

B: Use doubly labelled water

C: Conduct post-tests

D: Validate the training protocol

ANSWER:A: Keep a training log

292. Relapse is best described as:

A: Receding during action stage

B: Stage 4 in the Transtheoretical model

C: Losing self-efficacy

D: Moving back to another stage

ANSWER:D: Moving back to another stage

293. Coaches might contribute to risks associated with the team they are training by:

A: Not listening to the assistant coach(es)

B: A Encouraging players to play with “niggling injuries” for the benefit of the team

C: Dividing team players into positional plays

D: Forcing players to take pain killers

ANSWER:B: A Encouraging players to play with “niggling injuries” for the benefit of the team

294. Risk management procedures extend beyond team management to facilities and equipment. The following must be taken into consideration in this area:

A: Providing mentors for players when away from the sporting arena

B: Minimising the risk of the club being sued

C: Care of spectators

D: All of the above


295. The following is a practical example of how AFL football teams try to prevent injuries

A: Random drug testing

B: Greater emphasis on strengthening hamstring muscles during training to avoid knee injuries

C: Mandatory 1 game breaks following concussion

D: All of the above

ANSWER:D : All of the above

296. Community setting based programs:

A: Increase access to affordable exercise/recreational facilities

B: Encourage physical activity

C: Support physical activity media campaigns

D: All of the above


297. The following drink allows quickest absorption and hydration:

A: Hypotonic

B: Hypertonic

C: Hyperchloric

D: Gatorade

ANSWER:A: Hypotonic

298. Dehydration will cause fatigue by:

A: Increasing blood pressure

B: Increasing heart rates

C: Redistributing blood away from working muscles

D: All of the above


299. EPO is often taken by endurance athletes despite being banned by WADA. Side-effects include:

A: Blood borne disease transmission

B: Air embolism (bubbles)

C: Increased blood pressure

D: All of the above

ANSWER:C:

Documents

Malpeli Revision