NEET-II BOOSTER COURSE · 2016-07-09 · H-2/35 1001CM370715007 Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/09-07-2016 6. A ray of light making an angle 10° with the horizontal is incident

Form Number :

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)

Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

+91-744-5156100 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seatonly. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examinationand shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

izR;sd fo|kFkhZ dk jftLVªs'ku ua- ds vuqlkj LFkku fu;r gS rFkk os vius fu;r LFkku ij gh cSBsaA ;fn dksbZ fo|kFkhZ fdlh nwljs fo|kFkhZ ds LFkku

ij cSBk ik;k x;k rks nksuksa fo|kfFkZ;ksa dks ijh{kk d{k ls ckgj dj fn;k tk,xk vkSj nksuksa dks dksbZ vU; tqekZuk Hkh Lohdk;Z gksxkA2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

ijh{kk dh vof/k 3 ?k.Vs gS rFkk iz'u i= esa 180 iz'u gSaA vf/kdre vad 720 gSaA3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

fo|kFkhZ ijh{kk d{k esa yksx Vscy] dsYdwysVj ;k fdlh vU; lkexzh dk mi;ksx ugha dj ldrk gSA4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

ijh{kk ds le; fo|kFkhZ dks ifjoh{kd }kjk fn;s x;s funsZ'kksa dh ikyuk djuk vko';d gSA5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

iz'u i= gy djus ls igys fo|kFkhZ vk'oLr gks tk, fd blesa lHkh ist layXu gSa vFkok ughaA6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds 4 vad gSaA izR;sd xyr mÙkj ij 1 vad dkV fy;k tk,xkA mÙkj dks vuqeku ls Hkjuk gkfudkjd gks ldrk gSA7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball

Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

ijh{kkFkhZ dks gy fd;s x;s iz'u dk mÙkj OMR mÙkj iqfLrdk esa lgh LFkku ij dsoy uhys @ dkys ckWy ikWbUV isu ds }kjk mfpr xksys dks xgjk

djds nsuk gSA8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

isfUly dk iz;ksx loZFkk oftZr gSA

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in NEET-II 2016

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do sobl ijh{kk iqfLrdk dks tc rd uk [kksys a tc rd dgk u tk,sA

Important Instructions / egRoiw.kZ funsZ'k

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Papercode and Your Form No.uksV% ;fn bl iz'u i= esa dksbZ Correction gks rk s Ïi;k Paper code ,oa vkids Form No. ds lkFk 2 fnu ds [email protected] ij mail djsaA

Test Type : PART TEST # 07 Test Pattern : NEET

TEST DATE : 09 - 07 - 2016

Paper Code : 1001CM370715007

Hin

di

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL - 2016

NEET-II BOOSTER COURSE

H-1/351001CM370715007

Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/09-07-2016

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. A transverse wave is described by the equation

0

xy y sin 2 ft

. The maximum particle

velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if :-

(1)0y

4

(2)

0y

2

(3) y0 (4) y0

2. The equation of a stationary wave is

xy 0.8cos sin 200 t

20

where x is in cm and t is in sec. The separtion

between consecutive nodes will be :-

(1) 20 cm (2) 10 cm

(3) 40 cm (4) 30 cm

3. Figure shows the wave y = Asin(t – kx).What

is the magnitude of slope of the curved at B :-

O B x

y

(1) A

(2)

K

A(3) KA (4) A

4. Two closed organ pipes of length 100 cm and

101 cm long give 16 beats in 20 sec when each

pipe is sounded in fundamental mode. Calculate

velocity of sound :-

(1) 303 ms–1 (2) 332 ms–1

(3) 323 ms–1 (4) 300 ms-1

5. Two plane mirrors M1 and M2 have a length of

20 m each and are 10 cm apart. A ray of light is

incident on one end of mirror M2 at an angle of

53°. The number of reflections light undergoes

before reaching the other end is

10 cm

20 m M1

53°

M2

(1) 170 (2) 100 (3) 150 (4) 200

1. 0

xy y sin 2 ft

:-

(1)0y

4

(2)

0y

2

(3) y0

(4) y0

2.

xy 0.8cos sin 200 t

20

x cm t sec. :-(1) 20 cm (2) 10 cm

(3) 40 cm (4) 30 cm

3. y = Asin(t – kx) B :-

O B x

y

(1) A

(2)

K

A(3) KA (4) A

4. 100 cm 101 cm 20 sec 16 :-(1) 303 ms–1 (2) 332 ms–1

(3) 323 ms–1 (4) 300 ms-1

5. M1 M

2 20 m

10 cm M2

53°

10 cm

20 m M1

53°

M2

(1) 170 (2) 100 (3) 150 (4) 200

H-2/35 1001CM370715007


6. A ray of light making an angle 10° with the

horizontal is incident on a plane mirror making

a angle with the horizontal. What should be the

value of so that the reflected ray goes vertically

upwards :-

(1) 20° (2) 30° (3) 40° (4) 45°

7. A spherical mirror forms an erect image three

times the linear size of the object. If the distance

between the object and the image is 80 cm, the

focal length of the mirror is :-

(1) 15 cm (2) 25 cm (3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm

8. The critical angle for total internal reflection of

light going from medium I to medium II is given

by the relation tan C

5i

9 . The refractive index of

the medium I with respect to the medium II is :-

(1) 1.8 (2) 1.6 (3) 156

5 (4)

106

5

9. A beaker containing liquid is placed on a table,

underneath a microscope which can be moved

along a vertical scale. The microscope is focused,

through the liquid onto a mark on the table when

the reading on the scale is a.

012

M(Mark)

It is next focused on the upper surface of the liquid

and the reading is b. More liquid is added and the

observations are repeated, the corresponding

readings are c and d. The refractive index of the

liquid is :-

(1) b d

d c b a

(2)

b d

d c b a

(3) d –c – b a

d b

(4) d – b

a b c d

6. ° 10° :-(1) 20° (2) 30°

(3) 40° (4) 45°

7. 80 cm (1) 15 cm (2) 25 cm

(3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm

8. I II

tan C

5i

9 I

II :-(1) 1.8 (2) 1.6

(3) 156

5(4)

106

5

9. 'a' 'b' 'c' 'd'

012

M(Mark)

(1) b d

d c b a

(2)

b d

d c b a

(3) d –c – b a

d b

(4) d – b

a b c d

H-3/351001CM370715007


10. In the given figure, at water air interface, light ray

incident at critical angle then the value of µg is :-

i

n

water

glass

air

µ = 4/3w

µg

(1) 3

4sin i (2) 1

sin i

(3) 4

3sin i (4) None of these

11. What will be the minimum angle of incidence such

that the total internal reflection takes place from

both the surface?

iµ = 22

µ = 33

µ = 21

(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 75°

12. The cross-section of a prism (µ = 1.5) is an

equilateral triangle. A ray of light is incident

perpendicular on one of the faces. The angle of

deviation of the ray is :-

(1) 60° (2) 120°

(3) 90° (4) 20°

13. Calculate the dispersive power for crown glass

from the given data if µv = 1.5230 and µ

r = 1.5145.

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 0.0164 (4) 2.5

14. An object is placed at a distance m times the focal

length of a divergent lens. The size of the image

is shorter than that of the object by :-

(1) m times

(2) (m + 1) times

(3) (m – 1) times

(4) m2 times

10. µg :-

i

n

water

glass

air

µ = 4/3w

µg

(1) 3

4sin i (2) 1

sin i

(3) 4

3sin i (4)

11. i

iµ = 22

µ = 33

µ = 21

(1) 30° (2) 45°

(3) 60° (4) 75°

12. (µ = 1.5) :-(1) 60° (2) 120°

(3) 90° (4) 20°

13. µv = 1.5230

µr = 1.5145

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 0.0164 (4) 2.5

14. m (1) m (2) (m + 1) (3) (m – 1) (4) m2

H-4/35 1001CM370715007


15. Two planoconvex lenses each of focal length

10 cm and refractive index 3/2 are placed as

shown. In the space left, water (R.I = 4/3) is filled.

The whole arrangement is in air. The optical

power of the system is (in diopters)

(1) 6.67 (2) –6.67 (3) 33.3 (4) 20

16. A planoconvex lens, when silvered at its plane

surface is equivalent to a concave mirror of focal

length 28 cm. When its curved surface is silvered

and the plane surface is not silvered, it is

equivalent to a concave mirror of focal length

10 cm, then the refractive index of the material

of the lens is :-

(1) 9

14(2)

14

9

(3) 17

9(4) None of these

17. Electric conduction in a semiconductor takes place

due to :–

(1) electrons only

(2) holes only

(3) both electrons and holes

(4) neither electrons nor holes

18. In sample of pure silicon, 1013 atom/cm3 is mixed

of phosphorus. If all donor atoms are active then

what will be resistivity at 200C if mobility of

electron is 1200 cm2/volt-s ?

(1) 0.5209 ohm cm (2) 5.209 ohm cm

(3) 52.09 ohm cm (4) 520.9 ohm cm

19. A 2V battery forward biases a diode. There is a drop

of 0.5 V across the diode which is independent of

current. Also a current greater then 10 mA produces

large joule heat and damages diode. If diode is to be

operated at 5 mA, the series resistance to be put is:–

2V

R

(1) 3k (2) 300 k

(3) 300 (4) 200 k

15. 10 cm 3/2 4/3)

(1) 6.67 (2) –6.67 (3) 33.3 (4) 20

16. 28 cm 10 cm :-

(1) 9

14(2)

14

9

(3) 17

9(4)

17. :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18. 1013

3200C 1200 2/ :–(1) 0.5209 (2) 5.209 (3) 52.09 (4) 520.9

19. 2 V,0.5 V 10 mA 5 mA

2V

R

(1) 3k (2) 300 k

(3) 300 (4) 200 k

H-5/351001CM370715007


20. Current I in the circuit will be :–

20

20

30

5V

I

(1) 5

40A (2)

5

50A

(3) 5

10A (4)

5

20A

21. The temperature at which root mean square speed

of a gas will be half of its value at 0°C is :-

(1) –86.4°C (2) –204.75°C

(3) –104.75°C (4) –68.25°C

22. A gas is found to obey the law P2V = constant.

The initial temperature and volume are T0 and V

0.

If the gas expands to a volume 3V0, its final

temperature becomes :-

(1) 0T

3(2)

0T

3

(3) 3T0

(4) 03T

23. The adjoining figure shows graphs of pressure and

volume of a gas at two temperatures T1 and T

2.

Which of the following is correct ?

T1

T2

P

V

(1) T1 > T

2(2) T

1 = T

2

(3) T1 < T

2(4) None

24. The specific heat of the mixture of two gases at

constant volume is 13

R.6

The ratio of number of

moles of first gas to second is 1 : 2. The respective

gases may be :-

(1) O2, N

2(2) He, Ne

(3) He, N2

(4) N2, He

20. I :–

20

20

30

5V

I

(1) 5

40A (2)

5

50A

(3) 5

10A (4)

5

20A

21. 0°C

(1) –86.4°C (2) –204.75°C

(3) –104.75°C (4) –68.25°C

22. P2V = T

0 V

0

3V0

:-

(1) 0T

3(2)

0T

3

(3) 3T0

(4) 03T

23. T

1 T

2

T1

T2

P

V

(1) T1 > T

2(2) T

1 = T

2

(3) T1 < T

2(4) None

24.

13R

61 :

2 :-

(1) O2, N

2(2) He, Ne

(3) He, N2

(4) N2, He

H-6/35 1001CM370715007


25. Six moles of an ideal gas performs a cycle shown

in figure. If the temperatures are TA = 600 K,

TB = 800 K, T

C = 2200 K and T

D = 1200 K, then

the work done per cycle is approximately :-

B

A D

C

P

T

(1) 20 KJ (2) 30 KJ (3) 40 KJ (4) 60 KJ

26. A carnot engine is made to work between 200°C

and 0°C first and then between 0°C and –200°C.

The ratio of efficiencies 2

1

of the engine in two

cases is :-

(1) 1 : 1.5 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1.73 : 1

27. One mole of a monoatomic gas is carried along

process ABCDEA as shown in diagram. Find the

net work done by gas :-

1 2 3

1

2

4

D E

A

B CP(N/m )2

V(m )3

(1) 3

J2

(2) 1J (3) 1

J2

(4) 0 J

28. Water falls from height 500 m. The rise in

temperature of water at bottom if whole of energy

remains in water, will be [sp. heat of water

4.2 KJ/kg]

(1) 0.23°C (2) 1.16°C (3) 27°C (4) 1.02 °C

29. One kilogram of ice at 0°C is mixed with one

kilogram of water at 80°C. Temperature of mixture

is (specific heat of water = 4200 J kg–1 K–1 and latent

heat of ice = 336 KJ kg–1)

(1) 40°C (2) 60°C (3) 0°C (4) 50°C

30. The temperature of body is increased from 27°C

to 127°C the radiation emitted by it increases by

a factor of :-

(1) 256

81(2)

15

9(3)

4

5(4)

12

27

25. T

A = 600 K, T

B = 800

K, TC = 2200 K T

D = 1200 K

:-

B

A D

C

P

T

(1) 20 KJ (2) 30 KJ (3) 40 KJ (4) 60 KJ

26. 200°C 0°C 0°C –200°C

2

1

:-(1) 1 : 1.5 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1.73 : 1

27. 1 ABCDEA :-

1 2 3

1

2

4

D E

A

B CP(N/m )2

V(m )3

(1) 3

J2

(2) 1J (3) 1

J2

(4) 0 J

28. 500 [= 4.2 KJ/kg]

(1) 0.23°C (2) 1.16°C

(3) 27°C (4) 1.02 °C

29. 0°C 1 kg 80°C 1 kg = 4200 J kg–1 K–1 = 336 KJ kg–1)

(1) 40°C (2) 60°C (3) 0°C (4) 50°C

30. 27°C 127°C

(1) 256

81(2)

15

9(3)

4

5(4)

12

27

H-7/351001CM370715007


31. Thermal capacity of a body depends on :-

(1) Heat given

(2) The temperature raised

(3) The mass of body

(4) None

32. Three rods of same dimensions have thermal

conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged

as shown with their ends at 100°C, 50°C and 0°C.

Temperature of junction is :-

3K

2K

50°K

0°C

100°CK

(1) 75°C (2) 200

3°C

(3) 40°C (4) 100

3°C

33. A beaker full of hot water is kept in a room. If

it cools from 80°C to 75°C in t1 minutes, from

75°C to 70°C in t2 minutes and from 70°C to 65°C

in t3 minutes then :-

(1) t1 = t

2t3

(2) t1 < t

2 = t

3

(3) t1 < t

2 < t

3(4) t

1 > t

2 > t

3

34. The following four wires are made of the same

material. Which of these will have the largest

extension when the same tension is applied ?

(1) Length 50 cm and diameter 0.5 mm

(2) Length 100 cm and diameter 1 mm



35. A fixed volume of iron is drawn into a wire of

length . The extension produced in this wire by

a constant force F is proportional to :–

(1) 2

1

(2)

1

(3) 2 (4)

36. The length of needle floating on the surface of

water is 1.5 cm. The force in addition to its weight

required to lift the needle from water surface will

be (surface tension of water = 7.5 N/cm) :–

(1) 22.5 N (2) 2.25 N

(3) 0.25 N (4) 225 N

31. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

32. 3K, 2K

K 100°C, 50°C 0°C

3K

2K

50°K

0°C

100°CK

(1) 75°C (2) 200

3°C

(3) 40°C (4) 100

3°C

33. 80°C 75°C t

1 75°C 70°Ct

2

70°C 65°C t3

:-(1) t

1 = t

2t3

(2) t1 < t

2 = t

3

(3) t1 < t

2 < t

3(4) t

1 > t

2 > t

3

34. (1) 50 0.5 (2) 100 1 (3) 200 2 (4) 300 3

35. F :–

(1) 2

1

(2)

1

(3) 2 (4)

36. 1.5 7.5 N/cm (1) 22.5 (2) 2.25 (3) 0.25 (4) 225

H-8/35 1001CM370715007


37. The radius of a soap bubble is r. The surface

tension of soap solution is T. Keeping temperature

constant, the radius of the soap bubble is doubled,

the energy necessary for this will be :–

(1) 24 r2 T (2) 8 r2 T

(3) 12 r2 T (4) 16 r2 T

38. Water rises in a capillary upto a height h. If this

capillary is tilted by an angle of 45°, then the length

of the water column in the capillary becomes :–

(1) 2h (2) h

2(3)

h

2(4) h 2

39. A copper ball of radius 'r' travels with a uniform

speed 'v' in a viscous fluid. If the ball is changed

with another ball of radius '2r', then new uniform

speed will be :–

(1) v (2) 2v (3) 4v (4) 8v

40. A cubical block of side 'a' and

density '' slides over a fixed

inclined plane with constant

velocity 'v'. There is a thin

film of viscous fluid of

thickness 't' between the plane and the block. Then

the coefficient of viscosity of the thin film will be:

(1) agtsin

v

(2)

agt cos

v

(3) v

agtsin (4) None of these

41. A liquid flows through a horizontal tube. The

velocities of the liquid in the two sections which

have areas of cross–section A1 and A

2 are v

1 and

v2 respectively. The difference in the levels of the

liquid in the two vertical tubes is h. The incorrect

statement is :-

A1 v1

h

A2v2

(1) The volume of the liquid flowing through the

tube in unit time is A1v

1

(2) 2 1v v 2gh

(3) 2 22 1v v 2gh

(4) The energy per unit mass of the liquid is the

same in both sections of the tube.

37. r T :–(1) 24 r2 T (2) 8 r2 T

(3) 12 r2 T (4) 16 r2 T

38. h 45° :–

(1) 2h (2) h

2(3)

h

2(4) h 2

39. 'r''v' '2r' , :–(1) v (2) 2v (3) 4v (4) 8v

40. a

vt

(1) agtsin

v

(2)

agt cos

v

(3) v

agtsin (4)

41. A1 A2 v1 v2 h

A1 v1

h

A2v2

(1) A1v1

(2) 2 1v v 2gh

(3) 2 22 1v v 2gh

(4)

H-9/351001CM370715007


42. A heavy spherical ball is dropped near surface in

a long column of viscous liquid. Which of the

following graphs represent the variation of :–

(i) Gravitational force with time

(ii) Viscous force with time

(iii) Net force acting on the ball with time

PQ

R

F

O t

(1) Q, R, P (2) R, Q, P

(3) P, Q, R (4) R, P, Q

43. Two vessels A and B have the same base area and

contain water to the same height, but the mass of water

in A is four times that in B. The ratio of the liquid

thrust at the base of A to that at the base of B is :–

B

(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1

(3) 1 : 1 (4) 16 : 1

44. When a large bubble rises from the bottom of a

lake to the surface, its radius doubles. If

atmospheric pressure is equal to that of column

of water height H, then the depth of lake is :–

(1) H (2) 2H

(3) 7H (4) 8H

45. A boat having a length of 3 metre and breadth

2 metre is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by one

cm when a man gets on it. Mass of the man is

(1) 60 kg (2) 62 kg

(3) 72 kg (4) 128 kg

42.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

PQ

R

F

O t

(1) Q, R, P (2) R, Q, P

(3) P, Q, R (4) R, P, Q

43. A B A BA B :–

B

(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1

(3) 1 : 1 (4) 16 : 1

44. H :–

(1) H (2) 2H

(3) 7H (4) 8H

45.

:–

(1) 60 (2) 62 (3) 72 (4) 128

H-10/35 1001CM370715007


46. When a chemical bond is formed, there is

decrease in :-

(1) kinetic energy (2) potential energy

(3) repulsive force (4) attractive force

47. Match list I with list II and select the correct

answer :-

2

2

2

3

(A) NO 1 180

(B) NO 2 132

(C) NO 3 120

(D) NO 4 115

5 109

List IIList I

(species) O -N -O angle

A B C D

(1) 5 4 3 2

(2) 5 2 4 3

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 4 3 2

48. The correct order of the O–O bond length in O2,

H2O

2 and O

3 is :-

(1) O2 > O3 > H2O2

(2) O3 > H2O2 > O2

(3) O2 > H2O2 > O3

(4) H2O

2 > O

3 > O

2

49. The molecule having highest bond energy is :-

(1) N–N (2) F–F

(3) C–C (4) O–O

50. The hydrogen bond is not present in :-

(1) phenol

(2) liquid HCl

(3) water

(4) liquid NH3

51. Which pair is different from the others :-

(1) Li–Mg (2) B–Si

(3) Be–Al (4) Li–Na

52. Which is amphoteric oxides ?

(1) BeO (2) SnO

(3) ZnO (4) all of these

53. Which of the following statements is incorrect :-

(1) Bi5+ salts do not exist

(2) Pb4+ salts are good oxidising agents

(3) Sn4+ salts are good oxidising agents

(4) T+ salts are good oxidising agents

46. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

47. I II :-

2

2

2

3

(A) NO 1 180

(B) NO 2 132

(C) NO 3 120

(D) NO 4 115

5 109

List IIList I

(species) O-N -O

A B C D

(1) 5 4 3 2

(2) 5 2 4 3

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 4 3 2

48. O2, H2O2 O3 O–O :-(1) O

2 > O3 > H2O2

(2) O3 > H

2O

2 > O

2

(3) O2 > H2O2 > O3

(4) H2O

2 > O

3 > O

2

49. :-(1) N–N (2) F–F

(3) C–C (4) O–O

50. :-(1) (2) HCl (3) (4) NH

3 51. :-

(1) Li–Mg (2) B–Si

(3) Be–Al (4) Li–Na

52. (1) BeO (2) SnO

(3) ZnO (4) 53. :-

(1) Bi5+ (2) Pb4+ (3) Sn4+ (4) T+

H-11/351001CM370715007


54. Which of the following has peroxy linkage ?

(1) H2S

2O

3(2) H

2SO

5

(3) H2S2O7 (4) H2S4O6

55. Which reactions can be used to prepare diborane :-

I. NaBH4 + BF3 (in ether)

II. NaBH4 + I

2

III. BF3 + NaH

(1) I, III (2) I, II

(3) II, III (4) I, II and III

56. Na2B

4O

7 . 10H

2O

NaBO2 + (A) + H

2O

(A) + MnO (B), (A) and (B) are :-

(1) Na3BO

3, Mn

3(BO

3)

2

(2) Na2(BO2)2, Mn(BO2)2

(3) B2O

3, Mn(BO

2)

2

(4) none is correct

57. Percentage of lead in lead pencil is :-

(1) zero (2) 20 (3) 80 (4) 70

58. Which reaction is not feasible ?

(1) 2KI + Br2 2KBr + I

2

(2) 2KBr + I2 2KI + Br2

(3) 2KBr + Cl2 2KCl + Br

2

(4) 2H2O + 2F2 4HF + O2

59. The oxide which forms dimer is :-

(1) N2O5 (2) N2O

(3) NO2 (4) N2O3

60. Select the correct order :-

(1) B < C < N < O – 'IP'

(2) B < C < N < O – EN

(3) B < C < N < O – Size

(4) B < C < N < O – EA

61. In the preparation of sulphuric acid, V2O

5 is used

in the reaction which is :-

(1) S + O2 SO2

(2) SO2 + H

2O H

2SO

4

(3) 2SO2 + O2 2SO3

(4) none of these

62. Fluorine reacts with water to produce :-

(1) HF + O2 + O

3

(2) HF + O2

(3) HF + OF2

(4) HF + O3

63. HNO3 + P4O10 4HPO3 + X . X is :-

(1) N2O5 (2) NO2

(3) NO (4) N2O3

64. Which cannot be used to generate H2 ?

(1) Al + NaOH (2) Zn + NaOH

(3) Mg + NaOH (4) LiH + H2O

54. (1) H2S2O3 (2) H2SO5

(3) H2S

2O

7(4) H

2S

4O

6

55. :-I. NaBH

4 + BF

3 ()

II. NaBH4 + I

2

III. BF3 + NaH

(1) I, III (2) I, II

(3) II, III (4) I, II III

56. Na2B

4O

7 . 10H

2O

NaBO2 + (A) + H

2O

(A) + MnO (B), (A) (B) :-

(1) Na3BO

3, Mn

3(BO

3)

2

(2) Na2(BO

2)2, Mn(BO

2)

2

(3) B2O3, Mn(BO2)2

(4) 57. :-

(1) (2) 20 (3) 80 (4) 70

58. (1) 2KI + Br

2 2KBr + I

2

(2) 2KBr + I2 2KI + Br2

(3) 2KBr + Cl2 2KCl + Br2

(4) 2H2O + 2F2 4HF + O2

59. :-(1) N2O5 (2) N2O

(3) NO2(4) N

2O

3

60. :-(1) B < C < N < O – 'IP'

(2) B < C < N < O – EN

(3) B < C < N < O – (4) B < C < N < O – EA

61. V2O

5

:-(1) S + O

2 SO

2

(2) SO2 + H2O H2SO4

(3) 2SO2 + O

2 2SO

3

(4) 62. :-

(1) HF + O2 + O

3

(2) HF + O2

(3) HF + OF2

(4) HF + O3

63. HNO3 + P4O10 4HPO3 + X . X :-(1) N

2O

5(2) NO

2

(3) NO (4) N2O

3

64. 'H2'

(1) Al + NaOH (2) Zn + NaOH

(3) Mg + NaOH (4) LiH + H2O

H-12/35 1001CM370715007


65.

NH2

CH –C–Cl3

O

XBr2

AlBr2Y

( )

H O3

Z; Z

(1)

Br

NH2

(2)

Br

OH

(3)

Br

C–NH2

=

O

(4)

Br

NH2

BrBr

66. :-

(1) C–Cl

O

(2) C–O–C H2 5

O

(3) C–O–C

O O

(4) C–NH2

O

67. :-

(1) CH3–CH=CH

2 3H O

(2) CH3–CH=O 3

2

(1) CH MgBr

(2) H O

(3) CH3–CH=CH

2 3

2 2

(1) BH ,THF

(2) H O / OH(aq.)

(4) None

68. :-

(1) C H –C–Cl6 5

OH +Pd2

BaSO4

()

(2) C6H5CH=O 50% KOH ()

(3) C6H

5–CH

3 3 2

2

(1) CrO in (AC) O

(2) H O / H ()

(4) C6H5NH2+CHCl3

KOH ()

65.

NH2

CH –C–Cl3

O

XBr2

AlBr2Y

(major)

H O3

Z; Z is

(1)

Br

NH2

(2)

Br

OH

(3)

Br

C–NH2

=

O

(4)

Br

NH2

BrBr

66. Which of the following compound does not give

alcohol on reduction :-

(1) C–Cl

O

(2) C–O–C H2 5

O

(3) C–O–C

O O

(4) C–NH2

O

67. Primary alcohol is mainly formed in :-

(1) CH3–CH=CH

2 3H O

(2) CH3–CH=O 3

2

(1) CH MgBr

(2) H O

(3) CH3–CH=CH

2 3

2 2

(1) BH ,THF

(2) H O / OH(aq.)

(4) None

68. Which of the following is not correctly matched :-

(1) C H –C–Cl6 5

OH +Pd2

BaSO4

(Rosenmund's reduction)

(2) C6H5CH=O 50% KOH (Cannizzaro's reaction)

(3) C6H

5–CH

3 3 2

2

(1) CrO in (AC) O

(2) H O / H (Etard reaction)

(4) C6H

5NH

2+CHCl

3 KOH (Hofmann's

carbylamine reaction)

H-13/351001CM370715007


69. CH –CH –C–NH3 2 2

OBr2

KOH(aq)X

C H –C–Cl6 5

O

Y

:-(1) X (2) Y (3) Y X (4)

70. :-(1) Sucrose : -D-Glucose and -D-Fructose

(2) Bakelite : Formaldehyde and phenol

(3) Lactose : -D-glucose and -D-galactose

(4) PHBV : -Hydroxy butyrate and

-Hydroxy valerate

71. CH=O+CH –CH –CH=O3 2

OH(aq.) Product

:-

(1) CH=CH–CH –CH=O2

(2) CH –CH –CH=C–CH=O3 2

CH3

(3) CH=C–CH=O

CH3

(4) All

72. :-(1) Tollen's reagent (2) NaHCO3

(3) Litmus test (4) Na

73. (1) -2 Nylon-6 : (2) Decron : (3) BuNa–S : (4) Bakelite :

74.

CH=O

(CH–OH)4

CH –OH2

2 2Br / H O P ; P :-

(1)

COOH

(CH–OH)4

CH –OH2

(2)

CH=O

(CH–OH)4

COOH

(3)

CH=O

(CH–OH)4

CH=O

(4)

COOH

(CH–OH)4

COOH

69. CH –CH –C–NH3 2 2

OBr2

KOH(aq)X

C H –C–Cl6 5

O

Y

Which statement is true :-

(1) Formation of X is Hofmann degradation

(2) Formation of Y is shotten Baummann reaction

(3) X is more basic than Y

(4) All

70. Incorrect match is :-

(1) Sucrose : -D-Glucose and -D-Fructose

(2) Bakelite : Formaldehyde and phenol

(3) Lactose : -D-glucose and -D-galactose

(4) PHBV : -Hydroxy butyrate and

-Hydroxy valerate

71. CH=O+CH –CH –CH=O3 2

OH(aq.) Product

Product which is not expected to be formed is :-

(1) CH=CH–CH –CH=O2

(2) CH –CH –CH=C–CH=O3 2

CH3

(3) CH=C–CH=O

CH3

(4) All

72. Formic acid and acetic acid can be distinguished

by :-

(1) Tollen's reagent (2) NaHCO3

(3) Litmus test (4) Na

73. Which of the following is not true :-

(1) Nylon-2 Nylon-6 : Biodegradable polymer

(2) Decron : Polyester

(3) BuNa–S : Elastomer

(4) Bakelite : Addition polymer

74.

CH=O

(CH–OH)4

CH –OH2

2 2Br / H O P ; P is :-

(1)

COOH

(CH–OH)4

CH –OH2

(2)

CH=O

(CH–OH)4

COOH

(3)

CH=O

(CH–OH)4

CH=O

(4)

COOH

(CH–OH)4

COOH

H-14/35 1001CM370715007


75.NO2

4

Zn

NH Cl :-

(1)N=O

(2) NH–OH

(3)NH2

(4) (1) (2)

76. :-

(1) Lysin (2) Arginine

(3) Histidine (4) Glycine

77.

OH

+ (H–CN+HCl) 2

2

(1) ZnCl

(2) H OX ; X :-

(1)

OH

CN

(2)

OH

Cl

(3)

OH

CH=O

(4)

OH

COOH

78. OHNa

XCH –CH –Cl3 2 Y ; Y :-

(1) O–CH –CH2 3 (2) OH

C H2 5

(3) OHCH –CH3 2 (4) CH –CH2 3

79. 6, 6 :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

80. SN1

(1)Cl

(2) ClO

(3)Cl

(4) (CH3)3C–Cl

75.NO2

4

Zn

NH Cl Product is :-

(1)N=O

(2) NH–OH

(3)NH2

(4) (1) & (2) both

76. Which of the following basic amino acid is least

basic:-

(1) Lysin (2) Arginine

(3) Histidine (4) Glycine

77.

OH

+ (H–CN+HCl) 2

2

(1) ZnCl

(2) H OX ; X is :-

(1)

OH

CN

(2)

OH

Cl

(3)

OH

CH=O

(4)

OH

COOH

78. OHNa

XCH –CH –Cl3 2 Y ; Y is :-

(1) O–CH –CH2 3 (2) OH

C H2 5

(3) OHCH –CH3 2 (4) CH –CH2 3

79. Nylon 6, 6 is :-

(1) Copolymer (2) Fiber

(3) Step growth polymer(4) All

80. Most reactive for SN1 reaction is :-

(1)Cl

(2) ClO

(3)Cl

(4) (CH3)3C–Cl

H-15/351001CM370715007


81. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 82.

(1) H (2) H

(3)

Cl

Cl (4) 1 2

83. (1) (2) (3) (4)

84. NH2

..

(I)

..

(II) (III)

N

HH

(IV)

NNH

(1) I, II & IV

(2) II, III & IV

(3) I, II, III

(4) 85.

(1)

CH2

(2)

CH

(3)

(4)

81. Correct statement is :-

(1) Aniline is more soluble in water as compared

to methylamine

(2) Ethylamine is more souluble in water than

ethanol

(3) Chlorobenzene has more dipole moment than

cyclohexyl chloride

(4) All

82. Which of the following form has cis-trans

isomerism and chiral center both.

(1) H (2) H

(3)

Cl

Cl (4) 1 & 2 both

83. Diborane reacts with terminal alkenes to form

trialkylboranes. These react with alkaline

hydrogen peroxide to form.

(1) Primary alcohol

(2) Secondary alcohol

(3) Tertiary alcohol

(4) Isobutyl alcohol

84. Which of the following is aromatic compound.

NH2

..

(I)

..

(II) (III)

N

HH

(IV)

NNH

(1) I, II & IV

(2) II, III & IV

(3) I, II, III

(4) All compounds are aromatic

85. Which of the following has hyperconjugation

effect :-

(1)

CH2

(2)

CH

(3)

(4) None of these

H-16/35 1001CM370715007


86.

(A) (B) 2-(C) 2,2-(1) A > B > C (2) A > C > B

(3) C > B > A (4) C > A > B

87.

Pd/BaSO4

Na/Liq. NH3

A

B

R–C C–R

(1) (A) (B)

(2) (A) > (B)

(3) (A) < (B)

(4) (A) > (B)

88.

(1) CH CHHg H O

+2/ 3

333K

(2) CH –C CH3 Hg /H O

+2

3

333K

(3) CH –C C–CH3 3Hg /H O

+2

3

333K

(4) 1 & 2 both

89.

(1)

NH2

..

(2)

O–C–R..

O

(3)

C N..

(4)

Cl..

90.

HBr

NBS

A

B

C

CH –CH–CH=CH3 2

CH3

HBr+ROOR

(1) A C 3º (2) A C (3) A B (4) B C

86. Arrange following alkanes in order of their

boiling points :-

(A) Pentane

(B) 2-Methyl butane

(C) 2,2-Dimethyl propane

(1) A > B > C (2) A > C > B

(3) C > B > A (4) C > A > B

87.

Pd/BaSO4

Na/Liq. NH3

A

B

R–C C–R

Identify wrong statement :-

(1) (A) (B)

(2) Boiling point (A) > boiling point (B)

(3) Stability (A) < stability (B)

(4) Melting point (A) > melting point (B)88. Which of the following reaction forms aldehyde

as a product :-

(1) CH CHHg H O

+2/ 3

333K

(2) CH –C CH3 Hg /H O

+2

3

333K

(3) CH –C C–CH3 3Hg /H O

+2

3

333K

(4) 1 & 2 both

89. Which of the following is wrong representation:-

(1)

NH2

..

(2)

O–C–R..

O

(3)

C N

(4)

Cl..

90.

HBr

NBS

A

B

C

CH –CH–CH=CH3 2

CH3

HBr+ROOR

Identify wrong statement :-

(1) A and C both products are 3º halide

(2) A and C both product are saturated compound

(3) A and B are positional isomer

(4) Formation of B and C both follow free radical

mechanism formation

H-17/351001CM370715007


91. Which one of the following options give the

correct match of the enzymes with the type of

reaction they catalyse?

A B C

Transferases Dehydrogenases Isomerases

(1) Transfer of H Splitting with the

help of water

Intermolecular

shifting

(2) Transfer of

group other

than H

Oxidation and

Reduction

Interconversion

of isomers

(3) Transfer of

only phosphate

group

Joining of

compounds

Splitting

without

water

(4) Transfer of

electron and

hydrogen

Hydrolysis Joining of

compounds

92. In flowering plants, photosynthesis is essentially

a light dependent reaction in which hydrogens

from a suitable oxidisable compound reduces

carbon dioxide to carbohydrates, this oxidisable

compound is/are -

(1) H2O (2) H

2S

(3) H2O or H2S (4) C6H12O6

93. Radioisotopic technique was used to establish

some facts regarding :

(1) Light reaction of photosynthesis

(2) Biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis

(3) Both light reaction and biosynthetic phase of

photosynthesis

(4) Neither light reaction nor biosynthetic phase

of photosynthesis

94. (A) Water splitting

(B) Reduction of carbon dioxide

(C) Use of ATP

(D) Formation of ATP and NADPH

(E) Oxygen release

Which of the above processes are not included in

the photochemical phase of photosynthesis?

(1) A, B and C

(2) C and E

(3) B, D and E

(4) B and C

91.

A B C

VªkalQjstst fMgkbMªksftustst vkblksejstst

(1) H dk LFkkukarj.k ty dh lgk;rk

ls fo?kVu

varjvkf.od

LFkkukarj.k(2) H ds vfrfjDr

fdlh nwljs lewg

dk LFkkukarj.k

vkWDlhdj.k ,oa

vip;u

leko;fo;ksa dk

varj :ikarj.k

(3) dsoy QkWLQsV

lewg dk

LFkkukarj.k

;kSfxdksa dks tksM+uk ty ds fcuk

fo?kVu

(4) bysDVªkWu ,oa

gkbMªkstu dk

LFkkukarj.k

ty vi?kVu ;kSfxdksa dks

tksM+uk

92.

-

(1) H2O (2) H

2S

(3) H2O H2S (4) C6H12O6

93. ?

(1) (2) (3)

(4)

94. (A) (B) (C) ATP (D) ATP NADPH (E) ?(1) A, B C(2) C E(3) B, D E(4) B C

H-18/35 1001CM370715007


95.

Characteristic C3 plants C4 plants

Cell type in which initial carboxylation occurs Mesophyll "A"

Cell type in which Calvin cycle takes place Mesophyll "B"

Primary CO2 fixation

productPGA "C"

Choose the correct match for A to C from the

following :-

(1) A = Mesophyll, B = Mesophyll, C = Malic acid

(2) A = Mesophyll, B = Bundle sheath, C = OAA

(3) A = Bundle sheath, B = Bundle sheath,

C = Aspartic acid

(4) A= Bundle sheath, B = Mesophyll, C = OAA

96. Which of the following complexes of the

respiratory electron transport system, contains two

copper centres ?

(1) Complex-I (2) Complex-IV

(3) Complex-II (4) Complex-III

97. In Embden, Meyerhof and Parnas pathway

respectively at how many steps ATP is synthesised,

NAD+ is reduced and ATP is utilised ?

(1) Two, One and Two (2) One, Two and One

(3) Five, Two and Two (4) Three, One and Two

98. In mitochondrial matrix when pyruvic acid

undergoes oxidative decarboxylation catalysed by

pyruvate dehydrogenase, which of the following

are the products of this process ?

(1) Ethanol, Lactic acid and CO2

(2) NADH + H+, CO2 and Acetyl CoA

(3) Citric acid, FADH2 and H

2O

(4) Acetyl CoA, NADH+H+ and FADH2

99. Select out the most appropriate match regarding

functional categories of essential elements:-

(1) Structural elements – Mg, K, Fe

(2) Energy related elements – C, H, O, N

(3) Enzyme activation elements – Mo, Mg

(4) Osmotic regulation elements – Mg, P

100. Which of the following essential elements is

required by plants in amount of less than

10 m mole Kg–1 of dry matter ?

(1) Manganese (2) Magnesium

(3) Phosphorus (4) Potassium

95. C

3 C

4

"A"

"B"

CO2

PGA "C"

A C :-

(1) A = , B = , C =

(2) A = , B = , C = OAA

(3) A = , B = ,

C =

(4) A= , B = , C = OAA

96.

(1) -I (2) -IV

(3) -II (4) -III

97. NAD+ ATP ?(1) , (2) , (3) , (4) ,

98. ?(1) , CO

2

(2) NADH + H+, CO2 CoA

(3) , FADH2 H

2O

(4) CoA, NADH+H+ FADH2

99. :-

(1) – Mg, K, Fe

(2) – C, H, O, N

(3) – Mo, Mg

(4) – Mg, P

100. 10 m mole Kg ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

H-19/351001CM370715007


101. How many compound(s) in the list given below

contain sulphur as their constituent?

Methionine, Thiamine, Ferredoxin, Chlorophyll

Biotin, Coenzyme A, cysteine

(1) Four (2) Seven

(3) One (4) Six

102. Denitrification is carried by bacteria -

(1) Rhizobium and Frankia

(2) Azotobacter and Beijernickia

(3) Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus

(4) Rhodospirillum and Bacillus

103. Read the following four statements (A-D):

(A) The technique of growing plants in a nutrient

solution is known as hydroponics

(B) Iron is essential for the formation of chlorophyll

because it is the main component of chlorophyll

(C) Manganese is involved in splitting of water

during photosynthesis

(D) Calcium is a constituent of the ring structure

of chlorophyll

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) A, B & C (2) A, B, C & D

(3) A & C (4) Only A

104. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of

development of root nodules in soyabean. Select

the option giving correct identification together

with what it represents ?

(A) (B) (C)

(1) A-Mature nodule complete with vascular

tissues

(2) C-Infection thread carries the bacteria to the cortex

(3) B-Release of excess bacteria from root nodules

(4) A- Root hairs absorb leghaemoglobin from the

soil

105. Rhizobium has symbiotic relationship with the

roots of :-

(1) Garden pea and Alnus

(2) Alfalfa and Alnus

(3) Sweet clover and Alnus

(4) Sweet pea and Lentils

101. , A, (1) (2) (3) (4)

102. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

103. (A-D) (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A, B C (2) A, B, C D(3) A C (4) A

104. (A, B, C) :-

(A) (B) (C)

(1) A-(2) C-

(3) B-(4) A-

105. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

H-20/35 1001CM370715007


106. In root nodules of legumes, leghaemoglobin is

important because it :-

(1) acts as a catalyst in transamination

(2) transports oxygen to the root nodules

(3) provide energy to the nitrogen fixing bacteria

(4) acts as an oxygen scavenger

107. Which of the following factors does not affect the

rate of simple diffusion ?

(1) The permeability of the membrane

(2) The number of transport proteins in the membrane

(3) The gradient of concentration

(4) Temperature and pressure

108. If we place a twig bearing white flowers, in coloured

water, flowers turn colour. On examining the T.S.

(transverse secton) of the twig, what would we can

demonstrate?

(1) Flowers have ability to turn their colour

(2) Osmosis of the coloured water

(3) After cutting, twig shows more affinity for water

(4) Path of water movement is through the

vascular bundles

109. Which of the following is not correct ?

(1) A plant cell shows plasmolysis when it is placed

in a solution which has lower water potential as

compare to the protoplasm of cell

(2) Imbibition is active transport of water since

water movement in imbibition is against the

water potential gradient

(3) Water potential gradient and affinity between

the solid and liquid is must for imbibition

(4) The pressure exerted by protoplast against the

cell wall is responsible for enlargement of cells

110. Plant growth regulator of which of the following

chemical natures, is helpful in brewing industry?

(1) Carotenoid derivative

(2) Adenine derivative

(3) Indole compound

(4) Terpenes

111. In sigmoid growth curve, the exponential

phase slows down leading to a stationary phase,

due to :-

(1) Toxic effect of some plant hormones

(2) Genetic nature

(3) Limited nutrient supply

(4) Absence of differentiation.

106. -(1)

(2) (3) (4)

107. (1) (2) (3) (4)

108.

?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

109. ?(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

110. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

111. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

H-21/351001CM370715007


112. Match the following & find the correct option :-

A. Auxins (i) Seed maturation

B. Gibberellins (ii) Horizontal growthof seedlings

C. Cytokinins (iii) Promote nutrientmobilisation

D. Ethylene (iv) Increases yield insugarcane

E. Abscisic acid (v) Selective weedkiller

Options :-

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C- (iii), D-(iv), E-(v)

(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iv)

(3) A-(v), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(ii)

(4) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(i)

113. Cells/tissues arising out of the same meristem

have different structures at maturity, this

phenomena in plants, is called :-

(1) Open growth

(2) Open differentiation

(3) Indeterminate growth

(4) Determinate differentiation114.

B

C

Direction of flow

A

D

Reappearance of Clean water organism

Fish killed anddisappearance of clean

water organism

(1) A–Sewage discharge, B–BOD, C–DO,

D–Concentration

(2) A–Sewage discharge, B–DO, C–BOD,

D–Concentration

(3) A–Concentration, B–BOD, C–DO,

D–Sewage discharge

(4) A–Concentration, B–DO, C–BOD,

D–Sewage discharge

112. :-

A. (i)

B. (ii)

C. (iii)

D. (iv)

E. (v)

:-(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v)

(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iv)

(3) A-(v), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(ii)

(4) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(i)

113. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

114.

B

C

A

D

(1) A– , B–, C–,D–

(2) A– , B–, C–,D–

(3) A–, B–, C–, D–

(4) A–, B–, C–, D–

H-22/35 1001CM370715007


115. Scrubber & electrostatic precipitator are used for

removal of :-

(1) Gases like SO2 and particulates

(2) Organic matter

(3) Only SO2

(4) CH4 and SO

2

116. Given diagram showing contribution of various

green house gases, study the diagram and select

correct statement :-

A

B

CD

60%

6%

14%

20%

(1) A is gas which is produced by hydro electric

plant

(2) D are chemicals which are used as coolent in

refrigerators

(3) B is major constituent of biogas

(4) D is chemical hydrocarbon

117. In the given diversity distribution :-

E

AB

C

D

If B represents birds then E represent :-

(1) Amphibians (2) Birds

(3) Mammals (4) Fishes

118.

Dirty air

Dustparticles

Cleanair

A

In following diagram A is a :-

(1) Discharge corona

(2) Positively charged wire

(3) Lime spray

(4) Collection plate grounded

115. (1) SO

2

(2) (3) SO

2

(4) CH4 SO

2

116.

A

B

CD

60%

6%

14%

20%

(1) A

(2) D

(3) B (4) D

117.

E

AB

C

D

B E (1) (2) (3) (4)

118.

Dirty air

Dustparticles

Cleanair

A

A (1) (2) (3) (4)

H-23/351001CM370715007


119. Given figure showing biome distribution with

respect to annual temperature and precipitation.

Identify A,B,C,D,E and F in given figure

A D

E

C

F

B

A B C D E F

Arctic Grass Desert Coni- Temperate Tropicaland Alpine land ferous forest foresttundra forest

Desert Arctic Coni- Grass Temperate Tropicaland alpine ferous land forest forest

tundra forest

Tropical Temperate Grass Coni- Arctic and Desertforest forest land ferous Alpine

forest tundra

Temperate Tropical Grass Arctic & Coni- Desertforest forest land Alpine ferous

tudra forest

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

120. Catalytic converter is used in automobiles :

(1) For removing the poisonous lead

(2) For converting harmful NOx into N

2

(3) For removing water from air

(4) For removing organic matter from lake

121.

D

E F

CB

A

If A represents angiosperm while D represent

fungi then C represents :-

(1) Fern & allies (2) Algae

(3) Lichen (4) Mosses

122. Which of the following are correctly matched ?

(i) Arsenic poisoning – Black root disease

(ii) Secondary effluent treatment - Biological process

(iii) Pyrolysis - Thermo chemical decomposition

of Solid waste in absence of oxygen

(iv) Tubifex – water pollution indicator

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (iii), (iv)

(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iv)

119. A,B,C,D,E

F

A D

E

C

F

B

A B C D E F

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

120. (1) (2) NOx N

2

(3) (4)

121.

D

E F

CB

A

A D C (1) Fern allies (2) Algae(3) Lichen (4) Mosses

122. (i) – (ii) - (iii) -

(iv) – (1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (iii), (iv)

(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iv)

H-24/35 1001CM370715007


123.S

peci

es r

ichn

ess

Area

S = CA2

If species richness & area represents rectangular

hyperbola, then logarithmic scale of species

richness with area will be ?

(1) Circle (2) Straight line

(3) Square (4) Rectangular

124. In which of the following biome mean annual

precipitation is highest ?

(1) Temperate forest (2) Tropical forest

(3) Coniferous forest (4) Grassland

125. Which plant brought for its purple flower has

become a problem in India :-

(1) Opuntia (2) Lantana

(3) Eichhornia (4) Casurina

126.

B

D

C

A

Scrubber

(1) A–Dirty air, B–Lime water spray, C–Clean

air,D–Particulate matter

(2) A–Particulate matter, B–Clean air, C–Lime

spray, D–Dirty air

(3) A–Clean air, B–Lime water spray, C–Dirty

air, D–Particulate matter

(4) A–Lime water spray, B–Clean air,

C–Particulate matter, D–Dirty air

123. S = CA2

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 124.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

125. (1) (2) (3) (4)

126.

B

D

C

A

(1) A–, B–, C–,D–

(2) A–, B–, C–,D–

(3) A–, B–, C–,D–

(4) A–, B–, C–,D–

H-25/351001CM370715007


127. Find out the applicable norms represented by A,

B, C and D :

4 Wheelers A Since october 2010throughout country

4 Wheelers B 13 mega citiessince April 2010

3 Wheelers C Since october 2010throughout country

2 Wheelers D Since october 2010Throughout country

Vehicles Norms Cities of imple

(1) A–Bharat stage II, B–Bharat stage III,

C–Bharat stage IV, D–Bharat stage III

(2) A–Bharat stage III, B–Bharat stage IV,

C–Bharat stage III, D–Bharat stage III

(3) A–Bharat stage II, B–Bharat stage III,

C–Bharat stage III, D–Bharat stage IV

(4) A–Bharat stage III, B–Bharat stage II,

C–Bharat stage IV, D–Bharat stage III

128. Read the following statements (A–D)

(a) Ecology at organismic level is essentially

physiological ecology.

(b) Rotation of our planet arround the Sun causes

variation in temperature

(c) Regional & local variations with in each

biome leads to wide variety of habitats

(d) Snow leopards are found in Kerala in large

number

How many of above statements are incorrect ?

(1) Statement a & c only

(2) Statement b & c only

(3) Statement a, b, c only

(4) Statement d only

129. Species diversity, biomass, niche specialization,

humus and net community productivity.

Which of the fllowing decreases in ecological

succession ?

(1)Net community productivity, niche

specialization, humus

(2) Biomass, niche specilization, vegetation

(3)Species diversity, biomass, niche specialization

(4) Only net community productivity

127. A,B,C D

A 2010

B 13 2010

C 2010

D 2010

(1) A– II, B– III,

C– IV, D– III

(2) A– III, B– IV,

C– III, D– III

(3) A– II, B– III,

C– III, D– IV

(4) A– III, B– II,

C– IV, D– III

128. (A–D)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a c (2) b c (3) a, b, c (4) d

129.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

H-26/35 1001CM370715007


130.

Pre repro-ductive

Post-Repro-ductive

Repro-ductive

(A)

Pre repro-ductive

Post-Repro-ductive

Repro-ductive

(B)

Pre repro-ductive

Post-Repro-ductive

Repro-ductive

(C)

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) B represents expanding population

(2) C represents stable population

(3) A represents declining population

(4) A represents expanding population

131. The population of an insect species shows an

explosive increase in numbers during rainy season

followed by its disappearance at the end of the

season, what does this show ?

(1) Population of its predator increases enormously

(2) S shape or sigmoid growth of population

(3) Its food plants mature and die at end of rainy

season

(4) Its population growth curve is J shape

132. Succession

Phytoplankton stage C

A Foliose lichen stage

Free floating stage Moss stage

Reed swamp stage D

Sedge Shrub stage

Scrub stage

B

Which of the following correct ?(1) A–Roted submerged, B–forest, C–Crustose,

D–Typha(2) A–Herb, B–forest, C–Rooted submerged,

D–Herb(3) A–Rooted submerged, B–forest, C–Crustose,

D–Herb(4) A–Rooted submerged, B–moss, C–Crustose,

D–Shrub

130.

Pre repro-ductive

Post-Repro-ductive

Repro-ductive

(A)

Pre repro-ductive

Post-Repro-ductive

Repro-ductive

(B)

Pre repro-ductive

Post-Repro-ductive

Repro-ductive

(C)

(1) B (2) C (3) A (4) A

131. (1) (2) S

(3)

(4) J

132.

C

A

D

B

(1) A– , B–, C–, D–(2) A–, B–, C– , D–(3) A– , B– , C– ,

D–(4) A– , B– , C– ,

D–

H-27/351001CM370715007


133. Short lived to long lived; Long lived to Short lived,

species diversity; Niche specialization ; Humus;

Biomass and Net community productivity.

Which of the following are characters of succession?

(1)Short lived to long lived ; Increase humus ;

decrease in net community productivity ;

decrease in species diversity

(2) Increase niche specialisation ; Decrese humus

; Increase net community product

(3) Long lived to short lived ; Decrease biomass,

Decrease net community productivity

(4) Decrease net community productivity ; Increase

niche specialization ; Increase in humus

134. Logistic growth formula are is :-

(1)dN

dt = rN

(2)dN

dt= rN

K N

K

(3)dN

dt = rN

N K

N

(4)dN

dt = Nr

135. In given pyramid of grass land ecosystem identify

B :

Trophic level

Number ofindividuals

TC (Tertary consumer)

SC (Secondary consumer)

PC (Primary consumer)

PP (Primary producer)

B = ?

3,54,000

708000

5,842,000

(1) B = 3 (2) B = 5

(3) B = 8 (4) B = 10

136. Consider A and B are two species both are in non-

obligatory relationship and both organism are

benefitted. So this relationship is known as :-

(1) Predation (2) Parasitism

(3) Proto-cooparation (4) Amensalism

133.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

134.

(1)dN

dt = rN

(2)dN

dt= rN

K N

K

(3)dN

dt = rN

N K

N

(4)dN

dt = Nr

135. B

TC (

SC

(

PC

(

PP

(

3,54,000

5,842,000

708000

) B = ?

(1) B = 3 (2) B = 5

(3) B = 8 (4) B = 10

136. A B (1) (2) (3) (4)

H-28/35 1001CM370715007


137. Lichen, fig-wasp, mycorrhiza, pronuba moth–

yucca plant, Epiphyte–mango, Barnacle–whale,

sea anemone –clownfish

How many of the above show mutualism ?

(1) Four (2) Five

(3) Six (4) Two

138. Read statements regarding population interacton:

(A) Biological control methods are adopted in

agricultural pest control

(B) In the rocky intertidal areas of American

pacific coast starfish is an important predator.

(C) Serval species show camouflagae

(D) Parasite and host show co-evolution

How many of above statements are correct ?

(1) Only statement A, B, C

(2) Only statement D

(3) Only statement C, D

(4) A, B, C and D

139. Which of the following factor mainly affects

ecology ?

(1) Water (2) Light

(3) Soil (4) Temperature

140. How many statements are correct ?

(a) The annual net primary productivity of the

whole biosphere is about 170 billion tons.

(b) The joint forest management concept started

in 1980

(c) Number of trophic levels in GFC is never

restricted

(d) Some of organisms of DFC are prey to GFC

animals

(1) Three (2) One (3) Two (4) None

141. Some organisms can tolerate narrow range of

salinities, they are known as

(1) Euryhaline

(2) Stenohaline

(3) Eurythermal

(4) Stenothermal

142. If the number of chromosomes in megaspore

mother cell is 28. What would be the number of

chromosome in cells of aleurone layer ?

(1) 14 (2) 28

(3) 42 (4) 56

143. In Zostera, pollination take place by :-

(1) Water (2) Wind

(3) Insect (4) Bat

137. (1) (2) (3) (4)

138. (A)

(B)

(C)(D) (1) A, B, C

(2) D(3) C, D

(4) A, B,C D139.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

140. (a) 170

(b) 1980 (c)

(d)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

141. (1) (2) (3) (4)

142. 28

(1) 14 (2) 28

(3) 42 (4) 56

143. (1) (2) (3) (4)

H-29/351001CM370715007


144. Apogamy is:-

(1) Formation of fruit without fertilization

(2) Formation of Archesporium

(3) Formation of gametophyte without meiosis

(4) Formation of sporophyte directly from

gametophyte

145. In Quercus suber stem, cork cambium is derived

from :-

(1) Epidermis (2) Pericycle

(3) Cortex (4) Endodermis

146. Which statements are wrong ?

(a) In dorsiventral leaf abaxial epidermis generally

bears less stomata than the adaxial epidermis

(b) In grasses, certain adaxial epidermal cells

modified into bulliform cells.

(c) Palisade parenchyma is made up of elongated cells

(d) In Isobilateral leaf, adaxial Epidermis bears

more stomata than abaxial epidermis.

(1) only d (2) a, d

(3) a, b (4) c, d

147. In caryopsis fruit :-

(1) Seed is absent

(2) Three layer of pericarp are distinct.

(3) Seed coat and pericarp are fused

(4) Pericarp is absent

148. Inflorescence, in which peduncle is thin,

long,weak & hanging downward and flowers are

sessile & unisexual, is called.

(1) Spike (2) Catkin

(3) Raceme (4) Spadix

149. Mendel formulated the law of purity of gametes

on the basis of :-

(1) Dihybrid cross (2) Monohybrid cross

(3) Back cross (4) Test cross

150. A cross between AaBB X aa BB yields a

genotypic ratio of :-

(1) 1 AaBB: 1 aaBB (2) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB

(3) 3AaBB : 1 aa BB (4) All AaBb

151. Dihybrid cross proves the law of :-

(1) Law of segregation

(2) Law of purity of gametes

(3) Law of dominance

(4) Independent assortment

152. The percentage of ab gametes produced by AaBb

parent will be :-

(1) 12.5 (2) 25 (3) 50 (4) 75

144. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 145.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

146. (a)

(b)

(c) (d)

(1) d (2) a, d

(3) a, b (4) c, d

147. :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 148.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

149. (1) (2) (3) (4)

150. AaBB x aaBB (1) 1 AaBB : 1 aaBB (2) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB

(3) 3 AaBB : 1 aaBB (4) AaBb

151. (1) (2) (3) (4)

152. AaBb ab

(1) 12.5 (2) 25 (3) 50 (4) 75

H-30/35 1001CM370715007


153. In a cross 45 tall & 14 dwarf plants were obtained,

the genotype of parents was :-

(1) TT × TT (2) TT × Tt

(3) Tt × Tt (4) TT × tt

154. A test cross is performed :

(1) by selfing of F2-generation plants

(2) by selfing of F1-generation plants

(3) to determine whether F1-plant is homozgous

or heterozygous

(4) between a homozygous dominant and

homozygous recessive plant

155. When the phenotypic and genotypic ratio resemble

in the F2 generation it is an example of :-

(1) Independant assortment

(2) Qualitative inheritance

(3) Segregation of factors

(4) Incomplete dominance

156. Which of the following is the example of

co-dominance :-

(1) HbA HbA, IA IB (2) Hbs Hbs, IA IB

(3) HbA Hbs, IA IB (4) Hbs Hbs, IA IA

157. The phenomenon in which an allele of one gene

suppresses the expression of an allele of another

gene is known as :-

(1) Dominance (2) Inactivation

(3) Epistasis (4) Suppression

158. Some of the dominant traits studied by Mendel were :-

(1) Round seed shape, constricted pod shape and

axial flower position

(2) Yellow seed colour, inflated pod shape and

axial flower position

(3) Yellow seed colour, violet flower colour and

yellow pod colour

(4) Axial flower position, green pod colour and

green seed colour

159. A woman with albinic father marries an albinic

man. The proportion of her progeny is

(1) 2 normal : 1 albinic

(2) All normal

(3) All albinic

(4) 1 normal : 1 albinic

160. If one parent has blood group A and the other

parent has blood group B. The offsprings have

which blood group :-

(1) AB only (2) O only

(3) B only (4) A, B, AB, O

153. 4514 (1) TT × TT (2) TT × Tt

(3) Tt × Tt (4) TT × tt

154. :

(1) F2- (2) F1-(3) F1-

(4)

155. f2

(1) (2) (3) (4)

156. :-

(1) HbA HbA, IA IB (2) Hbs Hbs, IA IB

(3) HbA Hbs, IA IB (4) Hbs Hbs, IA IA

157.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 158.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

159. (1) 2 : 1 (2) (3) (4) 1 : 1

160. 'A' 'B' (1) AB (2) O

(3) B (4) A,B, AB, O

H-31/351001CM370715007


161. (A) Pleiotropic genes have multiple phenotypic effect.

(B) Muliple alleles exhibit same phenotypic

expression.

(C) Polygenes exhibit continuous variation.

(1) Statement (A), (B) and (C) are correct

(2) Statement (A), (C) correct and (B) is incorrect

(3) Statement (A), (B) and (C) are incorrect

(4) Statement (B) and (C) are correct and (A) is

incorrect

162. Which of the followig is a good example of

multiple allele ?

(1)ABO blood groups

(2) Size of starch grain in pea

(3)Shape of seed

(4)Flower colour in pea

163. Cytoplasmic male sterility is inherited :-

(1) Maternally

(2) Paternally

(3) Both

(4) Bacteriophage multiplication

164. Extranuclear inheritance is a consequence of

presence of genes in :-

(1) Lysosomes and ribosomes

(2) Mitochondria and chloroplasts

(3) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria

(4) Ribosomes and chloroplast

165. A dihybrid ratio of 1:4:6:4:1 is obtained instead

of 9:3:3:1. This is an example of :-

(1) Complementary gene

(2) Supplementary gene

(3) Polygenic inheritance

(4) Incomplete dominance

166. In totmato, genotype aabbcc produces 100g

tomatoes and AABBCC produces 160g

tomatoes. What is contribution of each

polygene in the production of tomatoes:-

(1) 10 g (2) 20 g

(3) 30 g (4) 40 g

167. What would be the nature of children if a colour

blind woman marries a normal man :-

(1) Colourblind daughter & normal sons

(2) Colourblind sons and carrier daughters

(3) Normal sons & carrier daughters

(4) Normal sons & Normal daughters

161. (A)

(B)

(C)

(1) (A), (B) (C)

(2) (A), (C) (B)

(3) (A), (B) (C)

(4) (B) (C) (A)

162. (1)ABO (2) (3)(4)

163. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 164.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 165. 9 : 3: 3 : 1 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1

(1) (2) (3) (4)

166. aabbcc 100g AABBCC 160g :-(1) 10 g (2) 20 g

(3) 30 g (4) 40 g

167. (1) (2) (3) (4)

H-32/35 1001CM370715007


168. In maize coloured endosperm (C) is dominant

over colourless (c) and full endosperm (R) is

dominant over shrunken (r). When a dihybrid of

F1-generation was test crossed it produced four

phenotypes in the following percentage

Coloured and Full = 45%

Coloured – Shrunken = 5%

Colourless – Full = 4%

Colourless – Shrunken = 46%

From these data what would be distance between

the two non allelic genes :-

(1) 48 unit (2) 9 unit

(3) 4 unit (4) 12 unit

169. There are three genes a, b, c percentage of crossing

over between a and b is 20%, b and c is 28% and

a and c is 8%. What is the sequence of genes on

chromosome

(1) b, a, c (2) a, b, c

(3) a, c, b (4) None

170. How many linkage group are there in bacteria

E.coli :-

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Four (4) None

171. Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human

males than in human females because –

(1) This disease is due to a Y–linked recessive

mutation

(2) This disease is due to an X–linked recessive

mutation

(3) This disease is due to an X–linked dominant

mutation

(4) A greater proportion of girls die in infancy

172. Who postulated the 'Chromosome Theory of

Inheritance' :-

(1) De Vries

(2) Mendel

(3) Sutton and Boveri

(4) Morgan

168. (C) (c) (R) (r)

F1

= 45%

= 5%

= 4%

= 46%

:-

(1) 48 unit (2) 9 unit

(3) 4 unit (4) 12 unit

169. a, b, c a b 20%, b c 28% a c

8%

(1) b, a, c (2) a, b, c

(3) a, c, b (4)

170. E.coli

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

171.

–

(1) Y–

(2) X–

(3) X-

(4) 172.

:-(1) (2) (3) (4)

H-33/351001CM370715007


173. :-(1) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3)

174. _____

_______

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

175. (1) (2) (3) (4)

176.

(1) 2A + XY (2) 2A + XO

(3) 2A + YY (4) 2A + XX

177. (1) 1/2 (2) 1/5

(3) 1 (4) 178. Random mating population

28,800 49% (1) 21% (2) 42%

(3) 32% (4) 9%

179.

(1) X

(2) Y (3) (4)

173. Frequency of crossing over will be relatively more

if :-

(1) distance between the two genes is less

(2) distance between the two genes is more

(3) linked genes are more

(4) both (2) & (3)

174. Morgan coined the term_____ to describe the

physical association of genes on a chromosome

& the term_______ to describe the generation of

non-parental gene combinations.

(1)Recombination; Linkage

(2)Recombination; Non-recombination

(3)Linkage; Non-recombination

(4)Linkage; Recombination

175. Which of the following possess homogametic male?

(1) Plants (2) Man

(3) Insect (4) Birds

176. Which chromosome set is found in male grass

hopper ?

(1) 2A + XY (2) 2A + XO

(3) 2A + YY (4) 2A + XX

177. A family has five girls and no son, the probability

of the occurance of son in 6th child is :-

(1) 1/2 (2) 1/5

(3) 1 (4) No chance

178. In a Random mating population of 28,800

individuals percentage of dominant homozygous

individuals is 49% find out the percentage of

heterozygous individual –

(1) 21% (2) 42%

(3) 32% (4) 9%

179. Predict from the following chart

(1) Character is dominant and carried by X

chromosome

(2) Character is carried by Y chromosome

(3) Character is sex linked recessive

(4) Character is autosomal recessive

H-34/35 1001CM370715007


180. Which of the following symbol is used for mating

between relatives (Consanguineous mating)

(1) 5 (2)

(3) (4)

180.

(1) 5 (2)

(3) (4)

Your moral duty is to prove that

is

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in NEET-II 2016

H-35/351001CM370715007


SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /

Documents

NEET-II BOOSTER COURSE · 2016-07-09 · H-2/35 1001CM370715007 Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/09-07-2016 6. A ray of light making an angle 10° with the horizontal is incident