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izR;sd fo|kFkhZ dk jftLVªs'ku ua- ds vuqlkj LFkku fu;r gS rFkk os vius fu;r LFkku ij gh cSBsaA ;fn dksbZ fo|kFkhZ fdlh nwljs fo|kFkhZ ds LFkku
ij cSBk ik;k x;k rks nksuksa fo|kfFkZ;ksa dks ijh{kk d{k ls ckgj dj fn;k tk,xk vkSj nksuksa dks dksbZ vU; tqekZuk Hkh Lohdk;Z gksxkA2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
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Test Type : PART TEST # 07 Test Pattern : NEET
TEST DATE : 09 - 07 - 2016
Paper Code : 1001CM370715007
Hin
di
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL - 2016
NEET-II BOOSTER COURSE
H-1/351001CM370715007
Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/09-07-2016
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
1. A transverse wave is described by the equation
0
xy y sin 2 ft
. The maximum particle
velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if :-
(1)0y
4
(2)
0y
2
(3) y0 (4) y0
2. The equation of a stationary wave is
xy 0.8cos sin 200 t
20
where x is in cm and t is in sec. The separtion
between consecutive nodes will be :-
(1) 20 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 40 cm (4) 30 cm
3. Figure shows the wave y = Asin(t – kx).What
is the magnitude of slope of the curved at B :-
O B x
y
(1) A
(2)
K
A(3) KA (4) A
4. Two closed organ pipes of length 100 cm and
101 cm long give 16 beats in 20 sec when each
pipe is sounded in fundamental mode. Calculate
velocity of sound :-
(1) 303 ms–1 (2) 332 ms–1
(3) 323 ms–1 (4) 300 ms-1
5. Two plane mirrors M1 and M2 have a length of
20 m each and are 10 cm apart. A ray of light is
incident on one end of mirror M2 at an angle of
53°. The number of reflections light undergoes
before reaching the other end is
10 cm
20 m M1
53°
M2
(1) 170 (2) 100 (3) 150 (4) 200
1. 0
xy y sin 2 ft
:-
(1)0y
4
(2)
0y
2
(3) y0
(4) y0
2.
xy 0.8cos sin 200 t
20
x cm t sec. :-(1) 20 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 40 cm (4) 30 cm
3. y = Asin(t – kx) B :-
O B x
y
(1) A
(2)
K
A(3) KA (4) A
4. 100 cm 101 cm 20 sec 16 :-(1) 303 ms–1 (2) 332 ms–1
(3) 323 ms–1 (4) 300 ms-1
5. M1 M
2 20 m
10 cm M2
53°
10 cm
20 m M1
53°
M2
(1) 170 (2) 100 (3) 150 (4) 200
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6. A ray of light making an angle 10° with the
horizontal is incident on a plane mirror making
a angle with the horizontal. What should be the
value of so that the reflected ray goes vertically
upwards :-
(1) 20° (2) 30° (3) 40° (4) 45°
7. A spherical mirror forms an erect image three
times the linear size of the object. If the distance
between the object and the image is 80 cm, the
focal length of the mirror is :-
(1) 15 cm (2) 25 cm (3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm
8. The critical angle for total internal reflection of
light going from medium I to medium II is given
by the relation tan C
5i
9 . The refractive index of
the medium I with respect to the medium II is :-
(1) 1.8 (2) 1.6 (3) 156
5 (4)
106
5
9. A beaker containing liquid is placed on a table,
underneath a microscope which can be moved
along a vertical scale. The microscope is focused,
through the liquid onto a mark on the table when
the reading on the scale is a.
012
M(Mark)
It is next focused on the upper surface of the liquid
and the reading is b. More liquid is added and the
observations are repeated, the corresponding
readings are c and d. The refractive index of the
liquid is :-
(1) b d
d c b a
(2)
b d
d c b a
(3) d –c – b a
d b
(4) d – b
a b c d
6. ° 10° :-(1) 20° (2) 30°
(3) 40° (4) 45°
7. 80 cm (1) 15 cm (2) 25 cm
(3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm
8. I II
tan C
5i
9 I
II :-(1) 1.8 (2) 1.6
(3) 156
5(4)
106
5
9. 'a' 'b' 'c' 'd'
012
M(Mark)
(1) b d
d c b a
(2)
b d
d c b a
(3) d –c – b a
d b
(4) d – b
a b c d
H-3/351001CM370715007
Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/09-07-2016
10. In the given figure, at water air interface, light ray
incident at critical angle then the value of µg is :-
i
n
water
glass
air
µ = 4/3w
µg
(1) 3
4sin i (2) 1
sin i
(3) 4
3sin i (4) None of these
11. What will be the minimum angle of incidence such
that the total internal reflection takes place from
both the surface?
iµ = 22
µ = 33
µ = 21
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 75°
12. The cross-section of a prism (µ = 1.5) is an
equilateral triangle. A ray of light is incident
perpendicular on one of the faces. The angle of
deviation of the ray is :-
(1) 60° (2) 120°
(3) 90° (4) 20°
13. Calculate the dispersive power for crown glass
from the given data if µv = 1.5230 and µ
r = 1.5145.
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 0.0164 (4) 2.5
14. An object is placed at a distance m times the focal
length of a divergent lens. The size of the image
is shorter than that of the object by :-
(1) m times
(2) (m + 1) times
(3) (m – 1) times
(4) m2 times
10. µg :-
i
n
water
glass
air
µ = 4/3w
µg
(1) 3
4sin i (2) 1
sin i
(3) 4
3sin i (4)
11. i
iµ = 22
µ = 33
µ = 21
(1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) 60° (4) 75°
12. (µ = 1.5) :-(1) 60° (2) 120°
(3) 90° (4) 20°
13. µv = 1.5230
µr = 1.5145
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 0.0164 (4) 2.5
14. m (1) m (2) (m + 1) (3) (m – 1) (4) m2
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15. Two planoconvex lenses each of focal length
10 cm and refractive index 3/2 are placed as
shown. In the space left, water (R.I = 4/3) is filled.
The whole arrangement is in air. The optical
power of the system is (in diopters)
(1) 6.67 (2) –6.67 (3) 33.3 (4) 20
16. A planoconvex lens, when silvered at its plane
surface is equivalent to a concave mirror of focal
length 28 cm. When its curved surface is silvered
and the plane surface is not silvered, it is
equivalent to a concave mirror of focal length
10 cm, then the refractive index of the material
of the lens is :-
(1) 9
14(2)
14
9
(3) 17
9(4) None of these
17. Electric conduction in a semiconductor takes place
due to :–
(1) electrons only
(2) holes only
(3) both electrons and holes
(4) neither electrons nor holes
18. In sample of pure silicon, 1013 atom/cm3 is mixed
of phosphorus. If all donor atoms are active then
what will be resistivity at 200C if mobility of
electron is 1200 cm2/volt-s ?
(1) 0.5209 ohm cm (2) 5.209 ohm cm
(3) 52.09 ohm cm (4) 520.9 ohm cm
19. A 2V battery forward biases a diode. There is a drop
of 0.5 V across the diode which is independent of
current. Also a current greater then 10 mA produces
large joule heat and damages diode. If diode is to be
operated at 5 mA, the series resistance to be put is:–
2V
R
(1) 3k (2) 300 k
(3) 300 (4) 200 k
15. 10 cm 3/2 4/3)
(1) 6.67 (2) –6.67 (3) 33.3 (4) 20
16. 28 cm 10 cm :-
(1) 9
14(2)
14
9
(3) 17
9(4)
17. :–
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
18. 1013
3200C 1200 2/ :–(1) 0.5209 (2) 5.209 (3) 52.09 (4) 520.9
19. 2 V,0.5 V 10 mA 5 mA
2V
R
(1) 3k (2) 300 k
(3) 300 (4) 200 k
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Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/09-07-2016
20. Current I in the circuit will be :–
20
20
30
5V
I
(1) 5
40A (2)
5
50A
(3) 5
10A (4)
5
20A
21. The temperature at which root mean square speed
of a gas will be half of its value at 0°C is :-
(1) –86.4°C (2) –204.75°C
(3) –104.75°C (4) –68.25°C
22. A gas is found to obey the law P2V = constant.
The initial temperature and volume are T0 and V
0.
If the gas expands to a volume 3V0, its final
temperature becomes :-
(1) 0T
3(2)
0T
3
(3) 3T0
(4) 03T
23. The adjoining figure shows graphs of pressure and
volume of a gas at two temperatures T1 and T
2.
Which of the following is correct ?
T1
T2
P
V
(1) T1 > T
2(2) T
1 = T
2
(3) T1 < T
2(4) None
24. The specific heat of the mixture of two gases at
constant volume is 13
R.6
The ratio of number of
moles of first gas to second is 1 : 2. The respective
gases may be :-
(1) O2, N
2(2) He, Ne
(3) He, N2
(4) N2, He
20. I :–
20
20
30
5V
I
(1) 5
40A (2)
5
50A
(3) 5
10A (4)
5
20A
21. 0°C
(1) –86.4°C (2) –204.75°C
(3) –104.75°C (4) –68.25°C
22. P2V = T
0 V
0
3V0
:-
(1) 0T
3(2)
0T
3
(3) 3T0
(4) 03T
23. T
1 T
2
T1
T2
P
V
(1) T1 > T
2(2) T
1 = T
2
(3) T1 < T
2(4) None
24.
13R
61 :
2 :-
(1) O2, N
2(2) He, Ne
(3) He, N2
(4) N2, He
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Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/09-07-2016
25. Six moles of an ideal gas performs a cycle shown
in figure. If the temperatures are TA = 600 K,
TB = 800 K, T
C = 2200 K and T
D = 1200 K, then
the work done per cycle is approximately :-
B
A D
C
P
T
(1) 20 KJ (2) 30 KJ (3) 40 KJ (4) 60 KJ
26. A carnot engine is made to work between 200°C
and 0°C first and then between 0°C and –200°C.
The ratio of efficiencies 2
1
of the engine in two
cases is :-
(1) 1 : 1.5 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1.73 : 1
27. One mole of a monoatomic gas is carried along
process ABCDEA as shown in diagram. Find the
net work done by gas :-
1 2 3
1
2
4
D E
A
B CP(N/m )2
V(m )3
(1) 3
J2
(2) 1J (3) 1
J2
(4) 0 J
28. Water falls from height 500 m. The rise in
temperature of water at bottom if whole of energy
remains in water, will be [sp. heat of water
4.2 KJ/kg]
(1) 0.23°C (2) 1.16°C (3) 27°C (4) 1.02 °C
29. One kilogram of ice at 0°C is mixed with one
kilogram of water at 80°C. Temperature of mixture
is (specific heat of water = 4200 J kg–1 K–1 and latent
heat of ice = 336 KJ kg–1)
(1) 40°C (2) 60°C (3) 0°C (4) 50°C
30. The temperature of body is increased from 27°C
to 127°C the radiation emitted by it increases by
a factor of :-
(1) 256
81(2)
15
9(3)
4
5(4)
12
27
25. T
A = 600 K, T
B = 800
K, TC = 2200 K T
D = 1200 K
:-
B
A D
C
P
T
(1) 20 KJ (2) 30 KJ (3) 40 KJ (4) 60 KJ
26. 200°C 0°C 0°C –200°C
2
1
:-(1) 1 : 1.5 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1.73 : 1
27. 1 ABCDEA :-
1 2 3
1
2
4
D E
A
B CP(N/m )2
V(m )3
(1) 3
J2
(2) 1J (3) 1
J2
(4) 0 J
28. 500 [= 4.2 KJ/kg]
(1) 0.23°C (2) 1.16°C
(3) 27°C (4) 1.02 °C
29. 0°C 1 kg 80°C 1 kg = 4200 J kg–1 K–1 = 336 KJ kg–1)
(1) 40°C (2) 60°C (3) 0°C (4) 50°C
30. 27°C 127°C
(1) 256
81(2)
15
9(3)
4
5(4)
12
27
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Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/09-07-2016
31. Thermal capacity of a body depends on :-
(1) Heat given
(2) The temperature raised
(3) The mass of body
(4) None
32. Three rods of same dimensions have thermal
conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged
as shown with their ends at 100°C, 50°C and 0°C.
Temperature of junction is :-
3K
2K
50°K
0°C
100°CK
(1) 75°C (2) 200
3°C
(3) 40°C (4) 100
3°C
33. A beaker full of hot water is kept in a room. If
it cools from 80°C to 75°C in t1 minutes, from
75°C to 70°C in t2 minutes and from 70°C to 65°C
in t3 minutes then :-
(1) t1 = t
2t3
(2) t1 < t
2 = t
3
(3) t1 < t
2 < t
3(4) t
1 > t
2 > t
3
34. The following four wires are made of the same
material. Which of these will have the largest
extension when the same tension is applied ?
(1) Length 50 cm and diameter 0.5 mm
(2) Length 100 cm and diameter 1 mm
(3) Length 200 cm and diameter 2 mm
(4) Length 300 cm and diameter 3 mm
35. A fixed volume of iron is drawn into a wire of
length . The extension produced in this wire by
a constant force F is proportional to :–
(1) 2
1
(2)
1
(3) 2 (4)
36. The length of needle floating on the surface of
water is 1.5 cm. The force in addition to its weight
required to lift the needle from water surface will
be (surface tension of water = 7.5 N/cm) :–
(1) 22.5 N (2) 2.25 N
(3) 0.25 N (4) 225 N
31. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
32. 3K, 2K
K 100°C, 50°C 0°C
3K
2K
50°K
0°C
100°CK
(1) 75°C (2) 200
3°C
(3) 40°C (4) 100
3°C
33. 80°C 75°C t
1 75°C 70°Ct
2
70°C 65°C t3
:-(1) t
1 = t
2t3
(2) t1 < t
2 = t
3
(3) t1 < t
2 < t
3(4) t
1 > t
2 > t
3
34. (1) 50 0.5 (2) 100 1 (3) 200 2 (4) 300 3
35. F :–
(1) 2
1
(2)
1
(3) 2 (4)
36. 1.5 7.5 N/cm (1) 22.5 (2) 2.25 (3) 0.25 (4) 225
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37. The radius of a soap bubble is r. The surface
tension of soap solution is T. Keeping temperature
constant, the radius of the soap bubble is doubled,
the energy necessary for this will be :–
(1) 24 r2 T (2) 8 r2 T
(3) 12 r2 T (4) 16 r2 T
38. Water rises in a capillary upto a height h. If this
capillary is tilted by an angle of 45°, then the length
of the water column in the capillary becomes :–
(1) 2h (2) h
2(3)
h
2(4) h 2
39. A copper ball of radius 'r' travels with a uniform
speed 'v' in a viscous fluid. If the ball is changed
with another ball of radius '2r', then new uniform
speed will be :–
(1) v (2) 2v (3) 4v (4) 8v
40. A cubical block of side 'a' and
density '' slides over a fixed
inclined plane with constant
velocity 'v'. There is a thin
film of viscous fluid of
thickness 't' between the plane and the block. Then
the coefficient of viscosity of the thin film will be:
(1) agtsin
v
(2)
agt cos
v
(3) v
agtsin (4) None of these
41. A liquid flows through a horizontal tube. The
velocities of the liquid in the two sections which
have areas of cross–section A1 and A
2 are v
1 and
v2 respectively. The difference in the levels of the
liquid in the two vertical tubes is h. The incorrect
statement is :-
A1 v1
h
A2v2
(1) The volume of the liquid flowing through the
tube in unit time is A1v
1
(2) 2 1v v 2gh
(3) 2 22 1v v 2gh
(4) The energy per unit mass of the liquid is the
same in both sections of the tube.
37. r T :–(1) 24 r2 T (2) 8 r2 T
(3) 12 r2 T (4) 16 r2 T
38. h 45° :–
(1) 2h (2) h
2(3)
h
2(4) h 2
39. 'r''v' '2r' , :–(1) v (2) 2v (3) 4v (4) 8v
40. a
vt
(1) agtsin
v
(2)
agt cos
v
(3) v
agtsin (4)
41. A1 A2 v1 v2 h
A1 v1
h
A2v2
(1) A1v1
(2) 2 1v v 2gh
(3) 2 22 1v v 2gh
(4)
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42. A heavy spherical ball is dropped near surface in
a long column of viscous liquid. Which of the
following graphs represent the variation of :–
(i) Gravitational force with time
(ii) Viscous force with time
(iii) Net force acting on the ball with time
PQ
R
F
O t
(1) Q, R, P (2) R, Q, P
(3) P, Q, R (4) R, P, Q
43. Two vessels A and B have the same base area and
contain water to the same height, but the mass of water
in A is four times that in B. The ratio of the liquid
thrust at the base of A to that at the base of B is :–
B
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 16 : 1
44. When a large bubble rises from the bottom of a
lake to the surface, its radius doubles. If
atmospheric pressure is equal to that of column
of water height H, then the depth of lake is :–
(1) H (2) 2H
(3) 7H (4) 8H
45. A boat having a length of 3 metre and breadth
2 metre is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by one
cm when a man gets on it. Mass of the man is
(1) 60 kg (2) 62 kg
(3) 72 kg (4) 128 kg
42.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
PQ
R
F
O t
(1) Q, R, P (2) R, Q, P
(3) P, Q, R (4) R, P, Q
43. A B A BA B :–
B
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 16 : 1
44. H :–
(1) H (2) 2H
(3) 7H (4) 8H
45.
:–
(1) 60 (2) 62 (3) 72 (4) 128
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Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/09-07-2016
46. When a chemical bond is formed, there is
decrease in :-
(1) kinetic energy (2) potential energy
(3) repulsive force (4) attractive force
47. Match list I with list II and select the correct
answer :-
2
2
2
3
(A) NO 1 180
(B) NO 2 132
(C) NO 3 120
(D) NO 4 115
5 109
List IIList I
(species) O -N -O angle
A B C D
(1) 5 4 3 2
(2) 5 2 4 3
(3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 1 4 3 2
48. The correct order of the O–O bond length in O2,
H2O
2 and O
3 is :-
(1) O2 > O3 > H2O2
(2) O3 > H2O2 > O2
(3) O2 > H2O2 > O3
(4) H2O
2 > O
3 > O
2
49. The molecule having highest bond energy is :-
(1) N–N (2) F–F
(3) C–C (4) O–O
50. The hydrogen bond is not present in :-
(1) phenol
(2) liquid HCl
(3) water
(4) liquid NH3
51. Which pair is different from the others :-
(1) Li–Mg (2) B–Si
(3) Be–Al (4) Li–Na
52. Which is amphoteric oxides ?
(1) BeO (2) SnO
(3) ZnO (4) all of these
53. Which of the following statements is incorrect :-
(1) Bi5+ salts do not exist
(2) Pb4+ salts are good oxidising agents
(3) Sn4+ salts are good oxidising agents
(4) T+ salts are good oxidising agents
46. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
47. I II :-
2
2
2
3
(A) NO 1 180
(B) NO 2 132
(C) NO 3 120
(D) NO 4 115
5 109
List IIList I
(species) O-N -O
A B C D
(1) 5 4 3 2
(2) 5 2 4 3
(3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 1 4 3 2
48. O2, H2O2 O3 O–O :-(1) O
2 > O3 > H2O2
(2) O3 > H
2O
2 > O
2
(3) O2 > H2O2 > O3
(4) H2O
2 > O
3 > O
2
49. :-(1) N–N (2) F–F
(3) C–C (4) O–O
50. :-(1) (2) HCl (3) (4) NH
3 51. :-
(1) Li–Mg (2) B–Si
(3) Be–Al (4) Li–Na
52. (1) BeO (2) SnO
(3) ZnO (4) 53. :-
(1) Bi5+ (2) Pb4+ (3) Sn4+ (4) T+
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54. Which of the following has peroxy linkage ?
(1) H2S
2O
3(2) H
2SO
5
(3) H2S2O7 (4) H2S4O6
55. Which reactions can be used to prepare diborane :-
I. NaBH4 + BF3 (in ether)
II. NaBH4 + I
2
III. BF3 + NaH
(1) I, III (2) I, II
(3) II, III (4) I, II and III
56. Na2B
4O
7 . 10H
2O
NaBO2 + (A) + H
2O
(A) + MnO (B), (A) and (B) are :-
(1) Na3BO
3, Mn
3(BO
3)
2
(2) Na2(BO2)2, Mn(BO2)2
(3) B2O
3, Mn(BO
2)
2
(4) none is correct
57. Percentage of lead in lead pencil is :-
(1) zero (2) 20 (3) 80 (4) 70
58. Which reaction is not feasible ?
(1) 2KI + Br2 2KBr + I
2
(2) 2KBr + I2 2KI + Br2
(3) 2KBr + Cl2 2KCl + Br
2
(4) 2H2O + 2F2 4HF + O2
59. The oxide which forms dimer is :-
(1) N2O5 (2) N2O
(3) NO2 (4) N2O3
60. Select the correct order :-
(1) B < C < N < O – 'IP'
(2) B < C < N < O – EN
(3) B < C < N < O – Size
(4) B < C < N < O – EA
61. In the preparation of sulphuric acid, V2O
5 is used
in the reaction which is :-
(1) S + O2 SO2
(2) SO2 + H
2O H
2SO
4
(3) 2SO2 + O2 2SO3
(4) none of these
62. Fluorine reacts with water to produce :-
(1) HF + O2 + O
3
(2) HF + O2
(3) HF + OF2
(4) HF + O3
63. HNO3 + P4O10 4HPO3 + X . X is :-
(1) N2O5 (2) NO2
(3) NO (4) N2O3
64. Which cannot be used to generate H2 ?
(1) Al + NaOH (2) Zn + NaOH
(3) Mg + NaOH (4) LiH + H2O
54. (1) H2S2O3 (2) H2SO5
(3) H2S
2O
7(4) H
2S
4O
6
55. :-I. NaBH
4 + BF
3 ()
II. NaBH4 + I
2
III. BF3 + NaH
(1) I, III (2) I, II
(3) II, III (4) I, II III
56. Na2B
4O
7 . 10H
2O
NaBO2 + (A) + H
2O
(A) + MnO (B), (A) (B) :-
(1) Na3BO
3, Mn
3(BO
3)
2
(2) Na2(BO
2)2, Mn(BO
2)
2
(3) B2O3, Mn(BO2)2
(4) 57. :-
(1) (2) 20 (3) 80 (4) 70
58. (1) 2KI + Br
2 2KBr + I
2
(2) 2KBr + I2 2KI + Br2
(3) 2KBr + Cl2 2KCl + Br2
(4) 2H2O + 2F2 4HF + O2
59. :-(1) N2O5 (2) N2O
(3) NO2(4) N
2O
3
60. :-(1) B < C < N < O – 'IP'
(2) B < C < N < O – EN
(3) B < C < N < O – (4) B < C < N < O – EA
61. V2O
5
:-(1) S + O
2 SO
2
(2) SO2 + H2O H2SO4
(3) 2SO2 + O
2 2SO
3
(4) 62. :-
(1) HF + O2 + O
3
(2) HF + O2
(3) HF + OF2
(4) HF + O3
63. HNO3 + P4O10 4HPO3 + X . X :-(1) N
2O
5(2) NO
2
(3) NO (4) N2O
3
64. 'H2'
(1) Al + NaOH (2) Zn + NaOH
(3) Mg + NaOH (4) LiH + H2O
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65.
NH2
CH –C–Cl3
O
XBr2
AlBr2Y
( )
H O3
Z; Z
(1)
Br
NH2
(2)
Br
OH
(3)
Br
C–NH2
=
O
(4)
Br
NH2
BrBr
66. :-
(1) C–Cl
O
(2) C–O–C H2 5
O
(3) C–O–C
O O
(4) C–NH2
O
67. :-
(1) CH3–CH=CH
2 3H O
(2) CH3–CH=O 3
2
(1) CH MgBr
(2) H O
(3) CH3–CH=CH
2 3
2 2
(1) BH ,THF
(2) H O / OH(aq.)
(4) None
68. :-
(1) C H –C–Cl6 5
OH +Pd2
BaSO4
()
(2) C6H5CH=O 50% KOH ()
(3) C6H
5–CH
3 3 2
2
(1) CrO in (AC) O
(2) H O / H ()
(4) C6H5NH2+CHCl3
KOH ()
65.
NH2
CH –C–Cl3
O
XBr2
AlBr2Y
(major)
H O3
Z; Z is
(1)
Br
NH2
(2)
Br
OH
(3)
Br
C–NH2
=
O
(4)
Br
NH2
BrBr
66. Which of the following compound does not give
alcohol on reduction :-
(1) C–Cl
O
(2) C–O–C H2 5
O
(3) C–O–C
O O
(4) C–NH2
O
67. Primary alcohol is mainly formed in :-
(1) CH3–CH=CH
2 3H O
(2) CH3–CH=O 3
2
(1) CH MgBr
(2) H O
(3) CH3–CH=CH
2 3
2 2
(1) BH ,THF
(2) H O / OH(aq.)
(4) None
68. Which of the following is not correctly matched :-
(1) C H –C–Cl6 5
OH +Pd2
BaSO4
(Rosenmund's reduction)
(2) C6H5CH=O 50% KOH (Cannizzaro's reaction)
(3) C6H
5–CH
3 3 2
2
(1) CrO in (AC) O
(2) H O / H (Etard reaction)
(4) C6H
5NH
2+CHCl
3 KOH (Hofmann's
carbylamine reaction)
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69. CH –CH –C–NH3 2 2
OBr2
KOH(aq)X
C H –C–Cl6 5
O
Y
:-(1) X (2) Y (3) Y X (4)
70. :-(1) Sucrose : -D-Glucose and -D-Fructose
(2) Bakelite : Formaldehyde and phenol
(3) Lactose : -D-glucose and -D-galactose
(4) PHBV : -Hydroxy butyrate and
-Hydroxy valerate
71. CH=O+CH –CH –CH=O3 2
OH(aq.) Product
:-
(1) CH=CH–CH –CH=O2
(2) CH –CH –CH=C–CH=O3 2
CH3
(3) CH=C–CH=O
CH3
(4) All
72. :-(1) Tollen's reagent (2) NaHCO3
(3) Litmus test (4) Na
73. (1) -2 Nylon-6 : (2) Decron : (3) BuNa–S : (4) Bakelite :
74.
CH=O
(CH–OH)4
CH –OH2
2 2Br / H O P ; P :-
(1)
COOH
(CH–OH)4
CH –OH2
(2)
CH=O
(CH–OH)4
COOH
(3)
CH=O
(CH–OH)4
CH=O
(4)
COOH
(CH–OH)4
COOH
69. CH –CH –C–NH3 2 2
OBr2
KOH(aq)X
C H –C–Cl6 5
O
Y
Which statement is true :-
(1) Formation of X is Hofmann degradation
(2) Formation of Y is shotten Baummann reaction
(3) X is more basic than Y
(4) All
70. Incorrect match is :-
(1) Sucrose : -D-Glucose and -D-Fructose
(2) Bakelite : Formaldehyde and phenol
(3) Lactose : -D-glucose and -D-galactose
(4) PHBV : -Hydroxy butyrate and
-Hydroxy valerate
71. CH=O+CH –CH –CH=O3 2
OH(aq.) Product
Product which is not expected to be formed is :-
(1) CH=CH–CH –CH=O2
(2) CH –CH –CH=C–CH=O3 2
CH3
(3) CH=C–CH=O
CH3
(4) All
72. Formic acid and acetic acid can be distinguished
by :-
(1) Tollen's reagent (2) NaHCO3
(3) Litmus test (4) Na
73. Which of the following is not true :-
(1) Nylon-2 Nylon-6 : Biodegradable polymer
(2) Decron : Polyester
(3) BuNa–S : Elastomer
(4) Bakelite : Addition polymer
74.
CH=O
(CH–OH)4
CH –OH2
2 2Br / H O P ; P is :-
(1)
COOH
(CH–OH)4
CH –OH2
(2)
CH=O
(CH–OH)4
COOH
(3)
CH=O
(CH–OH)4
CH=O
(4)
COOH
(CH–OH)4
COOH
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75.NO2
4
Zn
NH Cl :-
(1)N=O
(2) NH–OH
(3)NH2
(4) (1) (2)
76. :-
(1) Lysin (2) Arginine
(3) Histidine (4) Glycine
77.
OH
+ (H–CN+HCl) 2
2
(1) ZnCl
(2) H OX ; X :-
(1)
OH
CN
(2)
OH
Cl
(3)
OH
CH=O
(4)
OH
COOH
78. OHNa
XCH –CH –Cl3 2 Y ; Y :-
(1) O–CH –CH2 3 (2) OH
C H2 5
(3) OHCH –CH3 2 (4) CH –CH2 3
79. 6, 6 :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
80. SN1
(1)Cl
(2) ClO
(3)Cl
(4) (CH3)3C–Cl
75.NO2
4
Zn
NH Cl Product is :-
(1)N=O
(2) NH–OH
(3)NH2
(4) (1) & (2) both
76. Which of the following basic amino acid is least
basic:-
(1) Lysin (2) Arginine
(3) Histidine (4) Glycine
77.
OH
+ (H–CN+HCl) 2
2
(1) ZnCl
(2) H OX ; X is :-
(1)
OH
CN
(2)
OH
Cl
(3)
OH
CH=O
(4)
OH
COOH
78. OHNa
XCH –CH –Cl3 2 Y ; Y is :-
(1) O–CH –CH2 3 (2) OH
C H2 5
(3) OHCH –CH3 2 (4) CH –CH2 3
79. Nylon 6, 6 is :-
(1) Copolymer (2) Fiber
(3) Step growth polymer(4) All
80. Most reactive for SN1 reaction is :-
(1)Cl
(2) ClO
(3)Cl
(4) (CH3)3C–Cl
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81. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 82.
(1) H (2) H
(3)
Cl
Cl (4) 1 2
83. (1) (2) (3) (4)
84. NH2
..
(I)
..
(II) (III)
N
HH
(IV)
NNH
(1) I, II & IV
(2) II, III & IV
(3) I, II, III
(4) 85.
(1)
CH2
(2)
CH
(3)
(4)
81. Correct statement is :-
(1) Aniline is more soluble in water as compared
to methylamine
(2) Ethylamine is more souluble in water than
ethanol
(3) Chlorobenzene has more dipole moment than
cyclohexyl chloride
(4) All
82. Which of the following form has cis-trans
isomerism and chiral center both.
(1) H (2) H
(3)
Cl
Cl (4) 1 & 2 both
83. Diborane reacts with terminal alkenes to form
trialkylboranes. These react with alkaline
hydrogen peroxide to form.
(1) Primary alcohol
(2) Secondary alcohol
(3) Tertiary alcohol
(4) Isobutyl alcohol
84. Which of the following is aromatic compound.
NH2
..
(I)
..
(II) (III)
N
HH
(IV)
NNH
(1) I, II & IV
(2) II, III & IV
(3) I, II, III
(4) All compounds are aromatic
85. Which of the following has hyperconjugation
effect :-
(1)
CH2
(2)
CH
(3)
(4) None of these
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86.
(A) (B) 2-(C) 2,2-(1) A > B > C (2) A > C > B
(3) C > B > A (4) C > A > B
87.
Pd/BaSO4
Na/Liq. NH3
A
B
R–C C–R
(1) (A) (B)
(2) (A) > (B)
(3) (A) < (B)
(4) (A) > (B)
88.
(1) CH CHHg H O
+2/ 3
333K
(2) CH –C CH3 Hg /H O
+2
3
333K
(3) CH –C C–CH3 3Hg /H O
+2
3
333K
(4) 1 & 2 both
89.
(1)
NH2
..
(2)
O–C–R..
O
(3)
C N..
(4)
Cl..
90.
HBr
NBS
A
B
C
CH –CH–CH=CH3 2
CH3
HBr+ROOR
(1) A C 3º (2) A C (3) A B (4) B C
86. Arrange following alkanes in order of their
boiling points :-
(A) Pentane
(B) 2-Methyl butane
(C) 2,2-Dimethyl propane
(1) A > B > C (2) A > C > B
(3) C > B > A (4) C > A > B
87.
Pd/BaSO4
Na/Liq. NH3
A
B
R–C C–R
Identify wrong statement :-
(1) (A) (B)
(2) Boiling point (A) > boiling point (B)
(3) Stability (A) < stability (B)
(4) Melting point (A) > melting point (B)88. Which of the following reaction forms aldehyde
as a product :-
(1) CH CHHg H O
+2/ 3
333K
(2) CH –C CH3 Hg /H O
+2
3
333K
(3) CH –C C–CH3 3Hg /H O
+2
3
333K
(4) 1 & 2 both
89. Which of the following is wrong representation:-
(1)
NH2
..
(2)
O–C–R..
O
(3)
C N
(4)
Cl..
90.
HBr
NBS
A
B
C
CH –CH–CH=CH3 2
CH3
HBr+ROOR
Identify wrong statement :-
(1) A and C both products are 3º halide
(2) A and C both product are saturated compound
(3) A and B are positional isomer
(4) Formation of B and C both follow free radical
mechanism formation
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91. Which one of the following options give the
correct match of the enzymes with the type of
reaction they catalyse?
A B C
Transferases Dehydrogenases Isomerases
(1) Transfer of H Splitting with the
help of water
Intermolecular
shifting
(2) Transfer of
group other
than H
Oxidation and
Reduction
Interconversion
of isomers
(3) Transfer of
only phosphate
group
Joining of
compounds
Splitting
without
water
(4) Transfer of
electron and
hydrogen
Hydrolysis Joining of
compounds
92. In flowering plants, photosynthesis is essentially
a light dependent reaction in which hydrogens
from a suitable oxidisable compound reduces
carbon dioxide to carbohydrates, this oxidisable
compound is/are -
(1) H2O (2) H
2S
(3) H2O or H2S (4) C6H12O6
93. Radioisotopic technique was used to establish
some facts regarding :
(1) Light reaction of photosynthesis
(2) Biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis
(3) Both light reaction and biosynthetic phase of
photosynthesis
(4) Neither light reaction nor biosynthetic phase
of photosynthesis
94. (A) Water splitting
(B) Reduction of carbon dioxide
(C) Use of ATP
(D) Formation of ATP and NADPH
(E) Oxygen release
Which of the above processes are not included in
the photochemical phase of photosynthesis?
(1) A, B and C
(2) C and E
(3) B, D and E
(4) B and C
91.
A B C
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(1) H dk LFkkukarj.k ty dh lgk;rk
ls fo?kVu
varjvkf.od
LFkkukarj.k(2) H ds vfrfjDr
fdlh nwljs lewg
dk LFkkukarj.k
vkWDlhdj.k ,oa
vip;u
leko;fo;ksa dk
varj :ikarj.k
(3) dsoy QkWLQsV
lewg dk
LFkkukarj.k
;kSfxdksa dks tksM+uk ty ds fcuk
fo?kVu
(4) bysDVªkWu ,oa
gkbMªkstu dk
LFkkukarj.k
ty vi?kVu ;kSfxdksa dks
tksM+uk
92.
-
(1) H2O (2) H
2S
(3) H2O H2S (4) C6H12O6
93. ?
(1) (2) (3)
(4)
94. (A) (B) (C) ATP (D) ATP NADPH (E) ?(1) A, B C(2) C E(3) B, D E(4) B C
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95.
Characteristic C3 plants C4 plants
Cell type in which initial carboxylation occurs Mesophyll "A"
Cell type in which Calvin cycle takes place Mesophyll "B"
Primary CO2 fixation
productPGA "C"
Choose the correct match for A to C from the
following :-
(1) A = Mesophyll, B = Mesophyll, C = Malic acid
(2) A = Mesophyll, B = Bundle sheath, C = OAA
(3) A = Bundle sheath, B = Bundle sheath,
C = Aspartic acid
(4) A= Bundle sheath, B = Mesophyll, C = OAA
96. Which of the following complexes of the
respiratory electron transport system, contains two
copper centres ?
(1) Complex-I (2) Complex-IV
(3) Complex-II (4) Complex-III
97. In Embden, Meyerhof and Parnas pathway
respectively at how many steps ATP is synthesised,
NAD+ is reduced and ATP is utilised ?
(1) Two, One and Two (2) One, Two and One
(3) Five, Two and Two (4) Three, One and Two
98. In mitochondrial matrix when pyruvic acid
undergoes oxidative decarboxylation catalysed by
pyruvate dehydrogenase, which of the following
are the products of this process ?
(1) Ethanol, Lactic acid and CO2
(2) NADH + H+, CO2 and Acetyl CoA
(3) Citric acid, FADH2 and H
2O
(4) Acetyl CoA, NADH+H+ and FADH2
99. Select out the most appropriate match regarding
functional categories of essential elements:-
(1) Structural elements – Mg, K, Fe
(2) Energy related elements – C, H, O, N
(3) Enzyme activation elements – Mo, Mg
(4) Osmotic regulation elements – Mg, P
100. Which of the following essential elements is
required by plants in amount of less than
10 m mole Kg–1 of dry matter ?
(1) Manganese (2) Magnesium
(3) Phosphorus (4) Potassium
95. C
3 C
4
"A"
"B"
CO2
PGA "C"
A C :-
(1) A = , B = , C =
(2) A = , B = , C = OAA
(3) A = , B = ,
C =
(4) A= , B = , C = OAA
96.
(1) -I (2) -IV
(3) -II (4) -III
97. NAD+ ATP ?(1) , (2) , (3) , (4) ,
98. ?(1) , CO
2
(2) NADH + H+, CO2 CoA
(3) , FADH2 H
2O
(4) CoA, NADH+H+ FADH2
99. :-
(1) – Mg, K, Fe
(2) – C, H, O, N
(3) – Mo, Mg
(4) – Mg, P
100. 10 m mole Kg ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
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101. How many compound(s) in the list given below
contain sulphur as their constituent?
Methionine, Thiamine, Ferredoxin, Chlorophyll
Biotin, Coenzyme A, cysteine
(1) Four (2) Seven
(3) One (4) Six
102. Denitrification is carried by bacteria -
(1) Rhizobium and Frankia
(2) Azotobacter and Beijernickia
(3) Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus
(4) Rhodospirillum and Bacillus
103. Read the following four statements (A-D):
(A) The technique of growing plants in a nutrient
solution is known as hydroponics
(B) Iron is essential for the formation of chlorophyll
because it is the main component of chlorophyll
(C) Manganese is involved in splitting of water
during photosynthesis
(D) Calcium is a constituent of the ring structure
of chlorophyll
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) A, B & C (2) A, B, C & D
(3) A & C (4) Only A
104. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of
development of root nodules in soyabean. Select
the option giving correct identification together
with what it represents ?
(A) (B) (C)
(1) A-Mature nodule complete with vascular
tissues
(2) C-Infection thread carries the bacteria to the cortex
(3) B-Release of excess bacteria from root nodules
(4) A- Root hairs absorb leghaemoglobin from the
soil
105. Rhizobium has symbiotic relationship with the
roots of :-
(1) Garden pea and Alnus
(2) Alfalfa and Alnus
(3) Sweet clover and Alnus
(4) Sweet pea and Lentils
101. , A, (1) (2) (3) (4)
102. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
103. (A-D) (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) A, B C (2) A, B, C D(3) A C (4) A
104. (A, B, C) :-
(A) (B) (C)
(1) A-(2) C-
(3) B-(4) A-
105. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
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106. In root nodules of legumes, leghaemoglobin is
important because it :-
(1) acts as a catalyst in transamination
(2) transports oxygen to the root nodules
(3) provide energy to the nitrogen fixing bacteria
(4) acts as an oxygen scavenger
107. Which of the following factors does not affect the
rate of simple diffusion ?
(1) The permeability of the membrane
(2) The number of transport proteins in the membrane
(3) The gradient of concentration
(4) Temperature and pressure
108. If we place a twig bearing white flowers, in coloured
water, flowers turn colour. On examining the T.S.
(transverse secton) of the twig, what would we can
demonstrate?
(1) Flowers have ability to turn their colour
(2) Osmosis of the coloured water
(3) After cutting, twig shows more affinity for water
(4) Path of water movement is through the
vascular bundles
109. Which of the following is not correct ?
(1) A plant cell shows plasmolysis when it is placed
in a solution which has lower water potential as
compare to the protoplasm of cell
(2) Imbibition is active transport of water since
water movement in imbibition is against the
water potential gradient
(3) Water potential gradient and affinity between
the solid and liquid is must for imbibition
(4) The pressure exerted by protoplast against the
cell wall is responsible for enlargement of cells
110. Plant growth regulator of which of the following
chemical natures, is helpful in brewing industry?
(1) Carotenoid derivative
(2) Adenine derivative
(3) Indole compound
(4) Terpenes
111. In sigmoid growth curve, the exponential
phase slows down leading to a stationary phase,
due to :-
(1) Toxic effect of some plant hormones
(2) Genetic nature
(3) Limited nutrient supply
(4) Absence of differentiation.
106. -(1)
(2) (3) (4)
107. (1) (2) (3) (4)
108.
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
109. ?(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
110. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
111. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
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112. Match the following & find the correct option :-
A. Auxins (i) Seed maturation
B. Gibberellins (ii) Horizontal growthof seedlings
C. Cytokinins (iii) Promote nutrientmobilisation
D. Ethylene (iv) Increases yield insugarcane
E. Abscisic acid (v) Selective weedkiller
Options :-
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C- (iii), D-(iv), E-(v)
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iv)
(3) A-(v), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(ii)
(4) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(i)
113. Cells/tissues arising out of the same meristem
have different structures at maturity, this
phenomena in plants, is called :-
(1) Open growth
(2) Open differentiation
(3) Indeterminate growth
(4) Determinate differentiation114.
B
C
Direction of flow
A
D
Reappearance of Clean water organism
Fish killed anddisappearance of clean
water organism
(1) A–Sewage discharge, B–BOD, C–DO,
D–Concentration
(2) A–Sewage discharge, B–DO, C–BOD,
D–Concentration
(3) A–Concentration, B–BOD, C–DO,
D–Sewage discharge
(4) A–Concentration, B–DO, C–BOD,
D–Sewage discharge
112. :-
A. (i)
B. (ii)
C. (iii)
D. (iv)
E. (v)
:-(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v)
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iv)
(3) A-(v), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(ii)
(4) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(i)
113. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
114.
B
C
A
D
(1) A– , B–, C–,D–
(2) A– , B–, C–,D–
(3) A–, B–, C–, D–
(4) A–, B–, C–, D–
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115. Scrubber & electrostatic precipitator are used for
removal of :-
(1) Gases like SO2 and particulates
(2) Organic matter
(3) Only SO2
(4) CH4 and SO
2
116. Given diagram showing contribution of various
green house gases, study the diagram and select
correct statement :-
A
B
CD
60%
6%
14%
20%
(1) A is gas which is produced by hydro electric
plant
(2) D are chemicals which are used as coolent in
refrigerators
(3) B is major constituent of biogas
(4) D is chemical hydrocarbon
117. In the given diversity distribution :-
E
AB
C
D
If B represents birds then E represent :-
(1) Amphibians (2) Birds
(3) Mammals (4) Fishes
118.
Dirty air
Dustparticles
Cleanair
A
In following diagram A is a :-
(1) Discharge corona
(2) Positively charged wire
(3) Lime spray
(4) Collection plate grounded
115. (1) SO
2
(2) (3) SO
2
(4) CH4 SO
2
116.
A
B
CD
60%
6%
14%
20%
(1) A
(2) D
(3) B (4) D
117.
E
AB
C
D
B E (1) (2) (3) (4)
118.
Dirty air
Dustparticles
Cleanair
A
A (1) (2) (3) (4)
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119. Given figure showing biome distribution with
respect to annual temperature and precipitation.
Identify A,B,C,D,E and F in given figure
A D
E
C
F
B
A B C D E F
Arctic Grass Desert Coni- Temperate Tropicaland Alpine land ferous forest foresttundra forest
Desert Arctic Coni- Grass Temperate Tropicaland alpine ferous land forest forest
tundra forest
Tropical Temperate Grass Coni- Arctic and Desertforest forest land ferous Alpine
forest tundra
Temperate Tropical Grass Arctic & Coni- Desertforest forest land Alpine ferous
tudra forest
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
120. Catalytic converter is used in automobiles :
(1) For removing the poisonous lead
(2) For converting harmful NOx into N
2
(3) For removing water from air
(4) For removing organic matter from lake
121.
D
E F
CB
A
If A represents angiosperm while D represent
fungi then C represents :-
(1) Fern & allies (2) Algae
(3) Lichen (4) Mosses
122. Which of the following are correctly matched ?
(i) Arsenic poisoning – Black root disease
(ii) Secondary effluent treatment - Biological process
(iii) Pyrolysis - Thermo chemical decomposition
of Solid waste in absence of oxygen
(iv) Tubifex – water pollution indicator
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (iii), (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iv)
119. A,B,C,D,E
F
A D
E
C
F
B
A B C D E F
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
120. (1) (2) NOx N
2
(3) (4)
121.
D
E F
CB
A
A D C (1) Fern allies (2) Algae(3) Lichen (4) Mosses
122. (i) – (ii) - (iii) -
(iv) – (1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (iii), (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iv)
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123.S
peci
es r
ichn
ess
Area
S = CA2
If species richness & area represents rectangular
hyperbola, then logarithmic scale of species
richness with area will be ?
(1) Circle (2) Straight line
(3) Square (4) Rectangular
124. In which of the following biome mean annual
precipitation is highest ?
(1) Temperate forest (2) Tropical forest
(3) Coniferous forest (4) Grassland
125. Which plant brought for its purple flower has
become a problem in India :-
(1) Opuntia (2) Lantana
(3) Eichhornia (4) Casurina
126.
B
D
C
A
Scrubber
(1) A–Dirty air, B–Lime water spray, C–Clean
air,D–Particulate matter
(2) A–Particulate matter, B–Clean air, C–Lime
spray, D–Dirty air
(3) A–Clean air, B–Lime water spray, C–Dirty
air, D–Particulate matter
(4) A–Lime water spray, B–Clean air,
C–Particulate matter, D–Dirty air
123. S = CA2
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 124.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
125. (1) (2) (3) (4)
126.
B
D
C
A
(1) A–, B–, C–,D–
(2) A–, B–, C–,D–
(3) A–, B–, C–,D–
(4) A–, B–, C–,D–
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127. Find out the applicable norms represented by A,
B, C and D :
4 Wheelers A Since october 2010throughout country
4 Wheelers B 13 mega citiessince April 2010
3 Wheelers C Since october 2010throughout country
2 Wheelers D Since october 2010Throughout country
Vehicles Norms Cities of imple
(1) A–Bharat stage II, B–Bharat stage III,
C–Bharat stage IV, D–Bharat stage III
(2) A–Bharat stage III, B–Bharat stage IV,
C–Bharat stage III, D–Bharat stage III
(3) A–Bharat stage II, B–Bharat stage III,
C–Bharat stage III, D–Bharat stage IV
(4) A–Bharat stage III, B–Bharat stage II,
C–Bharat stage IV, D–Bharat stage III
128. Read the following statements (A–D)
(a) Ecology at organismic level is essentially
physiological ecology.
(b) Rotation of our planet arround the Sun causes
variation in temperature
(c) Regional & local variations with in each
biome leads to wide variety of habitats
(d) Snow leopards are found in Kerala in large
number
How many of above statements are incorrect ?
(1) Statement a & c only
(2) Statement b & c only
(3) Statement a, b, c only
(4) Statement d only
129. Species diversity, biomass, niche specialization,
humus and net community productivity.
Which of the fllowing decreases in ecological
succession ?
(1)Net community productivity, niche
specialization, humus
(2) Biomass, niche specilization, vegetation
(3)Species diversity, biomass, niche specialization
(4) Only net community productivity
127. A,B,C D
A 2010
B 13 2010
C 2010
D 2010
(1) A– II, B– III,
C– IV, D– III
(2) A– III, B– IV,
C– III, D– III
(3) A– II, B– III,
C– III, D– IV
(4) A– III, B– II,
C– IV, D– III
128. (A–D)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) a c (2) b c (3) a, b, c (4) d
129.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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130.
Pre repro-ductive
Post-Repro-ductive
Repro-ductive
(A)
Pre repro-ductive
Post-Repro-ductive
Repro-ductive
(B)
Pre repro-ductive
Post-Repro-ductive
Repro-ductive
(C)
Which of the following is correct ?
(1) B represents expanding population
(2) C represents stable population
(3) A represents declining population
(4) A represents expanding population
131. The population of an insect species shows an
explosive increase in numbers during rainy season
followed by its disappearance at the end of the
season, what does this show ?
(1) Population of its predator increases enormously
(2) S shape or sigmoid growth of population
(3) Its food plants mature and die at end of rainy
season
(4) Its population growth curve is J shape
132. Succession
Phytoplankton stage C
A Foliose lichen stage
Free floating stage Moss stage
Reed swamp stage D
Sedge Shrub stage
Scrub stage
B
Which of the following correct ?(1) A–Roted submerged, B–forest, C–Crustose,
D–Typha(2) A–Herb, B–forest, C–Rooted submerged,
D–Herb(3) A–Rooted submerged, B–forest, C–Crustose,
D–Herb(4) A–Rooted submerged, B–moss, C–Crustose,
D–Shrub
130.
Pre repro-ductive
Post-Repro-ductive
Repro-ductive
(A)
Pre repro-ductive
Post-Repro-ductive
Repro-ductive
(B)
Pre repro-ductive
Post-Repro-ductive
Repro-ductive
(C)
(1) B (2) C (3) A (4) A
131. (1) (2) S
(3)
(4) J
132.
C
A
D
B
(1) A– , B–, C–, D–(2) A–, B–, C– , D–(3) A– , B– , C– ,
D–(4) A– , B– , C– ,
D–
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133. Short lived to long lived; Long lived to Short lived,
species diversity; Niche specialization ; Humus;
Biomass and Net community productivity.
Which of the following are characters of succession?
(1)Short lived to long lived ; Increase humus ;
decrease in net community productivity ;
decrease in species diversity
(2) Increase niche specialisation ; Decrese humus
; Increase net community product
(3) Long lived to short lived ; Decrease biomass,
Decrease net community productivity
(4) Decrease net community productivity ; Increase
niche specialization ; Increase in humus
134. Logistic growth formula are is :-
(1)dN
dt = rN
(2)dN
dt= rN
K N
K
(3)dN
dt = rN
N K
N
(4)dN
dt = Nr
135. In given pyramid of grass land ecosystem identify
B :
Trophic level
Number ofindividuals
TC (Tertary consumer)
SC (Secondary consumer)
PC (Primary consumer)
PP (Primary producer)
B = ?
3,54,000
708000
5,842,000
(1) B = 3 (2) B = 5
(3) B = 8 (4) B = 10
136. Consider A and B are two species both are in non-
obligatory relationship and both organism are
benefitted. So this relationship is known as :-
(1) Predation (2) Parasitism
(3) Proto-cooparation (4) Amensalism
133.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
134.
(1)dN
dt = rN
(2)dN
dt= rN
K N
K
(3)dN
dt = rN
N K
N
(4)dN
dt = Nr
135. B
TC (
SC
(
PC
(
PP
(
3,54,000
5,842,000
708000
) B = ?
(1) B = 3 (2) B = 5
(3) B = 8 (4) B = 10
136. A B (1) (2) (3) (4)
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137. Lichen, fig-wasp, mycorrhiza, pronuba moth–
yucca plant, Epiphyte–mango, Barnacle–whale,
sea anemone –clownfish
How many of the above show mutualism ?
(1) Four (2) Five
(3) Six (4) Two
138. Read statements regarding population interacton:
(A) Biological control methods are adopted in
agricultural pest control
(B) In the rocky intertidal areas of American
pacific coast starfish is an important predator.
(C) Serval species show camouflagae
(D) Parasite and host show co-evolution
How many of above statements are correct ?
(1) Only statement A, B, C
(2) Only statement D
(3) Only statement C, D
(4) A, B, C and D
139. Which of the following factor mainly affects
ecology ?
(1) Water (2) Light
(3) Soil (4) Temperature
140. How many statements are correct ?
(a) The annual net primary productivity of the
whole biosphere is about 170 billion tons.
(b) The joint forest management concept started
in 1980
(c) Number of trophic levels in GFC is never
restricted
(d) Some of organisms of DFC are prey to GFC
animals
(1) Three (2) One (3) Two (4) None
141. Some organisms can tolerate narrow range of
salinities, they are known as
(1) Euryhaline
(2) Stenohaline
(3) Eurythermal
(4) Stenothermal
142. If the number of chromosomes in megaspore
mother cell is 28. What would be the number of
chromosome in cells of aleurone layer ?
(1) 14 (2) 28
(3) 42 (4) 56
143. In Zostera, pollination take place by :-
(1) Water (2) Wind
(3) Insect (4) Bat
137. (1) (2) (3) (4)
138. (A)
(B)
(C)(D) (1) A, B, C
(2) D(3) C, D
(4) A, B,C D139.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
140. (a) 170
(b) 1980 (c)
(d)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
141. (1) (2) (3) (4)
142. 28
(1) 14 (2) 28
(3) 42 (4) 56
143. (1) (2) (3) (4)
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144. Apogamy is:-
(1) Formation of fruit without fertilization
(2) Formation of Archesporium
(3) Formation of gametophyte without meiosis
(4) Formation of sporophyte directly from
gametophyte
145. In Quercus suber stem, cork cambium is derived
from :-
(1) Epidermis (2) Pericycle
(3) Cortex (4) Endodermis
146. Which statements are wrong ?
(a) In dorsiventral leaf abaxial epidermis generally
bears less stomata than the adaxial epidermis
(b) In grasses, certain adaxial epidermal cells
modified into bulliform cells.
(c) Palisade parenchyma is made up of elongated cells
(d) In Isobilateral leaf, adaxial Epidermis bears
more stomata than abaxial epidermis.
(1) only d (2) a, d
(3) a, b (4) c, d
147. In caryopsis fruit :-
(1) Seed is absent
(2) Three layer of pericarp are distinct.
(3) Seed coat and pericarp are fused
(4) Pericarp is absent
148. Inflorescence, in which peduncle is thin,
long,weak & hanging downward and flowers are
sessile & unisexual, is called.
(1) Spike (2) Catkin
(3) Raceme (4) Spadix
149. Mendel formulated the law of purity of gametes
on the basis of :-
(1) Dihybrid cross (2) Monohybrid cross
(3) Back cross (4) Test cross
150. A cross between AaBB X aa BB yields a
genotypic ratio of :-
(1) 1 AaBB: 1 aaBB (2) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB
(3) 3AaBB : 1 aa BB (4) All AaBb
151. Dihybrid cross proves the law of :-
(1) Law of segregation
(2) Law of purity of gametes
(3) Law of dominance
(4) Independent assortment
152. The percentage of ab gametes produced by AaBb
parent will be :-
(1) 12.5 (2) 25 (3) 50 (4) 75
144. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 145.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
146. (a)
(b)
(c) (d)
(1) d (2) a, d
(3) a, b (4) c, d
147. :-(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 148.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
149. (1) (2) (3) (4)
150. AaBB x aaBB (1) 1 AaBB : 1 aaBB (2) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB
(3) 3 AaBB : 1 aaBB (4) AaBb
151. (1) (2) (3) (4)
152. AaBb ab
(1) 12.5 (2) 25 (3) 50 (4) 75
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153. In a cross 45 tall & 14 dwarf plants were obtained,
the genotype of parents was :-
(1) TT × TT (2) TT × Tt
(3) Tt × Tt (4) TT × tt
154. A test cross is performed :
(1) by selfing of F2-generation plants
(2) by selfing of F1-generation plants
(3) to determine whether F1-plant is homozgous
or heterozygous
(4) between a homozygous dominant and
homozygous recessive plant
155. When the phenotypic and genotypic ratio resemble
in the F2 generation it is an example of :-
(1) Independant assortment
(2) Qualitative inheritance
(3) Segregation of factors
(4) Incomplete dominance
156. Which of the following is the example of
co-dominance :-
(1) HbA HbA, IA IB (2) Hbs Hbs, IA IB
(3) HbA Hbs, IA IB (4) Hbs Hbs, IA IA
157. The phenomenon in which an allele of one gene
suppresses the expression of an allele of another
gene is known as :-
(1) Dominance (2) Inactivation
(3) Epistasis (4) Suppression
158. Some of the dominant traits studied by Mendel were :-
(1) Round seed shape, constricted pod shape and
axial flower position
(2) Yellow seed colour, inflated pod shape and
axial flower position
(3) Yellow seed colour, violet flower colour and
yellow pod colour
(4) Axial flower position, green pod colour and
green seed colour
159. A woman with albinic father marries an albinic
man. The proportion of her progeny is
(1) 2 normal : 1 albinic
(2) All normal
(3) All albinic
(4) 1 normal : 1 albinic
160. If one parent has blood group A and the other
parent has blood group B. The offsprings have
which blood group :-
(1) AB only (2) O only
(3) B only (4) A, B, AB, O
153. 4514 (1) TT × TT (2) TT × Tt
(3) Tt × Tt (4) TT × tt
154. :
(1) F2- (2) F1-(3) F1-
(4)
155. f2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
156. :-
(1) HbA HbA, IA IB (2) Hbs Hbs, IA IB
(3) HbA Hbs, IA IB (4) Hbs Hbs, IA IA
157.
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 158.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
159. (1) 2 : 1 (2) (3) (4) 1 : 1
160. 'A' 'B' (1) AB (2) O
(3) B (4) A,B, AB, O
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161. (A) Pleiotropic genes have multiple phenotypic effect.
(B) Muliple alleles exhibit same phenotypic
expression.
(C) Polygenes exhibit continuous variation.
(1) Statement (A), (B) and (C) are correct
(2) Statement (A), (C) correct and (B) is incorrect
(3) Statement (A), (B) and (C) are incorrect
(4) Statement (B) and (C) are correct and (A) is
incorrect
162. Which of the followig is a good example of
multiple allele ?
(1)ABO blood groups
(2) Size of starch grain in pea
(3)Shape of seed
(4)Flower colour in pea
163. Cytoplasmic male sterility is inherited :-
(1) Maternally
(2) Paternally
(3) Both
(4) Bacteriophage multiplication
164. Extranuclear inheritance is a consequence of
presence of genes in :-
(1) Lysosomes and ribosomes
(2) Mitochondria and chloroplasts
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
(4) Ribosomes and chloroplast
165. A dihybrid ratio of 1:4:6:4:1 is obtained instead
of 9:3:3:1. This is an example of :-
(1) Complementary gene
(2) Supplementary gene
(3) Polygenic inheritance
(4) Incomplete dominance
166. In totmato, genotype aabbcc produces 100g
tomatoes and AABBCC produces 160g
tomatoes. What is contribution of each
polygene in the production of tomatoes:-
(1) 10 g (2) 20 g
(3) 30 g (4) 40 g
167. What would be the nature of children if a colour
blind woman marries a normal man :-
(1) Colourblind daughter & normal sons
(2) Colourblind sons and carrier daughters
(3) Normal sons & carrier daughters
(4) Normal sons & Normal daughters
161. (A)
(B)
(C)
(1) (A), (B) (C)
(2) (A), (C) (B)
(3) (A), (B) (C)
(4) (B) (C) (A)
162. (1)ABO (2) (3)(4)
163. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 164.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 165. 9 : 3: 3 : 1 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
166. aabbcc 100g AABBCC 160g :-(1) 10 g (2) 20 g
(3) 30 g (4) 40 g
167. (1) (2) (3) (4)
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168. In maize coloured endosperm (C) is dominant
over colourless (c) and full endosperm (R) is
dominant over shrunken (r). When a dihybrid of
F1-generation was test crossed it produced four
phenotypes in the following percentage
Coloured and Full = 45%
Coloured – Shrunken = 5%
Colourless – Full = 4%
Colourless – Shrunken = 46%
From these data what would be distance between
the two non allelic genes :-
(1) 48 unit (2) 9 unit
(3) 4 unit (4) 12 unit
169. There are three genes a, b, c percentage of crossing
over between a and b is 20%, b and c is 28% and
a and c is 8%. What is the sequence of genes on
chromosome
(1) b, a, c (2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, b (4) None
170. How many linkage group are there in bacteria
E.coli :-
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Four (4) None
171. Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human
males than in human females because –
(1) This disease is due to a Y–linked recessive
mutation
(2) This disease is due to an X–linked recessive
mutation
(3) This disease is due to an X–linked dominant
mutation
(4) A greater proportion of girls die in infancy
172. Who postulated the 'Chromosome Theory of
Inheritance' :-
(1) De Vries
(2) Mendel
(3) Sutton and Boveri
(4) Morgan
168. (C) (c) (R) (r)
F1
= 45%
= 5%
= 4%
= 46%
:-
(1) 48 unit (2) 9 unit
(3) 4 unit (4) 12 unit
169. a, b, c a b 20%, b c 28% a c
8%
(1) b, a, c (2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, b (4)
170. E.coli
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
171.
–
(1) Y–
(2) X–
(3) X-
(4) 172.
:-(1) (2) (3) (4)
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173. :-(1) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3)
174. _____
_______
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
175. (1) (2) (3) (4)
176.
(1) 2A + XY (2) 2A + XO
(3) 2A + YY (4) 2A + XX
177. (1) 1/2 (2) 1/5
(3) 1 (4) 178. Random mating population
28,800 49% (1) 21% (2) 42%
(3) 32% (4) 9%
179.
(1) X
(2) Y (3) (4)
173. Frequency of crossing over will be relatively more
if :-
(1) distance between the two genes is less
(2) distance between the two genes is more
(3) linked genes are more
(4) both (2) & (3)
174. Morgan coined the term_____ to describe the
physical association of genes on a chromosome
& the term_______ to describe the generation of
non-parental gene combinations.
(1)Recombination; Linkage
(2)Recombination; Non-recombination
(3)Linkage; Non-recombination
(4)Linkage; Recombination
175. Which of the following possess homogametic male?
(1) Plants (2) Man
(3) Insect (4) Birds
176. Which chromosome set is found in male grass
hopper ?
(1) 2A + XY (2) 2A + XO
(3) 2A + YY (4) 2A + XX
177. A family has five girls and no son, the probability
of the occurance of son in 6th child is :-
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/5
(3) 1 (4) No chance
178. In a Random mating population of 28,800
individuals percentage of dominant homozygous
individuals is 49% find out the percentage of
heterozygous individual –
(1) 21% (2) 42%
(3) 32% (4) 9%
179. Predict from the following chart
(1) Character is dominant and carried by X
chromosome
(2) Character is carried by Y chromosome
(3) Character is sex linked recessive
(4) Character is autosomal recessive
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Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/09-07-2016
180. Which of the following symbol is used for mating
between relatives (Consanguineous mating)
(1) 5 (2)
(3) (4)
180.
(1) 5 (2)
(3) (4)
Your moral duty is to prove that
is
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in NEET-II 2016