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This is to certify that, the entries of NEET-2019 Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written and verified.
Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature
General Instruction01. This questions booklet contains 180 Objective Type Questions (Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Physics [Question No. : 1-45]; 4 (FOUR) marks for each correct response,1/4th MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the totalscore will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
02. Chemistry [Question No : 46-90]; 4(FOUR) marks for each correct response,1/4 MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the totalscore will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
03. Biology [Question No : 91-180]; 4 (FOUR) marks for each correct response,1/4 MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the totalscore will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
04. The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the examination.05. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.06. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Questions Booklet and Answer Sheet and make the correct
entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheet are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special careshould be taken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be taken to fill QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION, SERIAL No.and NEET-2019 Roll no. accurately. The candidate must sign on the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.
07. Determine the one correct answer from out of the four available options given for each question.08. Fill the appropriate circle completely like this for answering a particular question. Mark with Black ink ball point pen only.09. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.10. Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answers once marked.11. Rough work should be done only one the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should not be done on the
Answer Sheet.12. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over Answer sheet is to be returned to the invigilator. Confirm that both the
candidate and invigilator have signed on question booklet and Answer Sheet.13. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of examination.
Roll No. Question Booklet Sr. NoQuestion Booklet Version
(Write this number onyour Answer Sheet)11
Mark720
GroupPCB
Date : 29/03/2020Time : 3 Hours
Biology - 90 Physics - 45Chemistry - 45
PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 06NEET 2020
0
Test SyllabusBiology : NCERT Unit - I To Unit - V
Chemistry : GOC and Isomerism
Physics : Electric Charges and Field, Electric Potential and Capacitance
Cont. No. 7304567567, 7304730730, 7261960000, 7972123533, 9421473208, 9156710417
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Section ‘A’ : Biology01. _________?
How many of the following statements related tothe above diagram are not wrong1. Heterosporous condition of sporophyte2. Vascular gametophyte3. Vascular and recessive sporophyte4. Dominent sporophyte5. Dependent gametophyte6. Female gametophyte retained on the parentsporophyte for variable period.(1) 3 (2) 2(3) 1 (4) 4
02. An elaborate or advanced mechanism of sporedispersal is found in(1) Marchantia and Sphagnum(2) Funaria and Fern(3) Marchantia and Riccia(4) Sphagnum and Funaria
03. The Male and Female gametophytes do not have anindependent Free living existence in.........(1) Pinus and Funaria(2) Funaria and Fig(3) Cedrus and Cycas(4) Dryopteris and Pteris.
04. The microspores released from male cone ofgymnosperm come in contact with the opening ofthe.......(1) Ovary(2) Megasporongium(3) Archegonia(4) Antheridia.
05. In Cycas plant,.....(1) Gametophyte is haploid & free-living(2) Sporophyte is diploid and recessive(3) Gametophyte is dependent(4) Sporophyte is dependent.
06. Male gametophyte with least number of cell ispresent in(1) Dryopteris(2) Funaria(3) Sphagnum(4) Pinus
07. Which of the following statements is not trueregarding Pteridophytes(1) Some pteridophytes are heterosporous(2) Gametes are formed after meiosis(3) Their main plant body is diploid(4) Sporophyte possess xylem & phloem.
08. Read the following statementsa. Pinus and mango are heterosporousb. Gametophyte of fern is independentc. Independent gametophyte is seen in dicot andmonocotd. Spore produces sporophytee. Gametes are formed after meiosis(1) Statement a, b and d are correct(2) Statement c, d and e are correct(3) Statement a, d and e are correct(4) Statement c, d and e are incorrect.
09. External as well as internal features considered forflowering plants in classification was given by.....(1) Linnaeus(2) Aristotle(3) G.Bentham & Hooker(4) R. H. Whittaker.
10. Fusion between one large, static female gamete andsmaller flagellated male gamete is found in(1) Spirogyra (2) Chlamydomonas(3) Udorina (4) Volvox.
11. Frog differs from humans in possessing(1) Thyroid as well as parathyroid(2) Paired cerebral hemisphere(3) Hepatic portal system(4) Nucleated red blood cells
12. In male cockroaches sperms are stored in which partof the reproductive system(1) Seminal vesicles(2) Spermatheca(3) Vas deference(4) Mushroom gland.
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13. Earthworm have no skeleton but during burrowing,the anterior end becomes turgid and acts as a hydraulicskeleton. It is due to(1) Setae(2) Coelomic fluid(3) Blood(4) Gut peristalsis.
14. Earthworms are(1) Ureotelic when plenty of water is available(2) Uricotelic when plenty of water is available(3) Uricotelic under condition of water scarcity(4) Ammonotelic when plenty of water is available
15. What is found in a sponge?(1) Choanocytes(2) Nematocysts(3) Cnidoblasts(4) Statocyst
16. Among the following organisms, point out acompletely non-parasitic form(1) Sea anemone (2) Leech(3) Tape worm (4) Mosquito
17. Which one of the following is an example ofplatyhelminthes?(1) Trypanosoma (2) Schistosoma(3) Plasmodium (4) Wuchereria
18. Locomotory organs in Taenia are called(1) Setae (2) Parapodia(3) Flagella (4) None of these
19. Cymose inflorescence is present in _____(1) Trifolium(2) Tulip(3) Makoi(4) Chilli
20. Persistent calyx and edible placenta arecharacteristics of the _____(1) Fabaceae(2) Solanaceae(3) Liliaceae(4) Brassicaceae
21. How many stem in the list given below are used asfood or vegetableOnion, Garlic, Petunia, Potato, Tomato, Brinjal,Tobacco, Lupin, Sweet Pea, Colocacia, Turnip,Carrot.(1) Five(2) Three(3) One(4) Two
22. Sclereids are present in(1) Seed coat of legumes(2) Pericycle of sunflower stem(3) Xylem of root(4) Pulp of mango
23. Find the incorrect statement(1) Root hairs are unicellular(2) Root hairs absorb water & mineral(3) Guard cells contain chloroplast(4) Trichomes are involved in absorption of water
24. A simple mechanical tissue devoid of lignin is -(1) Parenchyma(2) Collenchyma(3) Sclerenchyma(4) Prosenchyma.
25. Tyloses are -(1) Traheal plugs which plugs the lumen of vessels(2) Compound sieve plates(3) Specialized secretory cells(4) Laticiferous cells.
26. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusivecharacteristic of living things?(1) Increase in mass from inside only(2) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro(3) Percept ion of events happening in theenvironment and their memory(4) Increase in mass by accumulation of materialboth on surface as well as internally.
27. Select the incorrect statement for consciousness asone of the characteristic of living organisms.(1) It is the most techinically complicated process(2) It is present in all organisms whether unicellularor multicellular(3) It is an obvious feature not found in prokaryotes(4) It is regarded as a defining feature of livingorganisms
28. The disadvantage of using common names forspecies is that(1) The names may change(2) One name does not apply universally(3) One species may have several common namesand one common name may be applied to twospecies(4) All of the above
29. Identify the generic name from the given scientificnamesPanthera leo, Canis familiaris, Rosa indica(1) Leo, Canis, indica(2) Panthera, Canis, Rosa(3) Leo, familiaris, indica(4) Panthera, Rosa, familiaris
30. Statement 1 : Linnaeus classified plants into trees,shrubs and herbs, on the basis of their morphologicalcharacters.Statement 2 : Aristotle divided animals into twogroups -Anaima and Enaima(1) Only statement 1 is correct(2) Only statement 2 is correct(3) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect
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31. A system of classification, in which external andinternal features are considered, is(1) Natural system(2) Phylogenetic system(3) Artificial system(4) Synthetic system
32. Which of the following bacterium develops flavourin tea and tabacco leaves ?(1) Streptococcus lactis(2) Azotobacter(3) Bacillus megatherium(4) Radicicola
33. Saxitoxins are secreted by(1) Desmids(2) Gonyaulax(3) Euglena(4) Red algae
34. Identify (a), (b) and (c) in the given diagram.
(1) (a) Mucor; (b) Aspergillus; (c) Agaricus(2) (a) Mucor; (b) Agaricus; (c) Aspergillus(3) (a) Aspergillus; (b) Mucor; (c) Agaricus(4) (a) Agaricus; (b) Aspergillus; (c) Mucor
35. The germinating seeds fat ty acids degradedexclusively in the(1) Mitochondria(2) Glyoxysomes(3) Peroxisomes(4) Spherosomes
36. A slide of human cheek cell is stained withmethylene blue and mounted in glycerin. Which ofthe following cellular organelle would you be ableto see under a microscope ?(1) Cell wall(2) Plasma membrane(3) Mitochondria(4) Golgi complex.
37. Select the incorrect match.(1) Lysosome - Recycling center of the cell(2) Nucleolus - Ribosome factory(3) Sub-metacentric chromosomes - ‘J’ shaped(4) Acrocentric chromosomes - ‘J’ shaped.
38. What are singer and Nicolson known for ?(1) One-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis(2) Plasma membrane fluidity(3) Fluid -mosaic model of plasma membrane(4) Prokaryotic chromosomal organization.
39. During mitosis endoplasmic ret iculum andnucleolus begin to disappear at(1) Late metaphase(2) Early prophase(3) Late prophase(4) Early metaphase
40. Given below is there presentation of a certain eventat a particular stage of a type of cell Division.Which is this stage ?
(1) Prophase of mitosis(2) Both prophase and metaphse of mitosis(3) Prophase I during meiosis(4) Prophase II during meiosis
41. A kinetochore consists of _______and sepecificsections of ________at the centromere.(1) Proteins, chromosomal DNA(2) Protein, RNA(3) Spindle, DNA(4) None of these
42. Best material for the study of mitosis in laboratoryis(1) Anther(2) Root tip(3) Leaf tip(4) Ovary
43. The given diagram is of
(1) Nitrogen base and nucleoside(2) Nucleoside and nucleotide(3) Lecithin and nitrogen base(4) None of these
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44. Proteins perform many physiological functions.Forexample, some functions as enzymes. One of thefollowing represents an additional function thatsome proteins discharge(1) Antibiotics(2) Pigment conferring colour to skin(3) Pigments making colour of flowers(4) Hormones
45. Many elements are found in living organisms eitherfree or in the form of compounds. One of thefollowing is not found in living organisms.(1) Silicon (2) Magnesium(3) Iron (4) Sodium
46. The difference of energy level of substrate with theenergy level of substrate at transition state is called(1) Activation energy(2) Transition energy(3) Latent energy(4) None of these
47. Which of the following is wrong statement?(1) Nodules in soybean plant export fixed nitrogenin the form of ureides(2) Amides are transported to other part of the plantvia xylem vessels(3) Amides are different from amino acids as theycontain more nitrogen(4) Serine is sulphur containing amino acid
48. Which of the following is right statement?(1) The process of transfer of amino group fromone amino acid to the keto group of keto acid iscalled as reductive amination(2) From aspartate more than 17 amino acids areformed through transamination(3) Ammonia synthesis by nitrate reductase requirelow input of energy(4) The cofactor of nitrate reductase is Mo
49. Leghaemoglobin produced in response to(1) Respiration(2) Photosynthesis(3) N2 fixation(4) Fatty acid oxidation
50. Which of the following statement is incorrect aboutleghaemoglobin?(1) It imparts pink or red color to the nodules(2) It is a Mo-Fe protein(3) It acts as O2 scavenger(4) It combines with O2 and protect nitrogenase
51. Fermentation is represented by the equation(1) C6H12O6 + 6O26CO2 + 6H2O + 673 k cal(2) C6H12O62C2H5OH + 2CO2+18 k cal
(3) 6CO2 + 12 H2OLight
Chlorophyll C6H12O6 +
6H2O + 6O2(4) 6CO2 + 6H2OC6H12O6+ 6O2
52. Match the correct answers with the type of respira-tion and respiratory substrates:
A Respiration 1 ProteinsB Floating respiration 2 StarchC Cytoplasmic respiration 3 CarbohydratesD Protoplasmic respiration 4 Lactose
Column I Column II
(1) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4(2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1(3) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4(4) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
53. Select the incorrect statement:(1) Plants have no special system for breathing orgaseous exchange.(2) Acetyl-CoA enter in TCA cycle running in ma-trix of mitochondria(3) The RQ depends upon the type of respitarorysubstance used during respiration.(4) In fermentation, the complete oxidation of glu-cose occur in some bacteria.
54. The aerobic respiration yields.(1) 8 NADH2, 2 FADH2, 2 ATP(2) 10 NADH2, 2 FADH2, 38 ATP(3) 12 NADH2, 30 ATP, H2O(4) 10 NADH2, 2 FADH2, 2 GTP, 2 ATP
55. Osmotic pressure is maximum in(1) Hydrophytes (2) Mesophytes(3) Xerophytes (4) Halophytes
56. Rate of transpiration is high in(1) C4 plants (2) C3 plants(3) CAM plants (4) Both C3 and C4 plants
57. Main function of lenticel is(1) Transpiration(2) Gaseous exchange(3) Guttation(4) Bleeding
58. Solution A has s = -30 bars and p = 5 bars.Solution B has s = -10 bars and p = 0 atm. Thetwo are separated by semipermeable membrane.Flow of water will be from(1) A to B(2) B to A(3) Equal in both directions(4) No flow of water
59. Choose the correct sequence of events duringwilting(1) Exosmosis, deplasmolysis, temporary wilting,permanent wilting(2) Exosmosis, plasmolysis, temporary wilting,permanent wilting(3) Endosmosis, plasmolysis, temporary wiltingpermanent wilting(4) Exosmosis, deplasmolysis, temporary wilting,permanent wilting
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60. Select the set of natural auxins :(1) IAA and NAA(2) IAA and 2, 4-D(3) IBA and IAA(4) 2, 4-D and IBA
61. Select the set of incorect statements :P. Gibberellins increase the length of grape stalks.Q. Auxins induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes.R. Cytokinins are used for promoting flowering inpineapples.(1) None (2) Q only(3) R only (4) P and R
62. Which set of plant parts tend to show limited growthover a period of time ?(1) Leaves and stem(2) Stem, root and flower(3) Flower, leaves and fruits(4) Leaves, stem and fruits.
63. All cells in higher plants are descendents of(1) Zygote(2) Endosperm(3) Integument(4) Nucellus.
64. Duct of Rivinus is related to(1) Nasopalatine duct(2) Parotid gland(3) Sublingual gland(4) Infraorbital gland
65. The wall of alimentary canal from Stomach torectum posses four layers. The sequence of theselayers is :(1) Serosa Mucosa Submucosa Muscularis(2) Muscular ies Serosa Mucosa Submucosa(3) Serosa Muscular is Mocosa Submucosa(4) Serosa Muscularis Submucosa Mucosa
66. During swallowing epiglottis covers opening of(1) Glottis(2) Oesophagus(3) Both (1) and (2)(4) Internal nostrils
67. The retroperitoneal kidney is(1) Kidney covered by peritoneum on posterior side(2) Kidney covered by peritoneum on ventral side(3) Kidney covered by peritoneum on dorsal side(4) Kidney uncovered by peritoneum on either side
68. Micturition is(1) Removal of urea from blood(2) Removal of uric acid(3) Passing out urine(4) Removal of faeces
69. The afferent and efferent vessels are(1) Arterial in nature(2) Venous in nature(3) One is arterial and the other is venous(4) None of the above
70. Deficiency of iodine in food or water leads to(1) Colour blindness(2) Simple goitre(3) Ophthalmic goitre(4) Grave’s disease
71. Dwarfism is a hormonal disorder due to(1) Deficiency of thyroxine secreted by the thyroid(2) Excess of thyroxine(3) Deficiency of STH produced by the pituitary(4) Deficiency of thyroxine and PRL
72. Deficiency of the adrenal cortex activity leads to(1) Cushing disease(2) Conn’s syndrome(3) Addison’s disease(4) Simmond’s disease
73. Vasopressin also known as ?(1) ADH(2) ACTH(3) LH(4) FSH
74. An area in the brain which is associated with strongemotions is :(1) Cerebral cortex(2) Cerebellum(3) Limbic system(4) Medulla
75. Human eyeball consists of three layers and itencloses:(1) Lens, iris, optic nerve(2) Lens, aqueous humor and vitreous humor(3) Cornea, lens, iris(4) Sclera, choroid, Retina
76. Wax gland present in the ear canal is called:(1) Sweat gland(2) Prostate gland(3) Cowper’s gland(4) Ceruminous gland
77. During the transmission of nerve impulse througha nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of theplasma membrane has which type of electriccharge?(1) First positive, then negative and again back topositive(2) First negative, then positive and again back tonegative(3) First positive, then negative and continue to benegative(4) First negative, then positive and continue to bepositive
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78. The majority of carbon dioxide produced by ourbody cells is transported to the lungs:(1) Dissolved in blood(2) As bicarbonates(3) As carbonates(4) Attached to haemoglobin
79. Membrane separating air in pulmonary alveoli fromblood in capillaries is :(1) Alveolar epithelium(2) Cardiac epithelium(3) Capillary endothelium(4) Both (1) and (3)
80. Hypoxia is the condition in which less energybecomes available to the tissues. This may be dueto :(1) Lesser oxygen in the atmosphere(2) More CO in the air(3) Less RBCs in blood(4) All of the above
81. After a deep inspiration and maximum expiration,the capacity of lungs is called:(1) Vital capacity(2) Tidal volume(3) IRV(4) ERV
82. Which of the following is called Hamburger’s shift?(1) Hydrogen shift(2) Bicarbonate shift(3) Chloride shift(4) Sodium shift
83. Increase in body temperature makes oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve:(1) Shift to left(2) Shift to right(3) Hyperbolic(4) Parabolic
84. Cardiac activity could be moderated by theautonomous neural system. Tick the correctanswer:(1) The parasympathetic system stimulates heartrate and stroke volume(2) The sympathetic system stimulates heart rateand stroke volume(3) The parasympathetic system decreases the heartrate but increase stroke volume(4) The sympathetic system decreases the heart ratebut increase stroke volume
85. Mark the pair of substances among the followingwhich is essential for coagulation of blood(1) Heparin and calcium ions(2) Calcium ions and platelet factors(3) Oxalates and citrates(4) Platelet factors and heparin.
86. The cells involved in inflammatory reactions are(1) Basophils(2) Neutrophils(3) Eosinophils(4) Lymphocytes
87. Which one of the following options is incorrect?(1) Hinge joint - between Humerus and Pectoralgirdle(2) Pivot joint - between atlas and axis(3) Gliding joint - between the carpals(4) Saddle joint - between carpal and metacarpalsof thumb
88. Macrophages and leucocytes exhibit :(1) Ciliary movement(2) Flagellar movement(3) Amoeboid movement(4) Gliding movement.
89. Which one of the following is not a disorder ofbone?(1) Arthritis(2) Osteoporosis(3) Rickets(4) Atherosclerosis
90. Which of the following pairs, is correctly matched?(1) Cartilaginous joint - skull bones(2) Hinge joint - between vertebrae(3) Fibrous joint - between phalanges(4) Gliding joint - between zygapophyses
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Section ‘B’ : Chemistry91. Consider the following statements.
1) i and ii both are correct2) i and reverse of ii are correct3) ii and reverse of i are correct4) i and ii both are incorrect
92. Which is the most stable arenium carbocation ?
1) 2)
3) 4)
93. Identify correct acidic strength order in the followingcompounds
(i) (ii) (iii)
1) iii > ii > i 2) ii > iii > i3) i > iii > ii 4) iii > i > ii
94. Arrange the following hydrogens in the order of theiracidic behaviour
1) i > iii > ii 2) ii > iii > i3) i > ii > iii 4) iii > ii > i
95. In which of the following molecule the mesomericeffect does not operate ?
1) 2)
3) 4)
96. Which of the following is the correct order of decreasingorder of heat of hydrogenation (magnitude ) ?
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
1) i > ii > iii > iv 2) ii > i > iii > iv3) iv > iii > i > ii 4) ii > iii > i > iv
97. The correct order of pKa is
1)
2) HClO4 > H2SO4 > HNO3> HNO23) HOCl > HOF > HOBr > HOI4) H2O2 > ROH > H2O (R = Et group)
98. Which of the following is not an example of tautomericequilibrium ?
1) 2 2H C CH C O CH CH C O| |
H H
� ��� ��
2) N N NH NH N N � ��� ��
3) CH N O C N OH � ��� ��
4) NH C O N C OH| |
� ��� ��
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99. How many stereoisomers of the following moleculeare possible ?
HOOC.CH=C=CH.COOH1) two optical isomers2) two geometrical isomers3) two optical and two geometrical isomers4) none
100. Total number of stereoisomer of compound is givenbelow
3 2 5CH CH CH CH CH CH C H|
Cl
1) 2 2) 43) 6 4) 8
101. In which of the following has minimum torsional strainand minimum Vander waal strain ?
i)H
CH3
CH3
H
H3CCH3
ii)H
CH3
CH3
HH3C
CH3
iii)H
CH3
CH3
CH3
HCH3
iv)H
CH3
CH3
CH3H
CH3
1) i 2) i i3) i i i 4) i v
102. Which of the following is an achiral molecule ?
1)H
CH3
Cl
ClH3C
H
2)H
CH3
Cl
HBr
CH3
3)H3C
CH3
H
OH
CH3
H4)
H
COOH
OH
OHH
COOH103. The absolute configuration of
OHH
CO2H
HHO
HO2C is
1) R, R 2) R, S3) S, R 4) S, S
104. Which one of the following compounds will not rotatethe plane of plane polarised light ?
1) 2)
3)
4)
105. Which of the following pairs show functional groupisomerism ?
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
1) i, iii, iv 2) i, iii3) i, ii, iii and iv 4) ii, iv
106. Which of the following relationships are correctlymatched ?
i)
Positional isomers
ii)
Identical
iii)
Positional isomers
iv)
1) i, ii, iv 2) i, ii, iii3) ii, iii, iv 4) iii, iv
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107.
Among these compounds, the correct order of C – Nbond lengths is1) IV > I > II > III 2) III > I > II > IV3) III > II > I > IV 4) III > I > IV > II
108. Write correct order of reactivity of following halogenderivatives :
(P)
(Q) CH2 = CH – Cl (R) Me3C – Cl(S) PhCH2Cl (T) Ph3C – Cl1) P > S > T > R > Q 2) T > S > P > R > Q3) T > P > S > R > Q 4) P > T > R > S > Q
109. Which structure is least stable resonating structure forketene (CH2 = C = O) ?
1) 2)
3) 4)
110. is :
1) Always +I group 2) always –M group3) always +M group 4) always –I group
111. Identify the binary mixture(s) that can be separated intothe individual compounds, by differential extraction,as shown in the given scheme :
1) C6H5OH and C6H5COOH2) C6H5COOH and C6H5CH2OH3) C6H5CH2OH and C6H5OH4) C6H5CH2OH and C6H5CH2COOH
112. Correct sequence of acid strength of the following fourcompounds will be
CO2H
NO2
CO2H
NO2
MeMe
(a) (b)CO2H
SO3H
CO2H
NO2
MeMe
(c) (d)1) c > a > b > d 2) c > a > d > b3) a > c > b > d 4) c > b > a > d
113. Arrange the carbanions, , , in order of their decreasing
stability :1)2)3)4)
114. The most unlikely representation of resonance structureof p-nitrophenoxide ion is :
1) 2)
3) 4)
115. Order of enolic content
P) Q)
R)
S)
1) Q > R > S > P 2) P > R > S > Q3) P > S > R > Q 4) S > R > P > Q
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116. and are :
1) positional isomer2) functional group isomer3) metamer4) chain isomer
117. Which of the following is a meso compound?
1) 2)
3) 4) All of these
118. Geometrical isomerism is possible in :1) formaldehyde hydrazone2) acetone oxime3) acetophenone oxime4) benzophenone oxime
119. Decreasing order of enol content of the followingcompound in liquid phase :
1) P > Q > R > S 2) R > Q > P > S3) R > Q > S > P 4) Q > R > P > S
120. Arrange the following in decreasing order of basicstrengthI. CH3CH2MgBr II. H – C CMgBrIII. CH3CH2OMgBr1) I, II and III 2) I, III and II3) III, II and I 4) II, I and III
121. The inductive effects of the group – CH3, –COO–, –Br, –NH3
+ respectively are1) +I, –I, +I, +I 2) +I, +I, –I, –I3) –I, –I, +I, +I 4) –I, +I, –I, +I
122. Which is the strongest base that can exist in water?1) NH2
– 2) CH3CH2–
3) NH3 4) HO–
123. Which of the following is not a valid resonancestructure of p-aminobenzaldehyde ?
1) 2)
3) 4)
124. Which of the following resonance structures wouldcontribute most to the resonance hybrid of molecule?
1)
2)
3)
4)
125. Which of the following compound is the strongest base?
1) 2)
3) 4)
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126.
What is formed is the above reaction ?
1)
2)
3)
4)
127. NH
NH
NH
NH
(a) (b) (c) (d)Correct order of basic strength is1) b > a > d > c2) b > a > c > d3) a > b > d > c4) a > b > c > d
128. C6H5–
2NH||
NHC p – NO2–C6H4–
NH||C –NH2
A B m–CH3–C6H4–
NH||C –NH2 CH3CONH2
C DThe correct order of basic strength is1) C > A > B > D 2) D > C > A > B3) C > A > D > B 4) D > C > B > A
129. Consider the acidic strength of benzoic acid. Whichstructural change in it is expected to increase its acidicstrength ?i) Methylation at ortho-position.ii) Chlorination at para-positioniii) Substitution of meta-H by OCH3iv) Substitition of H at para-position by SO3H
1) ii, iii, iv 2) iii, iv3) i, ii, iii, iv 4) i, ii, iii
130. Which is the most stabilised carbocation ?
1)
2)
3)
4)131. The correct order of stability of the following
carbocation is
1) i > ii > iii 2) iii > i > ii3) iii > ii > i 4) i > iii > ii
132. Arrange the following carbocation in decreasing orderof stability
1) i > iii > ii > iv 2) iii > iv > ii > i3) iv > iii > ii > i 4) ii > i > iii > iv
133. If nitrogen and sulphur are both present in an organiccompound, which ion is formed in Lassaigne’s testwhich confirm their presence ?1) Na2S & NaCN 2) NaSCN3) Na2SO3 & NaCN 4) Na2S & NaCNO
134. What is the correct decreasing order of acidic strenghtof the following ?i. CH3 – NH – CH2CH2OHii. CH3 – NH – CH2CH2CH2 – OHiii. (CH3)3N+ – CH2CH2OH1) iii > i > ii 2) iii > ii > i3) i > ii > iii 4) ii > i > iii
135. Consider the following bases(i) o-nitroaniline (ii) m-nitroaniline(iii) p-nitroaniline (iv) aniline1) i > ii > iii > iv 2) iv > iii > ii > i3) iv > iii > ii > i 4) iv > ii > iii > i
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Section ‘C’ : Physics136. The mobility of charge carriers increases with
1) increase in the average collision time2) increase in the electric field3) increase in the mass of the charge carriers4) decrease in the charge of the mobile
carriers137. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are
separated by a distance d. If F is the force ofrepulsion between the ions, the number ofelectrons missing from each ion will be (e beingthe charge on an electron)
1)eFd4 2
0πε2) 2
20
dFe4πε
3) 2
20
eFd4πε
4) 2
20
eFd4πε
138. Two identical conducting balls A and B havepositive charges q1 and q2 respectively but q1 q2.The balls are brought together so that they toucheach other and then kept in their originalpositions. The force between them is1) less than that before the balls touched2) same as that before the balls touched3) greater than that before the balls touched4) zero
139. The distance between charges 5 × 10–11C and– 2.7 × 10–11C is 0.2 m. The distance at which isthird charge should be placed from secondcharge in order that it will not experience anyforce along the line joining the two charges is1) 0.44 m 2) 0.65 m3) 0.556 m 4) 0.350 m
140. Three charges 1 ,Cμ 1 Cμ and 2 Cμ are kept atthe vertices A, B and C of an equilateral triangleABC of 10 cm side, respectively. The resultantforce on the charge at C is1) 0.9 N 2) 1.8 N3) 2.72 N 4) 3.12 N
141. Consider a non spherical conductor shown in thefigure which is given a certain amount of positivecharge. The charge distributes itself on thesurface such that the charge densities are 21 ,σσ
and 3σ at the region 1, 2 and 3 respectively. Then
3
3
1 2
1) 321 σσσ 2) 132 σσσ
3) 213 σσσ 4) 312 σσσ
142. Electrical force between two point charges is 200 N.If we increase 10% charge on one of the chargesand decrease 10% charge on the other, thenelectrical force between them for the samedistance becomes1) 198 N 2) 100 N3) 200 N 4) 99 N
143. A pendulum bob carries a negative charge –q.A positive charge + q is held at the point ofsupport. Then, the time period of the bob is
1) greater than gL2π 2) less than g
L2π
3) equal to gL2π 4) equal to g
2L2π
144. A charged particle of mass m and charge q isreleased from rest in uniform electric field E.Neglecting the effect of gravity, the kinetic energyof the charged particle after t second is
1) 2
2
2tEq M
2) q m2E2 2t
3)m 2
E2 22tq4)
tEqm
145. Two point charges – q and 2q
are situated at
the origin and at the point (a, 0, 0) respectively.The point along the X-axis where the electric fieldvanishes is
1) 2ax 2) a 2x
3)12
a 2x
4)12
a 2x
146. The electric potential at any point x, y, z in metresis given by V = 3x2. The electric field at a point(2, 0, 1) is1) 12 Vm–1 2) – 6 Vm–1
3) 6 Vm–1 4) –12 Vm–1
147. Consider a thin spherical shell of radius Rconsisting of uniform surface charge density .σThe electric field at a point of distance x from itscentre and outside the shell is1) inversely proportional to σ2) directly proportional to 2
3) directly proportional to x2
4) inversely proportional to x2
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148. If the uniform surface charge density on theinfinite plane sheet is σ, electric field near thesurface will be
1)02ε
σ2)
0ε3σ
4)0εσ
4)0ε
2σ
149. Which of the following plots represents thevariation of the electric field with distance fromthe centre of a uniformly charged non-conducting sphere of radius R ?
1)
E
R rO
1/r2 2)
E
R rO
1/r21/r2
3)
E
R rO
1/r2 4)
E
R rO
1/r2
E r
150. An electric dipole of moment p is lying along auniform electric field E. The work done inrotating the dipole by 90° is
1) pE 2 2)2
pE
3) 2 pE 4) pE151. Electric field strength due to a dipole at a point
on the axial line of dipole is1) from positive charge to negative charge2) along the equatorial line3) from negative charge to positive charge4) at an angle to axial line
152. A hollow metal sphere of radius 10 cm is chargedsuch that the potential on its surface becomes 80V. The potential at the centre of the sphere is1) 80 V 2) 800 V3) 8 V 4) zero
153. A small conducting sphere of radius r is lyingconcentrically inside a bigger hollow conductingsphere of radius R. The bigger and smallerspheres are charged with Q and q (Q > q) andinsulated from each other. The potentialdifference between the spheres will be
1)
Rq
rq
πε41
02)
rQ
Rq
πε41
0
3)
RQ
rq
πε41
04)
rq
RQ
πε41
0
154. The total electric flux emanating from a closedsurface enclosing an -particle (e = electroniccharge) is
1)0
e2ε 2)
0
eε
3) 0eε 4)4e0ε
155. A square surface of side L metre in the plane ofthe paper is placed in a uniform electric fieldE (volt/m) acting along the same place at an angleθ with the horizontal side of the square as shownin figure. The electric flux linked to the surfacein unit of V-m, is
E
1) EL2 2) EL2 cos θ3) EL2 sinθ 4) zero
156. Electric flux emanating through a surfaceelement ds = 5 i placed in an electric fieldE = 4i + 4j + 4k is1) 10 units 2) 20 units3) 4 units 4) 16 units
157. A point charge causes an electric flux of– 1.0 × 103 Nm 2C–1 to pass through a sphericalGaussian surface of 10.0 cm radius centred onthe charge. If the radius of the Gaussian surfacewere three times, how much flux would passthrough the surface ?1) 3.0 × 103 Nm 2C–1 2) –3.0 × 103 Nm 2C–1
3) –1.0 × 103 Nm 2C–1 4) –2.0 × 103 Nm 2C–1
158. A regular hexagon of side 10 cm has a charge5 µC at each of its vertices. Calculate the potentialat the centre of the hexagon.1) 5.4×106 V 2) 2.7×106 V3) 1.8×106 V 4) 5×106 V
159. A parallel plate capacitor with air between theplates has a capacitance of 8 pF. What will be thecapacitance if the distance between the plates isreduced by half, and the space between them isfilled with a substance of dielectric constant 61) 24 pF 2) 48 pF3) 72 pF 4) 96 pF
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160. Three capacitors of capacitances 2 pF, 3 pF and4 pF are connected in parallel. Determine thecharge on middle capacitor if the combinationis connected to a 100 V supply.1) 3 × 10–10 C 2) 2 × 10–10 C3) 3 × 10–10 C 4) 2 × 10–10 C
161. In a parallel plate capacitor with air between theplates, each plate has an area of 6 × 10–3m2 andthe distance between the plates is 3 mm. If this,capacitor is connected to a 100 V supply, what isthe charge on each plate of the capacitor?1) 0.9 × 10–9 C 2) 1.8×10–9 C3) 2.7 × 10–9 C 4) 3.6×10–9 C
162. A 12 pF capacitor is connected to a 50 V battery.How much electrostatic energy is stored in thecapacitor?1) 1.5 × 10–6 J 2) 1.5 × 10–7 J3) 1.5 × 10–8 J 4) 1.5 × 10–9J
163. A 600 pF capacitor is charged by a 200 V supply.It is then disconnected from the supply and isconnected to another uncharged 600 pFcapacitor. How much electrostatic energy is lostin the process?1) 8 × 10–6 J 2) 7 × 10–6 J3) 6 × 10–6 J 4) 5 × 10–6 J
164. In a hydrogen atom, the electron and proton arebound at a distance of about 0.5 Å : Estimate thepotential energy of the system in eV, taking thezero of the potential energy at infinite separationof the electron from proton.1) 13.6 eV 2) –27.2 eV3) 27.2 eV 4) –13.6 eV
165. Two charged conducting spheres of radii a andb are connected to each other by a wire. What isthe ratio of electric fields at the surfaces of thetwo spheres
1) ab 2)ab
3)ba
4) a + b
166. What is the area of the plates of a 2 F parallelplate capacitor, given that the separationbetween the plates is 0.5 cm?1) 1130 m2 2) 1130 km2
3) 1130 cm2 4) 1130 mm2
167. Obtain the equivalent capacitance of the networkin figure. For a 300V supply, determine thecharge and voltage across capacitor C1
1) 2 × 10–8 C, 200 V 2) 2 × 10–8 C, 100 V3) 2 × 10–8 C, 50 V 4) 2 × 10–8 C, 50 V
168. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor have anarea of 90 cm2 each and are separated by2.5 mm. The capacitor ischarged by connecting it to a 400 V supply. Howmuch electrostatic energy is stored by thecapacitor1) 16 µ J 2) 5.12 µ J3) 2.56 µ J 4) 25.6 µ J
169. A spherical capacitor consists of two concentricspherical conductors held in position by suitableinsulating supports. Find the capacitance of aspherical capacitor if r1 and r2 are the radii ofouter and inner spheres, respectively.
1)0 1 2
1 2
4 r rr r 2)
0 1 2
1 2
4 r rr r
3)0 1
1 2
4 rr r 4)
0 2
1 2
4 rr r
170. Identify the true statement1) Two large conducting spheres carrying
charges Q1 and Q2 are brought close to eachother. The magnitude of electrostatic force
between them exactly given by 1 22
0
Q Q4 r
,
where r is the distance between theircentres
2) If coulomb’s law involved 1 /r3 dependence(instead of 1/r2), Gauss’s law would be stilltrue
3) A small test charge is released at rest at apoint in an electrostatic field configuration.It travel along the field line passingthrough that point
4) We know that electric field isdiscontinuous across the surface of acharged conductor. then electric potentialwould also be continuous there
171. A small sphere of radius r1 and charge q1 isenclosed by a spherical shell of radius r2 andcharge q2. When the two are connected by a wirethen1) no charge flows2) sphere of radius r1 will burst3) charge q1 on sphere A will flow to the shell
B, no matter what the charge on the shellB is
4) charge q1 on sphere A will flow to the shellB, no matter what the charge on the shellA is
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172. A parallel-plate capacitor of area A, plateseparation d and capacitance C is filled with fourdielectric materials having dielectric constants k1,k2, k3 and k4 as shown in the figure below. If asingle dielectric material is to be used to havethe same capacitance C in this capacitor, then itsdielectric constant k is given by
1)1 2 3 4
2 3 1k k k k k
2)1 2 3 4
1 1 1 1 3k k k k 2k
3) k = k1 + k2 + k3 + 3k4
4) 1 2 3 42k ( k k k ) 2k3
173. A spherial drop of capacitance 1 F is broken intoeight drops of equal radius. capacitance of eachsmall drop is
1)1 F8 2)
1 F4
3)1 F2 4)
1 F16
174. Three capacitors are connected as shown in fig.The equivalent capacity between A and B is
1) C 2) 3C
3)1 C3
4)3 C2
175. The equivalent capacity of the combination asshown in figure.
1) C 2) 2C
3)3 C2
4)C2
176. Equivalent capacitance of the given combinationof five capacitances between A and C is
1) 8 F 2) 10 F
3) 4 F 4) 12 F177. Five capacitors, each of capacitance value C are
connected as shown in figure. The ratio ofcapacitance between P and R and the capacitancebetween P and Q is
1) 3 : 1 2) 5 : 23) 2 : 3 4) 1 : 1
178. A slab of material of dielectric constant K has thesame area as the plates of a parallel plate
capacitor but has a thickness 3 d,4
where d is
the separation of the plates. The ratio of thecapacitance C (in the presence of the dielectricK) to the capacitance C0 (in the absence of thedielectric K) is
1)3K
K 42)
3 K4
3)4K
K 34)
4 K3
179. A soap bubble is charged to a charged to apotential of 16 V. Its radius is, then doubled. Thepotential of the bubble now will be1) 16 V 2) 8 V3) 4 V 4) 2 V
180. On moving a charge of 20 C by 2 cm, 2 J of workis done, then the potential difference between thepoints is1) 0.1 V 2) 8 V3) 2 V 4) 0.5 V
