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1. Defective phagolysosome is a feature of A. Chronic granulomatous disease B .Chediak- Higashi syndrome C. Ataxia telangiectasia D. Fanconi anemia 2. Earliest changes of neoplastic transformation as seen at microscopic level is called A. Hyperplasia B. Metaplasia C.Dysplasia D.Carcinoma in situ. 3. Which is not seen with apoptosis? A. Cell shrinkage B.Nuclear condensation C.Inflammation D. All of the above 4. Perls Prussion blue test is the histochemical test for the demonstration of: A. Glycogen (B) Melanin (C) Hemosiderin (D) Bilirubin 5. Northern blot test is used for a) DNA analysis b) RNA analysis c) Analysis of proteins d) Enzyme analysis 6. Accumulation of sphingomyelin in phagocytic cells is feature of a) Gaucher Disease b) Niemann Pick Disease c) Down Syndrome d) Tay Sachs Disease

Pathology mcq 2015

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Page 1: Pathology mcq 2015

1. Defective phagolysosome is a feature of

A. Chronic granulomatous disease B .Chediak- Higashi syndrome

C. Ataxia telangiectasia D. Fanconi anemia

2. Earliest changes of neoplastic transformation as seen at microscopic level is called

A. Hyperplasia B. Metaplasia C.Dysplasia D.Carcinoma in situ.

3. Which is not seen with apoptosis?

A. Cell shrinkage B.Nuclear condensation C.Inflammation D. All of the above

4. Perls Prussion blue test is the histochemical test for the demonstration of:

A. Glycogen (B) Melanin (C) Hemosiderin (D) Bilirubin

5. Northern blot test is used for

a) DNA analysis b) RNA analysis

c) Analysis of proteins d) Enzyme analysis

6. Accumulation of sphingomyelin in phagocytic cells is feature of a) Gaucher Disease b) Niemann Pick Disease c) Down Syndrome d) Tay Sachs Disease

Page 2: Pathology mcq 2015

7. A newborn infant refuses breast milk since the 2nd day of birth, vomits on force-feeding but accepts glucose-water, develops diarrhea on the third day, by 5th day she is jaundiced with liver enlargement and eyes show signs of cataract. Urinary reducing sugar was positive but blood glucose estimated by

glucose oxidation method was found low. The most likely cause is deficiency of:

a) Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase b) Beta galactosidase

c) Glucose-6-phosphatase d) Galactokinase

8. Maltese cross is a characteristic feature of a) Cryptococcus neoformans

b) Babesia microti c) Blastomycosis d) Penicillium marfeni

9. If a chromosome divides in an axis perpendicular to usual axis of division it is going to form

A.Ring chromosome B.Isochromosome

C.Acrocentric D.Subtelocentric

Page 3: Pathology mcq 2015

10. A man has hepatosplenomegaly with pancytopenia. On biopsy of liver large cells are seen with a crumpled tissue paper appearance of nuclei. Which of the following may be deficient in this patient?

A.Glucocerebrosidase B.Sphingomyelinase

C.L-Iduronase D.Hexosaminidase

11. Fixative used in Histopathology

A.Ethyl Alcohol B.Buffered Neutral 10% Formalin

C.Glutaraldehyde D.Bouin’s Solution

12. Amniocentesis to detect chromosomal abnormalities can be done as early as

A. 14th week of gestation B. 18th week of gestation

C. 22nd week of gestation D. 26th week of gestation

13. Which of the following statements about definition of Hirsutism is correct?

A. Hirsutism is excessive facial hair.

B. Hirsutism is excessive distribution of facial and body hair in a female distribution pattern.

C .Hirsutism is excessive distribution of facial and body hair in a male distribution pattern.

D.Hirsutism is excessive distribution of body hair.

Page 4: Pathology mcq 2015

14. A 55 years old female presents with tinnitus, dizziness, and

history of progressive deafness. Differential diagnosis includes

all except:

a) Acoustic neuroma b) Endo-lymphatic hydrops

c) Meningioma d) Histiocytosis X

15 Acoustic neuroma commonly arises from

a) Superior division of vestibular nerve b) Inferior division of

vestibular nerve

c) Cochlear nerve d) VIIth nerve

16. Second Primary Tumor of Head & Neck most commonly

suspected in malignancy of

a) Oral cavity b) Larynx c) Hypo pharynx d) Para-nasal sinuses

17. A 15-year-old boy presented with painful swelling over the

left shoulder. Radiograph of the shoulder showed an osteolytic

area with stippled calcification over the proximal humeral

epiphysis. Biopsy of the lesion revealed an immature fibrous

matrix with scattered giant cells. Which of the following is the

most likely diagnosis?

a) Giant cell tumor b) Chondro-blastoma

c) Osteosarcoma d) Chondro-myxoid Fibroma

Page 5: Pathology mcq 2015

18. Which of the following usually produces osteoblastic

secondaries?

a) Carcinoma lung b) Carcinoma breast c) Carcinoma urinary bladder

d) Carcinoma prostate

19. An adult presents with oval scaly hypo-pigmented macules

over the chest and the back. The diagnosis is

a) Leprosy b) Lupus vulgaris c) Pityriasis versicolor d) Lichen planus

20. Acne vulgaris is due to involvement of

a) Pilo-sebaceous gland b) Eccrine gland c) Apocrine gland d)

Sebaceous gland

21. A 6-month-old infant presented with multiple papules and

exudative lesions on the face, scalp, trunk and few vesicles on

the palms and soles for 2 weeks. His mother had history of

itchy lesions. The most likely diagnosis is:

a) Scabies

b) Infantile Eczema

c) Infantile Seborrheic Dermatitis

d) Impetigo Contagiosa

Page 6: Pathology mcq 2015

22. Marker for rhabdomyosarcoma

A.Desmin B.Synaptophysin C.Keratin D.Synaptophysin

23. Primary cause of edema in Nephrotic Syndrome is (Nov 2010)

A.Na+ and Water retention B.Increased venous pressure

C.Protein Loss -ANS D.Hyperlipidemia

24. Infant born to a diabetic mother is at risk for all of the following, EXCEPT

A. Neonatal hepatitis B.Polycythemia

C.Hypoglycemia D.Congenital malformations

25. One life-threatening complication of this condition is

A.Hyperkalemia B.Hypernatremia

C.Metabolic acidosis D.Hypoglycemia

Page 7: Pathology mcq 2015

26. Spleen is palpable in all hemolytic anemias in a child of 8 years

of age, EXCEPT in

a. Thalassemia

b. Spherocytosis

c. Sickle – cell anemia

d. Haemolysis in malaria

27 Young women whose mothers took diethylstilbestrol during

pregnancy are likely to develop one of the following genital

malignancies

a. Squamous-cell carcinoma

b. Aden squamous carcinoma

c. Papillary adenocarcinoma

d. Clear-cell adenocarcinoma

28. .Micro albuminuria is defined as

a. 0.3-0.5 gm of 24 hrs urinary protein

b. < 0.03 gm of 24 hrs protein

c. 0.03 -0.3 gm of 24 hrs urinary protein

d.>2.5 gm24 hrs urine proteins.

Page 8: Pathology mcq 2015

29.. Dohle bodies seen in neutrophils of patients suffering

from sepsis are

A. Golgi complexes.

B. Toxic granules.

C. Dilated endoplasmic reticulum

D . Degenerated mitochondria

30. Struma ovarii is composed of

A. Mature thyroid tissue.

B. Immature thyroid tissue.

C. Primary ovarian carcinoid tissue.

D. None of the above

Page 9: Pathology mcq 2015

31.Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase levels are elevated in:

(A) AML. (B) CML

(C) CLL (D) Myeloid­leukemoid reaction

32. Phagocytosis was discovered by:

(A) Robert Koch (B) Burnet

(C) Edward Jenner (D) Metchnikoff.

33 .Best method to assess BM cellularity is: A. Trephine biopsy

B.M: E ratio is enough.

C, By high power.

D. ALL THE ABOVE.

Page 10: Pathology mcq 2015

34. By coulter, TLC= 22.5x109/L If NRBC are 200 per 100 leucocytes, so corrected leucocytic count equals:

e. 11.5 x 109/L

f. 22.3 x 109/L

g. 22.7 x 109/L

h. 7.5 x 109/L

35. All are very bad prognostic factors in ALL except? a. Very high TLC count

b. CNS involvement

c. Children less than 1 year old

d. ALL THE ABOVE.

36. Chromosomal translocation in case of CML is:

e. t(8:21)

f. t(9:22)

g. t(11:14)

h. t(8:22)

Page 11: Pathology mcq 2015

37. Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate is zero in:

b. Abetalipoproteinemia

c. Afibrinogenemia.

d. Asplenia

e. Aplastic anemia

38. By which of the following anticoagulants used in estimating

blood glucose, glycolysis is prevented:

A) EDTA

b) Heparin

c) Sodium fluoride

d) Sodium citrate

39. Sample for blood glucose estimation preserved while sending

it from PHC to Civil Hospital

a) Sodium fluoride

b) Citrate

c) EDTA

d) Heparin

Page 12: Pathology mcq 2015

40. Microspherocytes in peripheral smear are seen in

a. Congenital spherocytosis.

b. Autoimmune acquired haemolytic anaemia

c. Thalassemia

d. All of the above.

41. The morphology of RBC s in DIC is

A. Microcyte

B. Scistocyte

C.Macrocyte

D. Elliptocyte.

42 Doctor sending a sample requesting for lecithin spingomyelin ratio what is the sample?

a. Blood.

b. CSF

c. Amniotic fluid.

d. Urine

Page 13: Pathology mcq 2015

43. Cytological examination of pleural effusion in a 60 yrs old man revealed the presence of malignant cells. The most likely primary tumor will be:

e. Lymphoma.

f. Mesothelioma.

g. Cancer colon.

h. Lung cancer.

Page 14: Pathology mcq 2015

44. Unilateral small smooth kidney is seen in

A. reflux nephropathy

B.lobar infarction

C.renal artery stenosis.

D.chronic glomerulonephritis.

45. Sago spleen is seen in

A.Gauachers disease.

B.Malaria

C .Amyloidosis

D. feltys disease.

46. Autosomal dominant disorders’ include all the fallowing EXCEPT.

A.Polycystic kidney disease

B.famiial polyposis coli

Thalassemia

Hereditary spherocytosis.

Page 15: Pathology mcq 2015

4 7. All of the fallowing are mediators of inflammation except

A.Tumour necrosis factor alpha

B.Interleukin -1

C.Myeloperoxidase

D.Prostaglandins.

48. The tissue of origin of Kaposi s sarcoma is

A.lymphoid

B.Vascular

C .neural

D.muscular.

49. Which of the fallowing is known as guardian of the genome?

a. P53

b. B mdm 2

c. Cp14.

d. Atm.

50. Both hyperplasia and hypertrophy is found in

A.Pregnant uterus

B. Cardiac m muscle in cardiomegaly

C. Skeletal muscle in athlete

D. Breast development in puberty.

Page 16: Pathology mcq 2015

51. Haematoxylin bodies are seen

a. SLE

b. PAN

c. Dermatofibroma protrubarance

d. Wegeners granulamatosis

52. AML with gum infiltration is seen in with hepatospleenomegaly is seen in

a. ALL

b. M3

c. M4

d. M2

53.. Councilman bodies are seen in

a. Wilsons disease

b. Alcoholic hepatitis

c. Acute viral hepatitis

d. Auto immune hepatitis.

54. Stain not used for lipid

a. Oil red o

b. Congo red

c. Sudan III

d. Sudon block

Page 17: Pathology mcq 2015

55. MICHAELIS GUTMANN BODIES ARE SEEN IN

A. Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

B. Malakoplakia

C. Nail patella syndrome

D. Urinary bladder tumour

56. Finding of histopathological examination of of liver in a case of malaria

A.microabscess formation

B.kupffers cells hyperplasia with macrophage infiltration around the periportal area laden with pigments

C.non caseating granulomas

D. Nonspecific finding of neutrophilic infiltration

57. DIC IS seen in

a. Acute promyelocytic leukemia

b. ALL

c. CML

d. Transient myeloproliferative disorders,

58. PLASMAPHERESIS PLASMA EXCHANGE THERAPY IS USED IN THE TREATMENT OF

a. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

b. Disseminated intra vascular coagulation

c. Thrombotic thrombocytic purpura

d. Hemolytic uaremc syndrome

Page 18: Pathology mcq 2015

59. An undifferentiated malign ant tumour on immunohistochemical stain shows cytoplasmic positivity of most of the tumour cells for cytokeratin. Most probable diagnosis of the tumour

a. Sarcoma

b. Lymphoma

c. Carcinoma

d. Malignant melanoma

60. Peripheral smear with increased neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is highly suggestive of

a. Acute myeloid leukemia

b. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

c. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

d. Myelodysplastic syndrome

Page 19: Pathology mcq 2015

61. AMYLOID deposit s stain positively with all the fallowing except:

a. congored

b. crystal violet

c. methaenamine silver

d. thioflavin T

62. WHICH OF THE FALLOWING CARCINOMA MOST FREQUENTLY METASTASIS TO BRAIN

A. small cell carcinoma of lung

B.proastate cancer

C.Rectal carcinoma

D.Endometrial cancer.

Page 20: Pathology mcq 2015

63. A METASTATIC CARCINOMA OF IN THE BRAIN OF AN ADULT MOST OFTEN COMES FROM A PRIMARY IN THE

A.TOMACH

B.OVARY

C.ORAL CAVITY

D.LUNG

THE END

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5. CYTOLOGY MCQ.

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6. BLOOD BANK MCQ

1. A patient received 2 bags of blood intraoperative, after 5 hours he developed fever and rigors.

This is likely due to:

a. Platelet antibodies.

b. Leucocyte antibodies

c. Bacterial infection.

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