SSC CGL Practice Test

7/25/2019 SSC CGL Practice Test

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

CLASSMATE ACADEMY

Time Allowed : 2 Hour Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. This Booklet contains 200 questions in all

comprising the following four parts.

Part- A : General Intelligence &

Reasoning (50 Questions)

Part-B : General Knowledge

& General Awareness (50 Questions)

Part-C: Quantitative

Aptitude (50 Questions)Part-D: English

Comprehension (50 Questions)

2. Keep your mobile and electronic gadgets in

silent or switchoff mode. Dont cause

incovinience to others.

3. All questions are compulsory and carry equal

marks

4. The paper carries negative marking 0.25marks

will be deducted for each wrong answer.5. Before you start to answer the questions you

must check up this Booklet and ensure that it

contains all the pages and see that no page is

missing or repeated. If you find any defect in

this Booklet, you must get it replaced

immediately

6. You wil l be supplied the Answer Sheet

separately by the Invigilator. You must

complete and code the details of Name, Roll

Number, Ticket Number and Tes t Form

Numbe r on Side -I of the Answer Sheet

carefully. You must also put your signature and

Left Hand thumb impression on the Answer

Sheet at the prescribed place before you

actually start answering the questions. These

instructions must be fully complied with,failing

which, your, Answer Sheet will not be

evaluated and you will be awarded ZERO

mark.

7. Answers must be shown by complete ly

black-ening the corresponding ovals on Side-II

of the Answer Sheet against the relevant ques-

tion number by Black/Blue Ball-point pen only.

Answers which are not shown by Black/Blue

Ball-point pen Will not be awarded any mark.8. A machine will read the coded information in

the OMR Answer Sheet. In case the

information is incomplete or different from the

information given in the application form, such

candidate will be awarded ZERO mark.

9. The Answer Sheet must be handed over to the

Invigilator before you leave the Examination

Hall.

10. Failure to comply with any of the aboveInstructions will render a candidate liable to such

aciton/penalty as may be deemed fit.

11. The manner in which the different questions are

to be answered has been explained at the back

of this Booklet. Which you should read

carefully before actually answering the

questions.

12. Answer the questions as quickly and as

carefully as you can. Some questions may be

difficult and other easy. Do not spend too much

time on any question

13. No rough work is to be done on the Answer

Sheet. Space for rough work has been provided

below the questions.

TS039CD06 CGL 431PK9Test Form No.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO


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PART-A: GENERAL INTELLIGENCE &REASONING

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Directions (Q.1-9): In each of the following questions,

select the related letters/word/number from the given

alternatives.

1. 8 : 81 : : 64 : ?

(A) 125 (B) 137

(C) 525 (D) 6252. 149 : 238 : : 159 :?

(A) 169 (B) 248

(C)261 (D)268

3. BLOCKED: YOLXPVW: : ? : OZFMXS

(A) LAUNCH (B) DEBATE

(C) LABOUR (D) RESULT

4. M N :13 14 : : F R :?

(A) 7 19 (B) 5 17

(C)14 15 (D) 6 18

5. Hindu : Temple: : Jews : ?(A) Chruch (B) Gurudwara

(C) Mosque (D) Synagogue

6. Brain : Nerves: : Computer :?

(A) Calculator (B) Keyboard

(C) Mouse (D) CPU

7. AZBY : CXDW : : EVFU : ?

(A) GTHS (B) GHTS

(C) GSTH (D) TGSH

8. Gaint : Dwarf : : Genius: ?

(A) Wicked (B) Idiot

(C) Gentle (D) Tiny

9. Racket: Tennis : : ?

(A) Ball : Football (B) Glove: Cricket

(C) Board : Chess (D) Bat : Cricket

Directions (Q.10-18): In each of the following

questions, find the odd one from the given

alternatives.

10. (A) House (B) Wall

(C) Roof (D) Beam

11. (A) Milk (B) Soda water

(C) Cold drink (D) Beer 12. (A) Valley: Depth (B) Good: Bad

(C) High: Low (D) Black: White

13. (A)11 (B)13

(C)15 (D)17

14. (A) 21:24 (B) 28:32

(C) 54:62 (D) 70:80

15. (A) DECB (B) GDFE

(C) HKIJ (D) JFHG

16. (A) QePFoLA (B) OrDFkV

(C) DNeRiF (D) XZaWoB

17. (A) 1, 4, 3, 8 (B) 2, 4, 3, 9

(C) 3, 2, 3, 8 (D) 5, 3, 2, 918. (A) EV (B)BS

(C)IZ (D)DX

Directions (Q.19-20): In each of the following, which

one set of letters when sequentially placed at the

gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

19. a _ bb _ b aa _ bbb _ aa _

(A) baabb (B) abaaa

(C) bbaab (D) aabba

20. a _ a _ abab _ ba _

(A) bbab (B) abab(C) baab (D) abba


questions, a series is given with missing term(s).

Choose the correct alternative from the given ones

that will complete the series.

21. 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18, ?, 54

(A) 18 (B) 27 (C) 36 (D) 81

22. 3, 10, 29, 66, 127, ?

(A) 164 (B) 187 (C) 216 (D) 218

23. Z, X, S, I, R, R, ?, ?

(A) G, I (B) J, I (C) J, K (D) K, M

24.

(A) 16 (B) 21

(C) 61 (D) 81

25. If in a certain code, TWENTY is written as 863985

and ELEVEN is written as 323039, how is

TWELVE written in that code?

(A) 863203 (B) 863584(C) 863903 (D) 863063

26. In a certain code, RAIL is written as KCTN and

SPEAK is written as CGRUM. How will AVOID

be written in that code?

(A) FKQXC (B) KQXCF

(C) KRXCF (D) KQVCB


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27. If GO=32, SHE=49, then SOME will be equal to

(A) 56 (B) 58

(C) 62 (D) 64

28. If each circle represents a class of objects/ ideas,

written below then find out the answer figure which

illustrates better the relationship among them:

Cats, Rats, Animals

(A) (B) (C) (D)

29. If 38+15=66 and 29+36=99, then 82+44=?

(A) 77 (B) 88

(C) 80 (D) 94

Directions (Q.30): In the following questionrepresented by one one set of numbers as given in

any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers

given in the alternatives are represented by two

classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below.

The columns and rows of Matrix1 are numbered from

1 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to

9. A letter from these matrices can be represented

first by its row and next by its column, e.g. M can

be represened by 66, 58, etc. Similarly, you have to

identify the set for the word SALM.

30. MATRIX I MATRIX II

0 31 2 4

0 VP A I R

V1 I P R A

V2 A R P I

3 V I P R A

V4 R A I P

5 6 7 8 9

5 S L K M E

6 SK M E L

7 SM E L K

8 SL K E M

9 SE M L K

(A) 55, 20, 56, 59 (B) 79, 13, 69, 75

(C) 96, 34, 76, 89 (D) 67, 21, 85, 97

31. An interview of 60 persons to know whether they

play Tennis, Chess or Carrom was conducted. The

data so obtained has been summarized in a pictorial

diagram as shown. Study the diagram and answer

the question. How many persons do not play any

games?

(A) 28 (B) 7 (C) 4 (D) 3

32. K is senior to G. G is senior to A. A is junior to R, R

is junior to G. Who is the most senior?

(A) G (B) R (C)K (D)ADirections (Q.33-35): In each of the following

questions,statements are given followed by

conclusions. You have to consider the statements. to

be true even if they seem to be at variance from

commonly known facts. You have to decide which of

the given conclusions, if any follow from the given

statements.

33. Statements : Most teachers are boys.

Some boys are students.

Conclusions: I. Some students are boys.

II. Some teachers are students.

(A) Only conclusion I follows

(B) Only conclusion II follows

(C) either conclusion I or II follows

(D) neither conclusion I nor II follows

34. Statements:Bureaucrats marry only intelligent girls.

Tanya is very intelligent.

Conclusions: I. Tanya will marry a bureaucrat.

II. Tanya will not marry a bureaucrat.

(A) Only conclusion I follows

(B) Only conclusion II follows(C) either conclusion I or II follows

(D) neither conclusion I nor II follows


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35. Statements: Some papers are cats.

All cats are bats.

No bat is horse.

Conclusions: I. Some papers are horses.

II. No horse is cat

III. Some bats are papers.

IV. All papers are bats.

(A) Only I and II follow(B) Only II and III follow

(C) Only III and IV follow

(D) Only I and IV follow

36. Arrange the following in a logical order:

1.Ploughing 2. Weeding

3. Sowing 4. Harvesting

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 1, 3, 2, 4

(C) 2, 3, 1, 4 (D) 1, 2, 4, 3

37. Arrange the following words as per order in the

dictionary:1. Slide 2. Slice 3. Slick 4. Slid

(A) 4, 3, 2, 1 (B) 4, 2, 3, 1

(C) 2, 4, 1, 3 (D) 2, 3, 4, 1

38. Refer to the information provided below,

M+N means M is father of N

M N, means M is daughter of N

MN means M is son of N

M N means M is wife of N

How is D related to G in the expression D F+G?

(A) Wife (B) Son

(C) Sister (D) Daughter

39. If + stands for , stands for , stands

for and stands for +, then which one of

the following equations is correct?

(A) 15 3+4-2 2=20

(B) 15 3+4-2 2=14

(C) 15 3-2+2 2=7

(D)15 3-2+2 2=7

40. Six children A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a

row. B is between F and D. E is between A and C.

A does not stand next to either F or D. C does notstand next to D. F is between which of the

following pairs of children?

(A) B and D (B) B and A

(C) B and E (D) B and C

Directions (Q.41-42):Choose the figure which is

different from the rest

41.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

42.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

43. Count the number of squares in the following figure:

(A)18 (B)14 (C)10 (D) 944. The mirror image ofXgiven below is

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

45. The water image of Xgiven below is

(A) (B) (C) (D)


questions, which answer figure will complete the

pattern in the question figure?

46.(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

47.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)


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48. A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given.

Figure out the alternative that would appear when

the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

49. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shownbelow in the question figures. From the given

answer figures, indicate how it will appear when

opened.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

50. Select the figure which is embedded in the givenfigure (X)

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)


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PART-B: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & GENERAL AWARENESS51. Consider the following events:

1. Reign of Kanishka

2. Visit of Hieun Tsang

3. Alexander's invasion

4. Ashoka's Kalinga War

The correct chronological order of these event is:

(A) 2, 1, 3, 4 (B) 1, 3, 4, 2

(C) 3, 4, 1, 2 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1

52. Match the columns:

(a) Chaitya 1. Amravati

(b) Stupa 2. Shravanabelagola

(c) Gomateswara 3. Karle

(d) Brick temple 4. Rajgir

5. Halebid

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)(A) 3 1 4 2

(B) 1 2 3 4

(C) 3 1 2 4

(D) 3 1 2 5

53. The founder of the Bahamani Kingdom was

(A) Alauddin Hasan Bahaman Shah

(B) Mohammad Shah I

(C) Ahmad Shah

(D) Firuz Shah

54. Who was the founder of Srivaishnava sect?

(A) Ramanuja (B) Nathamuni

(C) Uyyakondar (D) Yamunacharya

55. Match the following:

Invader Year of Invasion

(a) Mahmud of Ghazni 1. 1761 A.D.

(b) Timurlane 2. 1739 A.D.

(c) Ahmad Shah Abdali 3. 1398 A.D.

(d) Nadir Shah 4. 1000 A.D.

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 3 1 2

(B) 3 2 4 1

(C) 2 4 3 1

(D) 1 4 3 2


(a) My experiments With-Truth

(b) Indian Unrest

(c) Poverty & Un-British rule in India

(d) The First War of independence

1. Dadabhai Naoroji

2. Lokmanya Tilak

3. Mahatma Gandhi

4. V.D. Savarkar

5. V.Chirol

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 1 2 5

(B) 3 1 2 4

(C) 3 5 1 4

(D) 5 2 3 157. Which of the following revolutionaries had

participated in the Non- Cooperation Movement

and was teacher in national school in Chittagong?

(A) Jatin Das (B) Surya Sen

(C) Bhagat Singh (D) Chandrasekhar Azad

58. The capital of India was shifted to Delhi during the

reign of:

(A) Minto (B) Chemsford

(C) Curzon (D) Hardinge

59. Who among the following was associated with the'Battle of Waterloo' held in JUne 1815?

(A) Hitler (B) Napoleon

(C) Bismarck (D) Giuseppe Mazzini

60. The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India was:

(A) present in the original constitution

(B) added by First Constitutional Amendment Act

(C) added by the Eighth Constitutional Amendment

Act

(D) added by the Forty-Second Constitutional

Amendment Act61. How many times the Preamble has been amended

so far?

(A) Once (B) Twice

(C) Thrice (D) Never

62. In which one of the following cases the Supreme

Court of India gave verdicts which have a direct

bearing on the Centre-State relations?

(A) Keshavananda Bharati case

(B) Vishakha case

(C) S.R. Bommai case(D) Indira Sawhney case


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63. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds

office for a period of

(A) six years

(B) during the pleasure of the President

(C) for six years or till the age of 65 years, which

ever is earlier

(D) for five years or till the age of 60 years, which

ever is earlier

64. Who is the chief executive officer of a Municipal

Corporation?

(A) Mayor (B) Commissioner

(C) Deputy Mayor (D) Secretary

65. Petroleum is generally found in:

(A) igneous intrusions into sedimentary strata

(B) old fold mountains

(C) alluvial deposits of the river valleys

(D) folded marine sedimentary rocks

66. In the Southern hemisphere the Westerlies blow

from:

(A) north (B) north east

(C) north west (D) south east

67. What type of farming is practised in the densely

populated regions of the world?

(A) Commercial farming

(B) Extensive farming

(C) Intensive farming

(D) Plantation farming68. Karakoram Highway connects:

(A) Pakistan and Afghanistan

(B) Pakistan and China

(C) Pakistan and Aksai Chin

(D) Srinagar and Jammu


Rivers Origin

(a) Indus 1. Uttarakhand

(b) Ganga 2. Tibet

(c) Godavari 3. Madhya Pradesh(d) Narmada 4. Maharashtra

5. Karnataka

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 4 3 2 1

(C) 1 2 3 4

(D) 3 4 1 2

70. Coastal Andhra Pradesh and Orissa often face

natural disasters due to:

(A) cyclones (B) earthquakes

(C) landslides (D) tornadoes

71. Which are the three indigenous silk worms of

India?

(A) Eel, Muga and Carp

(B) Tassar, Mullet and Gir

(C) Muga, Eel and Gir

(D) Tassar, Muga and Eri

72. Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax?

(A) sales tax (B) custom tax

(C) excise tax (D) income tax

73. In India, present trend of rapid urbanisation is due

to:

(A) lack of employment oppurtunities in rural areas

(B) break up of joint family system

(C) influence of cinema and electronic media

(D) abolition of zamindari system

74. The basic attribute of a formal organization is

(A) esteem and prestige(B) roles and duties

(C) dominance and supremacy

(D) rules and regulations

75. The term Budget has been derived from the French

word 'Bougette' which means a:

(A) Document (B) Estimation

(C) Treasury (D) Wallet

76. The law of diminishing returns applies to:

(A) the short run, but not the long run.

(B) the long run, but not the short run.(C) both the short run and the long run.

(D) neither the short run nor the long run.

77. Labour is defined as

(A) Any work done without remuneration

(B) Any exertion of mind or body to get some

reward

(C) Helping the mother

(D) Helping the friends

78. The firm and the industry Demanad curve are one

and the same in _______

(A) Perfect competiton

(B) Monopolistic competition

(C) Duopoly

(D) Monopoly

79. Country that has higher population density than

India are:

(A) China (B) U.S.A.

(C) Britain (D) Bangladesh

80. Spell Check will find errors in which of the

following?

(A) Today is a rainy a day(B) Is a rainy

(C) Rainy today a day

(D) None of these


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www.classmatessc.com81. Refrigeration helps in food preservation by

(A) killing the germs

(B) reducing the rate of biochemical reactions

(C) destroying enzyme action

(D) sealing the food with a layer of ice

82. Who invented the mobile phones?

(A) Martin Cooper (B) Akio Morita

(C) Liu Chuanzhi (D) Koo In-hwoi83. Who invented the 'Jet Engine'?

(A) Sir Frank Whittle

(B) Karl Benz

(C) Thomas Savery

(D) Michael Faraday

84. Atom bomb is based upon the principle of:

(A) nuclear fusion

(B) nuclear fission

(C) both of them

(D) None of these

85. Which one of the following types of coal is difficult

to light in the open air?

(A) Anthracite (B) Bituminous

(C) Lignite (D) Peat

86. Which one of the following is associated with the

formation of brown air in traffic congested cities?

(A) Sulphur dioxide

(B) Nitrogen oxide

(C) Carbon dioxide

(D) Carbon monoxide

87. Who is associated with the invention of 'Nylon'?(A) J Nicephore Niepce

(B) John Corbutt

(C) Louis Pasteur

(D) Dr Wallace H Carothers

88. Venkataraman Ramakrishnan was jointly awarded

Nobel Prize in Chemistry in the year 2009 for the:

(A) theory of electron transfer

(B) studies of the structure and function of the

ribosome

(C) palladium catalyzed cross couplings in organic synthesis

(D) work in the area of olefin metathesis

89. Cockroach cannot survive in the water because its

respiratory organ is

(A) Gill (B) Trachea

(C) Book lung (D) Pulmonary Sac

90. Blue-green algae are included in the group

(A) Eubacteria (B) Cyanobacteria

(C) Protozoa (D) Fungi

91. A seed can germinate in the absence of

(A) adequate light

(B) supply of oxygen

(C) suitable moisture

(D) suitable temperature

92. Which of the following agricultural practices have

been primarily responsible for pollution of our

water resources?

(a) Use of live-stock manure

(b) Use of chemical fertilisers

(c) Excessive use of chemical pesticides

(d) Deforestation

(A) b and c (B) a, c and d (C) a and b (D) a, b and d

93. The only plant cells without nuclei among the fol-

lowing are:

(A) Cambium cells

(B) Root hairs

(C) Companion cells

(D) Tracheid cells

94. A man suffering from diabetes mellitus drinks water

more frequently as he has to eliminate from the blood

extra:(A) glucose (B) insulin

(C) glucagon (D) salt

95. An ant can see the objects all around it due to the

presence of:

(A) Eyes over the head

(B) Well developed eyes

(C) Compund eyes

(D) Simple eyes

96. Plants which flower only once in their life time are

known as

(A) polycarpic (B) monocarpic

(C) monogamous (D) monogeneric

97. Which of the following is not a classical language?

(A) Tamil (B) Telugu

(C) Odiya (D) Gujarati

98. The Bibek Debroy committee was set up to

suggest reform and restructuring of

(A) MTNL (B) Indian Post

(C) Niti Aayog (D) Indian Railways

99. The week-long Tribal Festival launched recently

by Tribal ministry is named as(A) Vanaj 2015 (B) Manthan 2015

(C) Vamsha 2015 (D) Tarunaya 2015

100. Which of the Following Person recently met the

Prime Minister and envinced interest in Digital

India?

(A) Dick Costolo, Twitter

(B) Larry Page, Google

(C) Mark Zuckerberg, Facebook

(D) Brian Acton, Whatsapp


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PART-C: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

101. A bag contains 600 coins of 25 p denomination and

1200 coins of 50 p denomination. If 12% of 25 p

coins and 24% of 50 p coins are removed, the

percentage of money removed from the bag is

nearly?

(A) 12.6 (B) 14.6

(C) 18.3 (D) 21.6

102. Two vessels A and B contain 40% and 65% of

alcohol respectively. If 3 litres from vessel A is mixed

with 4 liters of solution from vessel B, the ratio of

alcohol and water in the resulting mixture is:

(A) 10:19 (B) 23:15

(C) 19:16 (D) 15:17

103. A wine dealer who claimed to sell wine at costprice

mixes it with water and makes a profit of 40%. Findthe Concentration of wine in the mixture:

(A)5

62 %9

(B) 65%

(C)3

71 %7

(D)1

68 %2

104. A, B and C started a business with capitals of

Rs.25,000, Rs.30,000 and Rs.40,000 respectively.

After x months, A left with his capital, after x more

months B left with his capital. At the end of the year

they earned a profit of Rs.12,300. 'C' got Rs.7200

as his share. The value of 'x' is

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

105. Deepu borrows Rs.12,500 at 12% per annum for

3 years at S.I and Chandu borrows the same amount

for the same time period at10% per annum,

compounded annually. Who pays more interest and

by how much?

(A) Chandu by 262.50(B) Deepu by 362.50

(C) Chandu by 462.50

(D) Deepu by 462.50

106. Venkat borrows Rs.7000 at SI from a money lender.

At the end of 3 years he again borrows Rs.3000

and closes his account after repaying Rs.4615 as

interest after 8 years from the time he made the first

borrowing. Find the rate of interest.

(A) 4% (B) 5%

(C) 6% (D) 6.5%

107. An amount deposited on compound interest be-

comes 3400/- after 3 years and 5100/- after 4 years.

Find the amount it becomes after 5 years:

(A) 6560 (B) 7650

(C) 6650 (D) 7560

108. A tutor basic pay for a 40 hour work is Rs.2000

over time is paid for a 25% above the basic rate. In

a certain week, he worked overtime and total wagewas Rs.2500. He therefore worked for a total of

(A) 40 hours (B) 42 hours

(C) 46 hours (D) 48 hours

109. A team of 30 men is supposed to do a work in 38

days. After 25 days, 5 more men were employed

and the work was finished one day earlier. How

many days would it have been delayed if 5 more

men were not employed?

(A) 1 day (B) 2 days

(C) 3 days (D) 4 days

110. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 14 hrs and 16 hrs

respectively. The pipes are opened simultaneously

and it is found that due to leakage in the bottom it

took 32 minutes more to fill the cistern. When the

cistern is full, in what time will the leak empty it?

(A) 112 hrs (B) 115 hrs

(C) 120 hrs (D) 110 hrs

111. In a fort there was sufficient food for 200 soldiers

for 31 days. After 27 days, 120 soldiers left thefort. For how many extra days will the rest of the

food last for remaining soldiers?

(A) 12 days (B) 10 days

(C) 6 days (D) 8 days


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112. ABC is a triangle with base AB. D is a point on AB

such that AB=8 and BD=3. What is the ratio of the

areas of CBD to ABC?

(A) 8:3 (B) 5:3

(C) 3:5 (D) 3:8

113. A horse is tied to a pole fixed at one corner of a

50mx50m square field of grass by means of a 20mlong rope. What is the area of that part of the field

which the horse can graze?

(A) 1256 m2 (B) 942 m2

(C) 628 m2 (D) 314 m2

114. The perimeter of a triangle is 30cm and its area is

30cm2. If the largest side measures 13cm, what is

the length of the smallest side of the triangle?

(A) 3cm (B) 4 cm

(C) 5 cm (D) 6 cm

115. Two cubes of sides 6cm each are kept side by side

to form a rectangular parallelopiped. The area of

the whole surface of the rectangular parallelopiped

is:

(A) 432 (B) 360

(C) 396 (D) 340

116. A solid cube of side 3 cm of metal weights 15gm.

Find the weight of similar cube of side 12cm.

(A) 60gm (B) 300 gm

(C) 240 gm (D) None of these

117. A right circular cylinder is formed by rolling a

rectangular sheet of length 24 cm and breadth 22

cm along its breadth. The volume of cylinder is:

(A) 924 cm3 (B) 462 cm3

(C) 264 cm3 (D) 528 cm3

118. A metallic hemisphere is melted and recast in the

shape of a cone with base radius (R) as that of the

hemisphere. If H is the height of the cone, then:

(A) H=2R (B)2

H R3

(C) H 3R (D) H=3R

119. A man sold an article at 10% loss. Had he bought it

for 10% more and sold it for Rs.20 less, he would

have lost 20%. Original cost price of article is:

(A) Rs.200 (B) Rs.500

(C) Rs. 1000 (D) Rs.2000

120. A merchant earns 20% profit, even after allowing

20% discount on the marked price of an article.How much the marked price is above the cost price?

(A) 40% (B) 36%

(C) 44% (D) 50%

121. Given A is 50% larger than C and B is 25% larger

than C, then A is what percent larger than B?

(A) 20% (B) 25%

(C) 50% (D) 75%

122. The average tempareture of the town in the first four

days of a month was 41 degrees. The average for

the second, third, fourth and fifth days was 44

degrees. If the temparatures of the first and fifth days

were in the ratio of 9:11, then what is the temparature

on fifth day?

(A) 108 (B) 54

(C) 66 (D) 121

123. The average monthly expenditure of a family for the

first four months is Rs.2750, for the next three

months is Rs.2940 and for the last five months

Rs.3130. If the family saves Rs.5330 during thewhole year, find the average monthly income of the

family during the year

(A) 3400/- (B) 3500/-

(C) 3800/- (D) 4200/-

124. By walking at3

4of his usual speed, a man reaches

his office 20 minutes later than usual. His usual time

is

(A) 30 min (B) 60 min(C) 75 min (D) 1 hr 30 min

125. In a triangle ABC, BD and CE are perpendiculars

on AC and AB respectively. If BD=CE then the

ABC is:

(A) equilateral (B) isosceles

(C) right-angled (D) scalene


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11



126. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral and O is the centre

of the circle. If 0COD 140 and 0BAC 40 ,

then the value of BCD is equal to

(A) 700 (B) 900

(C) 600 (D) 800

127. Two trains running is the same direction at 40km/hr

and 22 km/hr completely pass one another in 1

minute. If the length of the first train is 125 m, the

length of the second train is :

(A) 125 m (B) 150m

(C) 175m (D) 200m

128. A steamer goes downstream and covers the distance

between two ports in 4 hours while it covers the

same distance upstream in 5 hours. If the speed of

the stream be 2km/hr, the speed of the steamer in

still water is :

(A) 16km/hr (B) 18km/hr

(C) 24 km/hr (D) 360 km/hr 129. O is the circum centre of the triangle ABC with

circumradius 13 cm. Let BC=24 cm and OD is

perpendicular to BC. Then the length of OD is

(A) 7 cm (B) 3 cm

(C) 4cm (D) 5cm

130. AB=8cm and CD=6 cm are two parallel chords on

the same side of the centre of a circle. The distance

between them is 1 cm. The radius of the circle is

(A) 5 cm (B) 4cm

(C) 3cm (D) 2cm131. In a right-angled triangle ABC, B is the right angle

and AC 2 5 cm. If AB-BC=2 cm then the value

of (cos2A-cos2C) is:

(A)2

5(B)

3

5 (C)

6

5(D)

3

10

132. If the perimeter of a right- angled triangle is 56 cm

and area of the triangle is 84 sq. cm, then the length

of the hypotenuse is (in cm)

(A)25 (B)50 (C)7 (D)24133. If r, r

1r

2, r

3have their usual meanings in a triangle,

the value of1 2 3

1 1 1

r r r is

(A) 1 (B) 0 (C)1

r(D) none of these

134. If in a triangle ABC

(sin A sin B sin C)(sin A sin B sin C) 3sin A sin B

then

(A)A = 600 (B) B = 600

(C) C = 600 (D) none of these

135. If1

x 3

x

, then find the value of4

4

1x

x

(A) 45 (B) 46 (C) 47 (D) 49

136. If a+b+c+d=1, then the maximum value of (1+a)

(1+b)(1+c)(1+d) is

(A)1 (B)

31

2

(C)

33

4

(D)

45

4

137. Equations of the straight lines containing two sides

of a right-angled triangle are given by y=x and y=0.

Of the following, the equation which cannot

represent the third side is

(A)x=5 (B) x=2

(C)x=0 (D) x=-3

138. The H.C.F. of three numbers is 12. If they are in

the ratio 1 : 2: 3, then the numbers are:

(A) 6, 12, 18 (B) 10, 20, 30

(C) 12, 24,36 (D) 24, 48, 72

139. If the average of mnumbers in n2and that of n

numbers is m2, then the average of (m+n) numbersis:

(A) (m-n) (B) mn

(C) (m+n) (D) (m/n)

140. If2sin cos

1cos sin

, then value of cot is:

(A)1

2(B)

1

3 (C) 3 (D) 2

141. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a

point A on the ground is 300. On moving a distanceof 20 metres towards the foot of the tower to a

point B, the angle of elevation increases to 600. The

height of the tower is

(A) 3 m (B)5 3 m

(C)10 3 m (D) 20 3 M


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SSC-CGL TIER-I12



142. If x2+y2-4x-4y+8=0, then the value of x-y is

(A) 4 (B) -4 (C) 0 (D) 8

143. 7 7 7................. ?

(A) 7 (B) -7 (C) 4 (D) -4

144. A can type 40 papers in 10 hours. A and B together

can type 60 papers in 10 hours. In how many hours

can B type 35 papers?(A) 17.5 (B) 18

(C)17 (D)18.5

145. The minimum value of 2 22sec cot is

(A) 2 2 1 (B)2

2 1

(C)2

2 1(D) 0

Directions(146-150): Study the following graph andanswer the questions givenbelow it.

25

40

60

45

65

50

75

80

0

10

20

30

40

50

60

70

80

90

2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008

Production of salt by a company

146. What was the percentage decline in the production

of salt from 2003 to 2004?

(A) 30% (B) 25%

(C) 33.33 % (D) 20%

147. The average production of 2004 and 2005 was

exactly equal to the average production of which of

the following pairs of years?

(A) 2006, 2007 (B) 2005, 2006

(C) 2003, 2006 (D) 2001, 2005

148. What was the percentage increase in production of

salt in 2008 compared to that of 2001?

(A) 125 (B) 150

(C) 320 (D) 220

149. In how many of the given years was the production

of salt more than the average production of the given

years?

(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

150. The highest rise is during:

(A) 2001-2002 (B) 2002-2003

(C) 2004-2005 (D) 2006-2007

Pr

oduction(In

10,0

00

tonnes)


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PART-D: ENGLISH COMPREHENSION

Directions (Q.151-160): In the following questions

some of the sentences have errors and some have

none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error.

The number of that part is your answer. If there is

no error, your answer is (D) i.e., No error.

151. Arun explained me his problem(A)/ and he asked

me(B)/ to help him.(C)/ No error(D)152. My father knows(A)/ the most of the engineers(B)/

working at BHEL.(C)/ No error(D)

153. Neroli oil is an essential oil(A) / obtained from(B)/

the flowers of orange trees.(C)/ No error(D)

154. Neurotoxin attacks (A) / the nervous system(B)/

and damage it.(C) / No error(D)

155. I went to see (A)/ the coal mines in Asansol(B)/

in last summer.(C)/ No error(D)

156. All his children (A)/ are knowing, (B)/ at least

one foreign language.(C) / No error(D)157. We dont (A) / discuss about the case (B) / in his

presence.(C)/ No error(D)

158. Who(A)/ do you think (B)/ that did it?(C)/

No error(D)

159. He didnt know(A)/ whether he will enjoy (B)/

himself.(C)/ No error.(D)

160. What are (A)/ their reasons (B)/ to say it?(C)/

No error(D)

Directions (Q.161-168): Read the following short

passages. After each passage, you will find several

questions based on what is stated or implied in thepassages. Answer the question that follow each

passage.

Passage -I

Vehicles do not move about the roads for

mysterious reasons of their own. They move only because

people want them to move in connection with the activities

which the people are engaged in. Traffic is therefore a

function of activities, and because, in towns, activities

mainly take place in buildings, traffic in towns is a function

of buildings.The implications of this line of reasoning are

inescapable.

161. Line 1 of the passage means that vehicles do not

move on the roads

(A) for reasons difficult to understand

(B) to serve specific purposes of people

(C) in a haphazard fashion

(D) in ways beyond our control

162. The author says that traffic is a function of activities.

He means that

(A) human activities are taking place(B) human activities are dependent on traffic.

(C) traffic is not dependent on human activities

(D) traffic is connected with human activities.

163. The author suggests by his argument that

(A) to regulate traffic more policemen have to be

employed

(B) to regulate activities, traffic has to be controlled

(C) to regulate traffic, buildings have to be taken

into consideration

(D) to understand the traffic problem we must

examine the social context in which it is found.

164. By this line of reasoning, the author means

(A) idea contained in this line

(B) idea contained in any one line of his argument.

(C) the manner of arguing

(D) this row of printed characters

Passage -II

Governments throughout the world act on the as-

sumption that the welfare of their people depends largelyon the economic strength and wealth of the community.

Under modern conditions, this requires varying measures

of centralized control and the help of specialized scientists

such as economists and operational research experts. Fur-

thermore, it is obvious that the strength of a countrys

economy is directly bound up with the efficiency of its ag-

riculture and industry, and that this in turn rests upon the

efforts of scientists and technologists of all kinds. It also

means that governments are increasingly compelled to in-

terfere in these sectors in order to step up production andensure that it is utilized to the best advantage.

165. According to the author, the function of the

government of a country is to

(A) ensure the progress of science in all directions.

(B) encourage mainly agricultural production.

(C) redistribute the wealth of the community.

(D) promote economic growth and proper utilization

of resources.

166. Government needs the help of

(A) scientists engaged in theoretical research only.

(B) scientists who belong to different disciplines.

(C) social scientists only.

(D) scientists with a wide general knowledge.

167. The author states that a countrys economy is

(A) strengthened by the contribution of science to

agriculture and industry.

(B) entirely dependent on its agriculture.

(C) chiefly based on the efficiency of its industry.

(D) closely related to the industry of its people.


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SSC-CGL TIER-I14


168. Which of the following statements best expresses

the main idea of the passage?

(A) Environmental science is the most important of

sciences.

(B) The community as a whole is dependent on

industry.

(C) The government is unnecessarily interfering with

science and technology.(D) Science and technology are increasingly coming

under the control of the government.

Directions (169-175):A part of the sentence is given

in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part

which may improve the sentence. Choose the

correct alternative. In case no improvement is

needed, your answer is D.

169. When he will arrive, the band will play the

National Anthem.

(A) After he will arrive(B) If he would arrive

(C) When he arrives

(D) No improvement

170. I didnt do it with the hopes to get something.

(A) with the hope to get something

(B) with the hope of getting something

(C) with the hope for getting something

(D) No improvement

171. If he would receive my letter in time, he would

be able to change his plans.

(A) If he will receive my letter in time

(B) If he received my letter in time

(C) Since he would receive my letter in time

(D) No improvement

172. I have been ringing the doorbellfive times but

no one has answered.

(A) I had been ringing the doorbell

(B) I am ringing the doorbell

(C) I have rung the doorbell

(D) No improvement

173. Raman is having a good earfor music(A) Raman has a good ear

(B) Raman is owning a good ear

(C) Raman is possessing a good ear

(D) No improvement

174. The new medicine made the children get better.

(A) the children to get better

(B) the children getting better

(C) the children got better

(D) No improvement

175. He has gone to Kolkata last week

(A) went to Kolkata last week

(B) has left for Kolkata last week

(C) has proceeded to Kolkata last week

(D) No improvement

Directions (176-179):Each of the following items

consists of a sentence followed by four words or

groups of words. Select the synonym of the word inthe sentence in capital letters as per the context.

176. ALLOCATE

(A) find the exact position of

(B) lessen the pain

(C) give up gracefully

(D) to apportion for a specific purpose

177. OPTIMAL

(A) most satisfactory (B) relating to vision

(C) cheerful (D) not compulsory

178. EXASPERATE(A) cut off a part (B) annoy exceedingly

(C) carry off (D) conclude

179. CONSERVE

(A) save (B) old-fashioned

(C) hoard (D) store

Directions (180-183):Each of the following items

consists of a sentence followed by four words or

groups of words. Select the antonym of the word in

the sentence in capital letters as per the context.

180. PARTIALLY

(A) impartially (B) entirely

(C) favouring one party (D) not together

181. DECEASED

(A) paralyzed (B) sickly

(C) living (D) misled

182. STERILE

(A) barren (B) productive

(C) without germs (D) infectious

183. COMPATIBLE

(A) quite similar

(B) expressing admiration(C) showing compassion

(D) unable to exist together with

Directions (Q.184-193): Four alternatives are given

for the idiom/ phrase printed in bold. Choose the

alternative which best expresses the meaning of the

idiom/phrase printed in bold.

184. The story of the train accident as narrated by one

of the survivors made my flesh creep.

(A) thrilled me (B) horrified me

(C) excited me (D) frightened me


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15


185. He has resigned his job and burnt his boatsso far

as government service is concerned.

(A) felt dejected

(B) blasted his hopes

(C) ruined himself

(D) left no means of retreat

186. He cannot hold a candle tohis elder brother.

(A) equal to(B) not as clever as

(C) cannot be compared to

(D) duller than

187. The question of higher membership fees was

brought upat the last meeting.

(A) discussed at great length

(B) introduced for discussion

(C) criticised vehemently

(D) vaguely referred to

188. His arguments cut no ice with me.(A) had no influence on me

(B) did not hurt me

(C) did not benefit me

(D) did not make me proud

189. The travellers travelling without ticket looked

sheepishat the sight of train ticket examiner.

(A) to make a lame execuse

(B) to wait eagerly for

(C) to become discouraged

(D) to feel ashamed

190. The work begun is half done. One can see with

half an eyethat the aim was right from start.

(A) to see nothing objectionable

(B) to investigate the matter

(C) to attend to something

(D) to be disposed of

191. The garden with green and flowery plants isa sight

for sore eyes.

(A) a sight known for its ugly look.

(B) a welcome sight

(C) an impossible thing(D) a disgusting sight

192. He is a hypercritic. He always takes a dim view

of anythingbelonging to others.

(A) to be jealous of something/ someone

(B) to regard something doubtfully

(C) to deliver a controversy

(D) to be highly conscious of anything.

193. My father always proposes anything and I with all

my brothers chime in withhis proposal.

(A) to fall in with(B) to improve ones behaviour

(C) to oppose mannerly

(D) to pay no attention

Directions (Q.194-198): Out of the four alternatives,

choose the one which can be substituted for the given

words/ sentence.

194. A pen for small animals.

(A) Hutch (B) Lair

(C) Den (D) Cage

195. A woman having more than one husband at the same

time(A) Polyandry (B) Polygamy

(C) Polyphony (D) Polygyny

196. A light sailing boat built especially for racing

(A) Dinghy (B) Canoe

(C) Yacht (D) Frigate

197. To take back, withdraw or renounce

(A) Repent (B) Retrace

(C) Refuse (D) Recant

198. One who deserts his principles or party

(A) Apostle (B) Proselyte(C) Renegade (D) Critic

Directions (Q.199-200):In each of the following

questions, a word has been written in four different

ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find

the correctly spelt word.

199. (A) Efflorascence (B) Efflorescence

(C) Efllorescence (D) Eflorescence

200. (A) Comemorate (B) Commemmorate

(C) Commemmorate (D) Commemorate


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