Term End Examination, December, 2020

BSHF-101 ( 1 ) P. T. O.

No. of Printed Pages : 40 BSHF-101

Bachelor Degree Programme (BDP)

Term End Examination, December, 2020 FOUNDATION COURSE IN HUMANITIES AND SOCIAL SCIENCES

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 100

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. All questions are compulsory. Each question carries 1 mark.

2. No cell phones, calculators, books, slide-rules, notebooks or written notes, etc. will be allowed inside the examination hall.

3. You should follow the instructions given by the Centre Superintendent and by the Invigilator at the examination venue. If you violate the instructions, you will be disqualified.

4. Any candidate found copying or receiving or giving assistance in the examination will be disqualified.

5. The Question Paper and the OMR Response Sheet (Answer Sheet) would be supplied to you by the Invigilators. After the examination is over, you should hand over the OMR Response Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the examination hall. Any candidate who does not return the OMR Response Sheet will be disqualified and the University may take further action against him/her.

6. All rough work is to be done on the question paper itself and not on any other paper. Scrap paper is not permitted. For arriving at answers you may work in the margins, make some markings or underline in the test booklet itself.

7. The University reserves the right to cancel the result of any candidate who impersonates or uses/adopts other malpractices or uses any unfair means. The University may also follow a procedure to verify the validity of scores of all examinees uniformly. If there is substantial indication that your performance is not genuine, the University may cancel your result.

BSHF-101 ( 2 )

How to fill up the information on the OMR Response Sheet (Examination Answer Sheet)

1. Write your complete Enrolment No. in 9 digits. This should correspond to the enrolment number indicated by you on the OMR Response Sheet. Also write your correct name, address with pin code in the space provided. Put your signatures on the OMR Response Sheet with date. Ensure that the Invigilator in your examination hall also puts his signatures with date on the OMR Response Sheet at the space provided.

2. On the OMR Response Sheet student’s particulars are to be filled in by blue/black ball pen also. Use blue/black ball pen for writing the Enrolment No. and Examination Centre Code as well as for blackening the circle bearing the correct answer number against the serial number of the question.

3. Do not make any stray remarks on this sheet.

4. Write correct information in numerical digits in Enrolment No. and Examination Centre Code Columns. The corresponding circle should be dark enough and should be filled in completely.

5. Each question is followed by four probable answers which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You should select and show only one answer to each question considered by you as the most appropriate or the correct answer. Select the most appropriate answer. Then by using blue/black ball pen, blacken the circle bearing the correct answer number against the serial number of the question. If you find that answer to any question is none of the four alternatives given under the question, you should darken the circle with ‘0’.

6. No credit will be given if more than one answer is given for one question. Therefore, you should select the most appropriate answer.

7. You should not spend too much time on one question. If you find any particular question difficult, leave it and go to the next. If you have time left after answering all the questions, you may go back to the unanswered question.

8. There is no negative marking for wrong answers.

BSHF-101 ( 3 ) Lot-III

1. Who among the following thought of society as a ‘social system’ ?

(1) Gandhi (2) Marx

(3) Giddens (4) Weber

2. Autocratic regimes exist by :

(1) suppression of dissent, freedom of expression and liberty

(2) liberty, fraternity and equality

(3) separating religion from the state

(4) unequal distribution of wealth

3. In the Old Stone Age people lived entirely on :

(1) hunting

(2) growing food crops

(3) hunting, fishing and gathering

(4) hunting and agricultural activity

4. The cultivation of cereals was evident in which period of human

history ?

(1) New Stone Age (2) The Bronze Age

(3) Old Stone Age (4) Iron Age

5. During Iron Age, iron was used for :

(1) making guns (2) making axes for clearing forests

(3) making figurines (4) making machines


6. The Indus Valley Civilization is an example of :

(1) Bronze Age (2) Old Stone Age

(3) New Stone Age (4) Iron Age

7. Surplus in food production during the Bronze Age gave rise to :

(1) equal distribution of food

(2) state control over people

(3) stratification and formation of social hierarchy

(4) people’s control over agricultural land

8. Contemporary anthropology has demonstrated that tribal not living in modern

society is often :

(1) hierarchical

(2) an acute observer of nature

(3) unsentimental with regards to nature

(4) exploitative of nature

9. Which one of the following is not a unique ability of human beings ?

(1) Hunting (2) Use of symbols

(3) Emotions (4) Thinking

10. Cause and effect relationship marks the beginning of :

(1) religion (2) language

(3) scientific logic (4) philosophy


11. The Indian tradition does not see any opposition between :

(1) Truth and Untruth (2) State and Citizens

(3) Nature and Culture (4) Science and Values

12. Like science magic seeks :

(1) Truth (2) Command over nature

(3) Command over body (4) Rationality

13. Which of the following emphasised the role of individual over that of the Church for

religious salvation ?

(1) Calvin (2) Newton

(3) Galileo (4) Marx

14. Subject-matter for social sciences is :

(1) natural order (2) ethics

(3) human beings (4) industrial society

15. Post-industrial society is not associated with :

(1) digital society (2) bipolar world

(3) knowledge society (4) post-modern society

16. The great revival of art, literature and social awakening in Europe during 14th-

16th centuries is known as :

(1) Scientific Revolution (2) Copernican Revolution

(3) Enlightenment (4) Renaissance


17. Feudalism is a characteristic of which period in European history ?

(1) Middle ages (2) Industrial age

(3) Ancient period (4) Modern period

18. The growth of trade and manufacture marked the beginning of :

(1) State societies (2) Capitalism

(3) Money (4) Factories

19. In the early medieval period of Europe manufacturers and craftsmen were

organised as :

(1) Guilds (2) Trade Unions

(3) Corporate Houses (4) Mercantile Society

20. Factories and the machinery were owned by whom in Industrial Europe ?

(1) Workers (2) Unions

(3) Cooperatives (4) Capitalists

21. Humanism is a great contribution of :

(1) Feudal Society (2) Christian Church

(3) Renaissance (4) Universities

22. The book ‘The Prince’ is written by which of the following ?

(1) Nicolo Machiavelli (2) Adam Smith

(3) Karl Marx (4) Max Weber


23. Which of the following instruments was used to study the heavenly bodies in 16th

century Europe ?

(1) Radar (2) Compass

(3) Telescope (4) Binoculars

24. Copernicus and Galileo’s conception of the universe has :

(1) the sun as centre of the universe

(2) the earth as the centre of the universe

(3) the sun and moon were cardinal parts of the universe

(4) the sun and earth were at tangent in the universe

25. Francis Bacon, one of the pioneers of Empiricism advocated :

(1) Speculative method (2) Logical method

(3) Scholastic method (4) Inductive method

26. The Renaissance art was :

(1) biblical in nature (2) freed from biblical overtones

(3) philosophical (4) collaborative

27. The most significant feature of the Renaissance literary output was the use

of :

(1) Latin (2) English

(3) German (4) Vernacular


28. India’s best known export in 18th century was :

(1) Dates (2) Silk

(3) Cotton textile (4) Mangoes

29. The East India Company ruled much of India from :

(1) 1757–1857 (2) 1650–1820

(3) 1690–1857 (4) 1700–1857

30. The ‘drain of wealth’ theory formulated by Indian nationalist referred to a process

whereby :

(1) India’s export trade substantially increased during British rule

(2) India moved towards industrialization

(3) India’s wealth was exported to England with no economic gains for India

(4) India became an exporter of manufactured products

31. During colonial times the Zamindars were :

(1) same as the peasants

(2) did not own any land

(3) intermediaries between peasants and the state

(4) sharecroppers of districts

32. Cotton, Jute, Indigo and Opium are example of :

(1) Cash crops (2) Seasonal crops

(3) Export crops (4) Subsistence crops


33. India came under the direct rule of the British Empire in :

(1) 1855 (2) 1856

(3) 1858 (4) 1859

34. Caste is an example of :

(1) Achieved status (2) Ascribed status

(3) Inherited status (4) Cultural status

35. Davis and Moore are associated with which of the following approaches to the study

of caste ?

(1) Critical approach (2) Attributional approach

(3) Indological approach (4) Functionalist approach

36. ................ is a rule which insists that one can marry only outside of one’s group or

lineage.

(1) Incest taboo (2) Endogamy

(3) Exogamy (4) Hypergamy

37. In which of the following economic systems ownership of resources is common ?

(1) Capitalist system (2) Industrial economy

(3) Horticultural economy (4) Hunting and gathering societies

38. Which of the following authority is legitimized by customs ?

(1) Parliamentary authority (2) State authority

(3) Traditional authority (4) Traditional-rational authority


39. What is the cut-off age for treating boys and girls as children ?

(1) 14 (2) 16

(3) 17 (4) 18

40. The term ‘schedule caste’ was first used in India Act of :

(1) 1935 (2) 1938

(3) 1948 (4) 1950

41. .............. was constituted in 1953 to identify the criteria and prepare a list of OBCs.

(1) Kaka Kalelkar Commission

(2) Mandal Commission

(3) National Commission for Backward Classes

(4) Kher Commission

42. Social transformation refers to :

(1) Abrubt change (2) Gradual change

(3) Radical change (4) Incremental change

43. ‘Social Darwinism’ is associated with which of these scholars ?

(1) Auguste Comte (2) T. R. Malthus

(3) Emile Durkheim (4) Herbert Spencer

44. Which part of the constitution is considered the preface of the constitution ?

(1) Fundamental Rights (2) Fundamental Duties

(3) Preamble (4) Directive Principles


45. The Greek word ‘demos’ which constitutes the word democracy refers to :

(1) Free will (2) Justice

(3) Fraternity (4) People

46. Panchayati Raj is an example of :

(1) Centripetal Structure (2) Local Self-Government

(3) Autocracy (4) Centralization

47. Which of the following is a part of the civil society ?

(1) Judiciary (2) Civil Services

(3) Para-Military Forces (4) Self-Help Groups

48. PIL stands for :

(1) Public Initiated Litigation (2) Public Interest Legalization

(3) Public Interest Litigation (4) Public Interest Legislature

49. The Chief Secretary heads the administration at :

(1) District level (2) State level

(3) Union level (4) Cabinet level

50. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ‘Good Governance’ ?

(1) Formulation and implementation of policies

(2) Enforcing law and order

(3) Democratic and responsive to people’s needs

(4) Exclusion of civil society


51. The Right to Information Act was passed in :

(1) 2001 (2) 2005

(3) 2006 (4) 2007

52. Change in population takes place through three demographic events :

(1) Birth, migration, sex-ratio (2) Birth, death, migration

(3) Birth, marriage, death (4) Birth, life expectancy, death

53. GDP refers to :

(1) Gross Domestic Product (2) Gross Domestic Parameter

(3) Gross Dependent Product (4) Gross Development Product

54. Primary sector of the economy includes :

(1) Agriculture, manufacturing and forestry

(2) Agriculture, forestry, logging and fishing

(3) Agriculture, forestry and communication

(4) Agriculture, logging and tourism

55. MNP stands for :

(1) Minimum Needs Programme (2) Maximum Needs Programme

(3) Minimum Needs Project (4) Maximum Needs Project

56. ................ means greater integration of the world through increased flow of goods

and services across nation borders.

(1) Regulation (2) Privatization

(3) Globalisation (4) Segregation


57. Kalidasa, the great dramatist belonged to which period of Indian history ?

(1) Modern (2) Colonial

(3) Medieval (4) Ancient

58. Jane Austen is one of the leading :

(1) Essayist (2) Poetess

(3) Novelist (4) Dramatist

59. ................ is written by William Shakespeare.

(1) Pride and Prejudice (2) Hamlet

(3) Ulysses (4) Middlemarch

60. ................ is a very long poem on a large scale touching upon a whole race’s history

some cosmic issues.

(1) Drama (2) Lyric

(3) Epic (4) Novella

61. Bellary in South India is known for one of the earliest :

(1) Paintings (2) Sculptures

(3) Murals (4) Fossils

62. The Ajanta cave paintings depict the :

(1) Court scenes

(2) Lives of ordinary people

(3) The life of Buddha and his previous life

(4) Life of Mahavira and his disciples


63. Lepakshi paintings are from which empire and rule ?

(1) Satvahan (2) Gupta

(3) Vijayanagara (4) Chalukya

64. Mughal period is known from :

(1) Miniature Painting (2) Cave Painting

(3) Portrait Painting (4) Landscape Painting

65. Which of the following followed the European tradition in painting ?

(1) Abdus Samad (2) Bengal School

(3) Rabindranath Tagore (4) Raja Ravi Verma

66. Jamini Roy was influenced by :

(1) Miniature paintings (2) Buddhist aesthetic

(3) Modernist sensibility (4) Folk traditions imagery

67. ................ are stories and legends about the life of Buddha.

(1) Jatakas (2) Pata Chitra

(3) Mandapas (4) Jatamukta

68. ................ is one of earliest monks on dance from India.

(1) Nrittyashastra (2) Natyashastra

(3) Layashastra (4) Bhavashastra


69. Khajuraho temples are built by which rulers ?

(1) Satvahanas (2) Chalukyas

(3) Chandelas (4) Rajputas

70. Which of the classical Indian dance form is the oldest ?

(1) Kathakali (2) Bharatanatyam

(3) Odissi (4) Kuchipudi

71. .............. was given patronage by the Nawab of Awadh.

(1) Drupad (2) Kathakali

(3) Flute playing (4) Kathak

72. Which is not a features of music ?

(1) Swara (2) Ahhinaya

(3) Taal (4) Raag

73. Which of the following is not a Raag ?

(1) Khayal (2) Maand

(3) Khamaj (4) Bhairavi

74. The two divisions in Indian classical music are known as :

(1) Uttar Bharat and Carnatic

(2) Uttar Bharat and Dakshin Bharat

(3) Hindustani and Carnatic

(4) Teevra and Madhyam


75. ‘Capability Approach’ is associated with which economist ?

(1) Amartya Sen (2) Adam Smith

(3) Amit Bhaduri (4) Kaushik Basu

76. Human Rights derive from the notion of :

(1) Opportunities and duties

(2) Civil liberties and individual freedom

(3) Community identity and state duties

(4) Choices and capabilities

77. The phrase ‘Human Security’ was first put forward by :

(1) Civil Society (2) World Bank

(3) UNESCO (4) UNDP

78. FAO stands for :

(1) Food and Agricultural Organisation

(2) Food Assessment Organisation

(3) Finance Accretion Organisation

(4) Finance Accreditation Organisation

79. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the UN in :

(1) 1944 (2) 1946

(3) 1947 (4) 1948


80. ............... means availability at all times of adequate world food supplies of basic

food stuffs to sustain a steady expansion of food consumption.

(1) Access to food (2) Food Safety

(3) Food Security (4) Food Justice

81. Etymologically, the word ‘education’ is derived from two ............. words ‘educare’

and ‘educere’.

(1) Anglo-Saxon (2) Romance

(3) Latin (4) Greek

82. NPE stands for :

(1) National Project on Education

(2) National Projections on Education

(3) National Perspective on Education

(4) National Policy on Education

83. Which of the following is not an initiative to achieve universalisation of education ?

(1) Operation Black Board (2) Going to School

(3) Lok Jumbish (4) Shiksha Karmi

84. According to Dewey “............... is inconceivable without education.”

(1) Secularism (2) Modernity

(3) Development (4) Democracy


85. ‘Learning to be’ is a report by :

(1) UNESCO (2) UNDP

(3) UNICEF (4) World Bank

86. Which is not a part of Information and Communication Technologies (ICT) ?

(1) E-mail (2) Book

(3) Radio (4) Internet

87. There are those who have limited access to information technology and the others

who have access to information technologies. This difference is termed as :

(1) Digital Divide (2) Information Deficit

(3) Information Shortcoming (4) Digital Natives

88. The modern Nation-State has its beginnings following the :

(1) separation of state from the Church

(2) Renaissance

(3) Reformation

(4) Westphalia Treaty

89. The conditionalities imposed by World Bank and IMF can be seen with its

recommendation of :

(1) Tariff Barriers

(2) Structural Adjustment

(3) Private and Public Partnership

(4) Safe Working Conditions


90. The Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro was in :

(1) 1968 (2) 1970

(3) 1992 (4) 2000

91. According to .............., “Globalization is key to social justice.”

(1) IMF (2) World Economic Forum

(3) UNICEF (4) World Bank

92. Who is associated with the phrase ‘End of History’ ?

(1) Henry Kissinger (2) Margaret Thatcher

(3) George Bush (4) Francis Fukuyama

93. TNC stands for :

(1) Trans-National Corporation (2) Trans-National Cooperation

(3) Trans-National Cooption (4) Trans-Nation Coalition

94. Which of the following is not an example of international NGO ?

(1) Human Rights Watch (2) Green Peace

(3) SEWA (4) Amnesty International

95. Narmada Bachao Andolan was against :

(1) Mechanization of agriculture (2) Big dams

(3) Forest depletion (4) River pollution


96. .................. is used in disposing off cases arising the privatization of natural

resources.

(1) Doctrine of public trust (2) Common goods doctrine

(3) Public interest (4) National wealth

97. Who among the following is famous for their environmental friendly attitude ?

(1) Baigas (2) Nagas

(3) Bishnois (4) Gonds

98. The United Nations Conference on Human Environment was convened in

Stockholm in :

(1) 1991 (2) 1969

(3) 1985 (4) 1972

99. June 5 is marked as :

(1) Global Health Day (2) World Environment Day

(3) Pollution Free Day (4) Plastic Free Day

100. The major source of carbon dioxide leading to global warming is :

(1) burning of fossil fuels (2) exhalation of cattle

(3) throwing of waste in water (4) wind mills

BSHF-101 ( 21 ) P. T. O.

ch- ,l- ,p- ,Q--101

Lukrd mikf/k dk;ZØe ¼ch- Mh- ih-½ l=kar ijh{kk] fnlEcj] 2020

ekufodh ,oa lkekftd foKku eas vk/kkj ikB~;Øe

le; : 3 ?k.Vs vf/kdre vad : 100

lkekU; funsZ’k 1. lHkh iz'u vfuok;Z gSaA izR;sd iz'u 1 vad dk gSA

2. ijh{kk d{k ds vanj lsyQksu] dSydqysVlZ] iqLrdsa] LykbM&:Yl] uksVcqDl ;k fyf[kr uksV~l] bR;kfn ys

tkus dh vuqefr ugha gSA

3. vkidks ijh{kk LFky ij dsanz O;oLFkkid o fujh{kd ds }kjk fn, x;s funsZ’kksa dk vuqikyu djuk gksxkA

,slk u djus ij vkidks v;ksX; ?kksf”kr fd;k tk,xkA

4. dksbZ ijh{kkFkhZ udy djrs ;k djkrs gq, idM+k tkrk gS rks mls v;ksX; ?kksf”kr dj fn;k tk,xkA

5. vkidks fujh{kd }kjk iz’ui= rFkk vks- ,e- vkj- mŸkj i=d iznku fd;k tk,xkA ijh{kk lekIr gks tkus

ds i’pkr~] ijh{kk d{k NksM+us ls igys vks- ,e- vkj- mŸkj i=d dks fujh{kd dks lkSai nsaA fdlh ijh{kkFkhZ

}kjk ,slk u djus ij mls v;ksX; ?kksf”kr dj fn;k tk,xk rFkk fo’ofo|ky; mlds f[kykQ vkxs

dk;Zokgh dj ldrk gSA

6. lHkh jQ dk;Z iz’ui= ij gh djuk gS] fdlh vU; dkxt ij ughaA LØSi isij dh vuqefr ugha gSA mŸkj

nsrs le; vki mŸkj&iqfLrdk esa gh gkf’k;s dk iz;ksx dj ldrs gSa] dqN fu’kku yxk ldrs gSa ;k js[kkafdr

dj ldrs gSaA

7. fo’ofo|ky; dks ;g vf/kdkj gS fd fdlh ijh{kkFkhZ }kjk vuqfpr O;ogkj ;k vuqfpr lk/kuksa dk iz;ksx

djus ij mlds ifj.kke dks jí dj nsA fo’ofo|ky; dks Hkh pkfg, fd og lHkh ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa ds vadksa dh

tk¡p ,dleku :i ls djsA ;fn dgha ls ,slk fn[kkbZ nsrk gS fd vkidk fu”iknu mfpr ugha gS] rks

fo’ofo|ky; vkids ifj.kke jí dj ldrk gSA

BSHF-101 ( 22 )

vks- ,e- vkj- mŸkj&i=d ¼ijh{kk mŸkj i=d½ ij lwpuk dSls Hkjsa

1. 9 vadksa esa viuk iw.kZ vuqØekad fy[ksaA ;g vuqØekad vks- ,e- vkj- mŸkj i=d ij vkids }kjk Mkys x,

vuqØekad ls feyuk pkfg,A fn, x, LFkku esa viuk lgh uke] irk Hkh fiu dksM lfgr fyf[k,A vks- ,e-

vkj- mŸkj i=d ij frfFk lfgr vius gLrk{kj dhft,A ;g lqfuf’pr dj ysa fd vkids ijh{kk d{k esa

fujh{kd us Hkh nh xbZ txg ij frfFk lfgr vks- ,e- vkj- mŸkj i=d ij gLrk{kj dj fn, gaSA

2. vks- ,e- vkj- mŸkj i=d ij ijh{kkFkhZ dk fooj.k uhys@dkys cky isu }kjk Hkjk tkuk pkfg,A vuqØekad

o ijh{kk dsanz dwV fy[kus o lkFk gh iz’u ds Øekad ds lkeus lgh mŸkj&la[;k okys xksys dks dkyk djus

ds fy, Hkh uhys@dkys cky isu dk iz;ksx djsaA

3. bl i=d ij dksbZ vokafNr fu’kku u yxk;saA

4. vuqØekad rFkk ijh{kk dsanz dwV LraHk esa lgh lwpuk vadksa esa fy[ksaA laxr xksys dks iw.kZr% xgjk djsa rFkk

iw.kZ :i ls HkjsaA

5. izR;sd iz’u ds pkj laHkkfor mŸkj gSa ftUgsa ¼1½] ¼2½] ¼3½ o ¼4½ }kjk n’kkZ;k x;k gSA vkidks buesa ls

lokZf/kd mfpr mŸkj dks pqudj n’kkZuk gSA lokZf/kd mfpr mŸkj dks pqudj uhys@dkys cky isu ls iz’u

ds Øekad ds lkeus lgh mŸkj okys xksys dks dkyk djsaA ;fn vkidks yxs fd iz’u ds uhps fn, gq, pkj

fodYiksa esa ls dksbZ lgh ugha gS] vki xksys dks ^0* lfgr dkyk djsaA

6. ,d ls vf/kd mŸkj gksus ij dksbZ vad ugha feysxkA blfy, lokZf/kd mfpr mŸkj dks gh pqusaA

7. ,d iz’u ij vf/kd le; er [kpZ dhft,A ;fn vkidks dksbZ iz’u dfBu yx jgk gks] rks mls NksM+dj

vxys iz’u dks gy djus dk iz;kl dhft,A ckn esa le; cpus ij ml NksM+s gq, iz’u dk mŸkj ns ldrs

gSaA

8. xyr mŸkjksa gsrq dksbZ _.kkRed vadu ugha gksxkA


1. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldk fopkj Fkk fd lekt ,d ^lkekftd O;oLFkk* gS \

(1) xk¡/h (2) ekDlZ

(3) fxfMUl (4) oscj

2. fujadq'k 'kklu fdlds }kjk vfLrRo esa jgrs gSa \

(1) Lora=krk] vfHkO;fDr dh Lora=krk vkSj vlarks"k dk neu

(2) Lora=krk] ca/qRo vkSj lekurk

(3) jkT; dks /eZ ls i`Fkd~ djuk

(4) /u dk vleku forj.k

3. iqjkik"kk.kdky esa ekuo thou iw.kZ :i ls fdl ij fuHkZj Fkk \

(1) f'kdkj djuk

(2) [kk| iQlyksa dks mxkuk

(3) f'kdkj djuk] eNyh idM+uk vkSj Hkkstu laxzg.k

(4) f'kdkj djuk vkSj d`f"k xfrfof/

4. ekuo bfrgkl ds fdl dky esa vukt dh [ksrh djus ds lk{; feyrs gSa \

(1) uoik"kk.k dky (2) dkaL; ;qx

(3) iqjkik"kk.k dky (4) ykSg ;qx

5. ykSg ;qx esa yksgs dk iz;ksx fdlfy, fd;k tkrk Fkk \

(1) cUnwdsa cukus ds fy,

(2) ouksa dks lkiQ djus gsrq dqYgkM+h cukus ds fy,

(3) ewfrZ;k¡ cukus ds fy,

(4) e'khusa cukus ds fy,


6. flU/q ?kkVh lH;rk fdldk mnkgj.k gS \

(1) dkaL; ;qx (2) iqjkik"kk.k ;qx

(3) uoik"kk.k ;qx (4) ykSg ;qx

7. dkaL; ;qx esa [kk| mRiknu vf/'ks"k fdldk dkj.k cuk \

(1) Hkkstu dk vleku forj.k

(2) yksxksa ij jkT; dk fu;a=k.k

(3) Lrj.k vkSj lkekftd ln~Hkko dk xBu

(4) d`f"k Hkwfe ij yksxksa dk fu;a=k.k

8. ledkfyd ekuo'kkL=k ;g n'kkZrk gS fd tutkfr] tks vk/qfud lekt esa ugha jgrha] os vkerkSj

ij --------------------- gksrh gSaA

(1) Js.khc¼ (2) izd`fr dk ,d xgu i;Zos{kd

(3) izd`fr ds lUnHkZ esa vHkkoqd (4) izd`fr dk 'kks"kd

9. fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k ekuo dh vf}rh; {kerk ugha gS \

(1) f'kdkj djuk (2) izrhdfpUgksa dk bLrseky

(3) Hkkouk, ¡ (4) fopkj/kjk

10. dkj.k vkSj izHkko ds eè; dk lEcU/ fdlds vkjEHk dk ladsr nsrk gS \

(1) /eZ (2) Hkk"kk

(3) oSKkfud rdZ (4) rRoKku


11. Hkkjrh; ijEijk fdlds eè; fojks/ ugha ns[krh \

(1) lp vkSj feF;k (2) jkT; vkSj ukxfjd

(3) izd`fr vkSj laLd`fr (4) foKku vkSj ewY;

12. foKku ds leku tknw fdldk vuqlj.k djrk gS \

(1) lR; (2) izd`fr ij fu;a=k.k

(3) 'kjhj ij fu;a=k.k (4) rdZlaxrrk

13. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlus /kfeZd eqfDr ds fy, ppZ ls T;knk O;fDr dh Hkwfedk ij cy fn;k

gS \

(1) dsfYou (2) U;wVu

(3) xSyhfy;ks (4) ekDlZ

14. lkekftd foKku dh fo"k;&oLrq gS %

(1) LokHkkfod fo/ku (2) uhfr'kkL=k

(3) euq"; (4) vkS|ksfxd lekt

15. i'p&vkS|ksfxd lekt fdlls lEcfU/r gS \

(1) fMftVy lekt (2) f}/zqoh nqfu;k

(3) cks/ lekt (4) mŸkj&vk/qfud lekt

16. 14oha&16oha 'krkCnh ;wjksi esa dyk] lkfgR; vkSj lkekftd psruk ds egku iqu#RFkku dks fdl

uke ls tkuk tkrk gS \

(1) oSKkfud Økafr (2) dksifuZd Økafr

(3) izcks/u (4) iqutkZxj.k dky

17. ;wjksih; bfrgkl esa lkearokn fdl dky ds y{k.k n'kkZrk gS \

(1) eè; ;qx (2) vkS|ksfxd ;qx

(3) izkphudky (4) vk/qfuddky


18. O;kikj vkSj fofuekZ.k dh o`f¼ us fdldh 'kq#vkr dks fpfÉr fd;k Fkk \

(1) jkT; lekt (2) iw¡thokn

(3) /u (4) dkj[kkuk

19. vkjafHkd eè;dky esa ;wjksi ds mRiknd vkSj dkjhxj fdl rjg laxfBr Fks \

(1) f'kYih la?k (2) O;kikj la?k

(3) dkWiksZjsV gkml (4) O;kikjh lekt

20. vkS|ksfxd ;wjksi esa dkj[kkuksa vkSj e'khujh ij fdldk LokfeRo Fkk \

(1) deZpkjh (2) ;wfu;u ;k la?k

(3) lgdkjh lfefr (4) iw¡thifr

21. ekuorkokn esa fdldk cgqr cM+k ;ksxnku gS \

(1) lkearh lekt (2) bZlkbZ fxjtk?kj

(3) iqutkZxj.k dky (4) fo'ofo|ky;

22. fuEufyf[kr esa ls ^n fizal* iqLrd fdlds }kjk fy[kh xbZ gS \

(1) fudksyks eSfd;kosyh (2) ,Me fLeFk

(3) dkyZ ekDlZ (4) eSDl oscj

23. fuEufyf[kr esa ls 16oha 'krkCnh esa ;wjksi esa [kxksyh; fiaMksa dk vè;;u djus ds fy, fdl

midj.k dk iz;ksx fd;k tkrk Fkk \

(1) jkMkj (2) fn'kklwpd ;a=k

(3) nwjchu (4) f}us=k


24. dksijfudl vkSj xSyhfy;ks ds czãk.M dh /kj.kk esa %

(1) lwjt czãk.M dk dsUnz FkkA

(2) i`Foh czãk.M dk dsUnz FkkA

(3) lw;Z vkSj pUnzek czãk.M ds dkfMZuy iz/ku Hkkx FksA

(4) lw;Z vkSj i`Foh czãk.M esa Li'kZjs[kk ij FksA

25. Ýkafll csdu] vuqHkookn ds vxznwrksa esa ls ,d] us fdldh odkyr dh \

(1) dkYifud i¼fr (2) rdZlaxr i¼fr

(3) fo|kfHkekuh i¼fr (4) vkxeukRed i¼fr

26. iqutkZxj.k ;qx dh dyk dSlh Fkh \

(1) izd`fr esa ckbfcy lEcU/h (2) ckbcy vf/Loj ls eqDr

(3) nk'kZfud (4) lg;ksxh

27. iqutkZxj.k dky esa lkfgfR;d jpuk dk lcls egŸoiw.kZ y{k.k D;k Fkk \

(1) ySfVu (2) vaxzsth

(3) teZu (4) LFkkuh; Hkk"kk

28. 18oha 'krkCnh eas Hkkjr ls fu;kZr dh tkus okyh lcls egŸoiw.kZ oLrq D;k Fkh \

(1) [ktwj (2) js'ke

(3) lwrh&diM+k (4) vke

29. bZLV bf.M;k dEiuh us Hkkjr esa fdl vof/ esa vf/dre jkt fd;k \

(1) 1757µ1857 (2) 1650µ1820

(3) 1690µ1857 (4) 1700µ1857


30. Hkkjrh; jk"Vªokfn;ksa }kjk izfrikfnr ^/u&fu"dklu dk fl¼kUr* ,d ,slh izfØ;k dk mYys[k

djrk gS ftlesa %

(1) fczfV'k jkt ds nkSjku Hkkjr dk fu;kZr dkiQh c<+ x;k FkkA

(2) Hkkjr vkS|ksxhdj.k dh vksj c<+kA

(3) Hkkjr ds /u dk fu;kZr baXyS.M esa fd;k tkrk Fkk ftlesa Hkkjr dk dksbZ vkfFkZd ykHk

ugha FkkA

(4) Hkkjr fufeZr mRiknksa dk fu;kZrd cu x;k FkkA

31. vkSifuosf'kd dky esa tehankj %

(1) fdlkuksa ds leku FksA

(2) fdlh tehu ds Lokeh ugha FksA

(3) fdlkuksa vkSj jkT; ds chp eè;LFk FksA

(4) ftyksa ds cVkbZnkj FksA

32. dikl] twV] uhy vkSj viQhe fdlds mnkgj.k gSa \

(1) udnh iQlysa (2) ekSleh iQlysa

(3) fu;kZr iQlysa (4) fuokZg iQlysa

33. Hkkjr fczfV'k lkezkT; ds izR;{k jkt ds rgr dkSu&ls o"kZ esa vk;k Fkk \

(1) 1855 (2) 1856

(3) 1858 (4) 1859

34. tkfr -------------------- dk ,d mnkgj.k gSA

(1) vftZr lkekftd fLFkfr (2) iznŸk lkekftd fLFkfr

(3) vkuqoaf'kd lkekftd fLFkfr (4) lkaLd`frd lkekftd fLFkfr


35. Msfol vkSj ewj fuEufyf[kr tkfr ds vè;;u ds fdl fl¼kUr ls lEcfU/r gSa \

(1) vkykspukRed n`f"Vdks.k (2) vkjksi.k n`f"Vdks.k

(3) baMksykWftdy n`f"Vdks.k (4) dk;kZRed n`f"Vdks.k

36. ------------------ ,d ,slk fu;e gS ftlds rgr O;fDr vius lewg vFkkZr~ oa'k ls ckgj gh 'kknh dj

ldrk FkkA

(1) vxE;xeu fu"ks/ (2) lxks=k fookg

(3) fotkrh; fookg (4) vuqykse fookg

37. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl vkfFkZd iz.kkyh ds rgr lalk/uksa dk LokfeRo lkoZtfud gksrk gS \

(1) iw¡thoknh iz.kkyh (2) vkS|ksfxd vFkZO;oLFkk

(3) ckxokuh vFkZO;oLFkk (4) f'kdkj vkSj Hkkstu laxzg.k lekt

38. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&ls izkf/dj.k dks lhek 'kqYd }kjk oS/rk izkIr gS \

(1) lalnh; vf/dkj (2) jkT; izkf/dkj

(3) ikjaifjd vf/dkj (4) ikjaifjd&rdZlaxr vf/dkj

39. fdl mez rd yM+ds vkSj yM+fd;ksa dks cPpk ekuk tkrk gS \

(1) 14 (2) 16

(3) 17 (4) 18

40. ^vuqlwfpr tutkfr* 'kCn dk iz;ksx Hkkjr esa izFke fdl okf"kZd izf/fu;e esa fd;k x;k Fkk \

(1) 1935 (2) 1938

(3) 1948 (4) 1950

41. ---------------- dk xBu 1953 esa vU; fiNM+s oxks ± dh lwph rS;kj djus vkSj muds ekinaM dh igpku

djus ds fy, fd;k x;k FkkA

(1) dkdk dkysydj vk;ksx (2) eaMy deh'ku

(3) jk"Vªh; fiNM+k oxZ vk;ksx (4) [ksj vk;ksx


42. lkekftd :ikarj.k dk vFkZ gS %

(1) vkdfLed ifjorZu (2) Øfed ifjorZu

(3) Økafrdkjh ifjorZu (4) o`f¼'khy ifjorZu

43. ^lkekftd MkfoZuokn* fdl fo}ku ls lEcfU/r gS \

(1) vkWxLV dkWEVs (2) Vh- vkj- ekYFkl

(3) bekby nq[khZe (4) gjcVZ Lisalj

44. lafo/ku dk dkSu&lk Hkkx mldh eq[kca/ ;k Hkwfedk ekuk tkrk gS \

(1) ekSfyd vf/dkj (2) ekSfyd dÙkZO;

(3) izLrkouk (4) funsZ'kd fl¼kUr

45. MseksØslh (yksdra=k) dk xBu ;wukuh 'kCn ^Mseksl* ls fd;k x;k gS ftldk vFkZ gS %

(1) eqDr bPNk (2) U;k;

(3) ca/qrk (4) yksx

46. iapk;rh jkt fdldk ,d mnkgj.k gS \

(1) lsafVªihVy ;k dsUnzkfHkeq[kh lajpuk (2) LFkkuh; Lok;Ùk ljdkj

(3) ,dra=k (4) dsUnzhdj.k

47. fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k ukxfjd lekt dk ,d Hkkx gS \

(1) U;k; ra=k (2) la?k yksd lsok

(3) v/ZlSfud cy (4) Lo;a lgk;rk lewg

48. ih- vkbZ- ,y- --------------------- dk laf{kIr uke gSA

(1) turk lw=kik=k ;kfpdk (2) tufgrdkjh dkuwu

(3) tufgr ;kfpdk (4) tufgr fo/kf;dk


49. eq[; lfpo dkSu&ls Lrj ij iz'kklu dk izeq[k gksrk gS \

(1) ftyk Lrj (2) jkT; Lrj

(3) la?k Lrj (4) dSfcusV Lrj

50. fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k lq'kklu dk ,d fof'k"V xq.k ugha gS \

(1) uhfr;ksa dk fuekZ.k vkSj dk;kZUo;u djuk

(2) dkuwu vkSj O;oLFkk ykxw djuk

(3) yksdrkaf=kd vkSj yksxksa dh t:jrksa ds izfr mÙkjnk;h

(4) ukxfjd lekt dk cfg"dkj djuk

51. lwpuk dk vf/dkj vf/fu;e dkSu&ls o"kZ esa ikfjr fd;k x;k Fkk \

(1) 2001 (2) 2005

(3) 2006 (4) 2007

52. tula[;k esa ifjorZu fuEufyf[kr rhu tulkaf[;dh; ?kVukvksa ds ekè;e ls gksrk gS %

(1) tUe] izokl] fyax vuqikr (2) tUe] e`R;q] izokl

(3) tUe] fookg] e`R;q (4) tUe] thou izR;k'kk] e`R;q

53. th- Mh- ih- ------------------ dks lEcksf/r djrk gSA

(1) ldy ?kjsyw mRikn (2) ldy ?kjsyw izkpy

(3) ldy fuHkZj mRikn (4) ldy fodkl mRikn

54. ----------------- vFkZO;oLFkk ds izkFkfed {ks=k esa 'kkfey gSaA

(1) d`f"k] fofuekZ.k vkSj okfudh (2) d`f"k] okfudh] ykWfxax vkSj eNyh idM+uk

(3) d`f"k] okfudh vkSj lapkj (4) d`f"k] ykWfxax vkSj i;ZVu


55. ,e- ,u- ih- --------------- dk laf{kIr uke gSA

(1) U;wure vko';drk dk;ZØe (2) vf/dre vko';drk dk;ZØe

(3) U;wure t:jr ifj;kstuk (4) vf/dre t:jr ifj;kstuk

56. ----------------- dk vFkZ jk"Vªh; lhekvksa ds ikj oLrq vkSj lsokvksa dh izokg esa o`f¼ ds ekè;e ls

fo'o dk vf/dre ,dhdj.k gSA

(1) fofu;e (2) futhdj.k

(3) oS'ohdj.k (4) i`FkDdj.k

57. egku ukVddkj] dkfynkl] Hkkjr ds bfrgkl ds fdl dky ls lEcU/ j[krs gSa \

(1) vk/qfud (2) vkSifuosf'kd

(3) eè;dkyhu (4) izkphu

58. tsu vkWfLVu ,d izeq[k ---------------- gSaA

(1) fuca/dkj (2) dof;=kh

(3) miU;kldkj (4) ukVddkj

59. ----------------- fofy;e 'ksDlfi;j }kjk jfpr gSA

(1) izkbM ,.M izhtwfMl (2) gSeysV

(3) ;wfylsl (4) fefMyekpZ

60. ------------------ ,d yEch dfork gS tks O;kid Lrj ij ,d iwjs oa'k ds bfrgkl vkSj dqN vykSfdd

eqíksa dh eksVs rkSj ij ppkZ djrh gSA

(1) ukVd (2) xhrdkO;

(3) egkdkO; (4) y?kq miU;kl


61. nf{k.k Hkkjr esa csyjh lcls izkphu ------------------- ds fy, tkuk tkrk gSA

(1) fp=k (2) ewfrZ;ksa

(3) fHkfŸk fp=k (4) thok'e

62. vtark ds xqiQk fp=k D;k n'kkZrs gSa \

(1) vnkyr ds n`';

(2) vke yksxksa dk thou

(3) cq¼ dk thou vkSj mudk fiNyk tUe

(4) egkohj vkSj muds vuq;kf;;ksa dk thou

63. yhik{kh fp=kdyk fdl lkezkT; vkSj 'kkludky ls gS \

(1) lkrokgu (2) xqIr

(3) fot;uxj (4) pkyqD;

64. eqxy 'kkludky ---------------- ls tkuk tkrk gSA

(1) y?kq fp=kdyk (2) xqiQk fp=kdkjh

(3) vkd`fr fp=kdkjh (4) ifjn`'; fp=kdyk

65. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlus fp=kdyk ds {ks=k esa ;wjksih; ijEijk dk vuqxeu fd;k Fkk \

(1) vCnql len (2) caxky Ldwy

(3) johUnzukFk VSxksj (4) jktk jfo oekZ

66. tkfeuh jkW; fdlls izHkkfor Fkh \

(1) y?kq fp=kdyk (2) cqf¼oknh lkSUn;Zokn

(3) vk/qfudrkoknh laosnu'khyrk (4) yksd ikjEifjd dYiuk


67. ------------------- cq¼ ds thou ls lEcfU/r dgkfu;k ¡ vkSj nar dFkk,¡ gSaA

(1) tkrd (2) iêfp=k

(3) eaMi (4) tVkeqdqV

68. ------------------- Hkkjr esa u`R; ls lEcfU/r izkjafHkd dk;ks± esa ls ,d gSA

(1) u`R;'kkL=k (2) ukV~;'kkL=k

(3) y;'kkL=k (4) Hkko'kkL=k

69. [ktqjkgks eafnjksa dk fuekZ.k fdu 'kkldksa }kjk fd;k x;k Fkk \

(1) lkrokgu (2) pkyqD;

(3) pansy (4) jktiwr

70. dkSu&lh Hkkjrh; 'kkL=kh; u`R; 'kSyh lcls izkphu gS \

(1) dFkdyh (2) HkjrukV~;e~

(3) vksfMlh (4) dqfpiqM+h

71. -------------------- dks vo/ ds uokcksa }kjk laj{k.k fn;k x;k FkkA

(1) nqzin (2) dFkdyh

(3) ck¡lqjh ctkus (4) dFkd

72. fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k laxhr dh ,d fo'ks"krk ugha gS \

(1) Loj (2) vfHku;

(3) rky (4) jkx

73. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk jkx ugha gS \

(1) [;ky (2) ekan

(3) [kekt (4) HkSjoh


74. Hkkjrh; 'kkL=kh; laxhr dk f}Hkktu fdl :i esa tkuk tkrk gS \

(1) mÙkj Hkkjr vkSj dukZVd (2) mÙkj Hkkjr vkSj nf{k.k Hkkjr

(3) fgUnqLrkuh vkSj dukZVd (4) rhoz vkSj eè;e

75. {kerk n`f"Vdks.k fdl vFkZ'kkL=kh ls lEcfU/r gS \

(1) veR;Z lsu (2) ,Me fLeFk

(3) vfer HkknqM+h (4) dkSf'kd clq

76. ekuo vf/dkj fdl /kj.kk ls O;qRiUu gq, gSa \

(1) volj vkSj dÙkZO;

(2) ukxfjd Lora=krk vkSj O;fDrxr Lora=krk

(3) lkeqnkf;d igpku vkSj jkT; ds dÙkZO;

(4) fodYi vkSj {kerk, ¡

77. ^ekuo lqj{kk* okD;ka'k fdlds }kjk igyh ckj izLrqr fd;k x;k Fkk \

(1) ukxfjd lekt (2) fo'o cSad

(3) ;wusLdks (4) ;w- ,u- Mh- ih-

78. ,iQ- ,- vks- ----------------- dk laf{kIr uke gSA

(1) [kk| vkSj d`f"k laxBu (2) [kk| ewY;kadu laxBu

(3) foŸk vfHko`f¼ laxBu (4) foÙk ekU;rk laxBu

79. la;qDr jk"Vª }kjk ekuo vf/dkjksa dh lkoZHkkSe ?kks"k.kk dks dkSu&ls o"kZ esa viuk;k x;k Fkk \

(1) 1944 (2) 1946

(3) 1947 (4) 1948


80. ------------------------- dk eryc Hkkstu dh [kir ds yxkrkj foLrkj dks cuk, j[kus ds fy, cqfu;knh

[kk| lkexzh dh fo'o [kk| vkiwfrZ dh i;kZIr miyC/rk gSA

(1) Hkkstu rd igq¡p (2) [kk| laj{kk

(3) [kk| lqj{kk (4) Hkkstu lR;rk

81. ^,Mwds;j* vkSj ^,Mwls;j* nksuksa 'kCnksa ls O;qRiUu 'kCn ^,tqds'ku* ,sfrgkfld :i ls --------------------

gSA

(1) ,saXyks&lSDlu (2) jksekul

(3) ySfVu (4) ;wukuh

82. ,u- ih- bZ- ---------------- dk laf{kIr uke gSA

(1) jk"Vªh; f'k{kk izdYi (2) jk"Vªh; f'k{kk vuqeku

(3) jk"Vªh; f'k{kk n`f"Vdks.k (4) jk"Vªh; f'k{kk uhfr

83. fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k f'k{kk ds lkoZHkkSehdj.k ds izfr ,d igy ugha gS \

(1) vkWijs'ku CySd cksMZ (2) xksbax Vw Ldwy

(3) yksd tqafc'k (4) f'k{kk dehZ

84. Mhoh ds vuqlkj] ßf'k{kk ds fcuk -------------------- vdYiuh; gSÞA

(1) /eZfujis{krk (2) vk/qfudrk

(3) fodkl (4) tura=k

85. ^yfu±x Vw ch* fjiksVZ fdlds }kjk rS;kj dh xbZ gS \

(1) ;wusLdks (2) ;w- ,u- Mh- ih-

(3) ;wfulsiQ (4) fo'o cSad


86. fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k lwpuk vkSj lapkj izkS|ksfxdh (vkbZ- lh- Vh-) dk fgLlk ugha gS \

(1) bZ&esy (2) iqLrd

(3) jsfM;ks (4) baVjusV

87. os ftudh lwpuk izkS|ksfxdh rd igq ¡p gS vkSj os ftudh lwpuk izkS|ksfxdh rd lhfer igq ¡p gS]

muds chp dh vlekurk dks D;k dgk tkrk gS \

(1) fMftVy fMokbM (2) lwpuk dk vHkko

(3) lwpuk dh =kqfV (4) fMftVy usfVo

88. vk/qfud jk"Vª&jkT; dh 'kq#vkr fdlds ckn gqbZ \

(1) ppZ ls jkT; ds vyx gksus ij (2) iqutkZxj.k dky

(3) iquxZBu (4) osLViQsfy;k laf/

89. fo'o cSad vkSj vUrjkZ"Vªh; eqnzk dks"k }kjk yxkbZ xbZ 'krs± mudh fuEufyf[kr fliQkfj'kksa esa ns[kh

tk ldrh gSa %

(1) 'kqYd ck/k,¡ (2) lajpukRed lek;kstu

(3) lkoZtfud&futh lk>snkjh (4) dke dh lqjf{kr fLFkfr

90. fj;ks Mh tusfj;ks esa gqvk i`Foh lEesyu dkSu&ls o"kZ esa vk;ksftr fd;k x;k Fkk \

(1) 1968 (2) 1970

(3) 1992 (4) 2000

91. fdlds vuqlkj oS'ohdj.k lkekftd U;k; dh dqath gS \

(1) vUrjkZ"Vªh; eqnzk dks"k (2) fo'o vkfFkZd eap

(3) ;wfulsiQ (4) fo'o cSad


92. ^bfrgkl dk var* okD;ka'k ds lkFk fdldk lEcU/ gS \

(1) gsujh fd¯'kxj (2) ekxZjsV FkSpj

(3) tkWtZ cq'k (4) ÚkWfUll iQqdq;kek

93. Vh- ,u- lh- -------------------- dk laf{kIr uke gSA

(1) cgqjk"Vªh; fuxe (2) cgqjk"Vªh; lg;ksx

(3) cgqjk"Vªh; lgoj.k (4) cgqjk"Vªh; xBca/u

94. fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k ,d vUrjkZ"Vªh; xSj&ljdkjh laxBu ¼,u- th- vks-) dk ,d mnkgj.k

ugha gS \

(1) áweu jkbV~l okWp (2) xzhu ihl

(3) loZ deZpkjh efgyk la?k (4) ,eusLVh baVjus'kuy

95. ueZnk cpkvks vkUnksyu fdlds f[kykiQ Fkk \

(1) d`f"k dk e'khuhdj.k (2) cM+s ck ¡/

(3) ouksa dk Øfed Îkl (4) unh iznw"k.k

96. izkd`frd lalk/kuksa ds futhdj.k ls mRiUu gq, ekeyksa ds fuiVkjs esa dkSu&lk fl¼kUr mi;ksx

fd;k tkrk gS \

(1) lkoZtfud U;k; fl¼kUr (2) lkoZtfud dY;k.k fl¼kUr

(3) lkoZtfud fgr (4) jk"Vªh; lEifÙk

97. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu vius i;kZoj.k ds izfr vuqdwy joS;s ds fy, izfl¼ gS \

(1) cSxkl (2) ukxk

(3) fc'uksbZ (4) xksaM


98. LVkWdgkse esa la;qDr jk"Vª dk i;kZoj.k ij lEesyu dkSu&ls o"kZ esa vk;ksftr gqvk Fkk \

(1) 1991 (2) 1969

(3) 1985 (4) 1972

99. 5 twu fdl :i ls fpfàr gS \

(1) fo'o LokLF; fnol (2) fo'o i;kZoj.k fnol

(3) iznw"k.k eqDr fnol (4) IykfLVd eqDr fnol

100. dkcZu MkbvkWDlkbM dk izeq[k lzksr D;k gS ftlds ifj.kkeLo:i Hkw&e.Myh; Å"ehdj.k gksrk

gS \

(1) thok'e b±/u dk tyuk (2) eosf'k;ksa dk fu%'olu

(3) ikuh esa dwM+k Mkyuk (4) iou pDdh

( 40 )

Rough Work

Documents

Term End Examination, December, 2020