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1 1497_17 (B) ∫…®…™…/Time : 2.30 PM to 4.30 PM +¥… v…/Duration : 2 Hrs + v…EÚi…®… +ΔEÚ/Maximum Marks : 100 |…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… ∫…Δ./Question Booklet No. |…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… GÚ®…/Question Booklet Series {…j… EÚ…‰b/˜ Paper Code B |…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… i…§… i…EÚ x… J……‰±…‰ V…§… i…EÚ +…{…EÚ…‰ <∫…E‰Ú  ±…™…  x…nÊ˘∂… x…  n˘™…… V……™…‰* Do not open this QUESTION BOOKLET until you are asked to do so Instructions : Please read the following instructions carefully before writing your answer : 1. Before you proceed to mark your response in OMR answer sheet, you have to fill in particulars carefully in the OMR answer sheet as per your admit card. The OMR shall not be evaluated if incorrect/incomplete details are filled. OMR sheet without Roll Number , Post Code and Question Booklet Series will not be evaluated under any circumstances. 2. Immediately on breaking of the seal, the candidate must check that the Question Booklet has 100 questions with multiple choice questions. If there is any discrepancy, it should be reported to the Invigilator immediately for change of booklet. No sheet from the question paper shall be detached. 3. The candidate shall check whether the Paper Code printed on this Question Booklet matches with the Paper Code printed on the Admit card. 4. Candidate must write his Name, Roll Number and sign at the appropriate places marked for this purpose on the front page of this Question Booklet. 5. All questions are compulsory.Each question carries 1 mark. There is no negative marking for wrong answer. 6. Use only blue or black ball point pen. Use of pencil or gel pen is not allowed. 7. There are four answer options – (A), (B), (C), (D) given against each question, out of which only one is correct. Mark your answer by filling OVAL/bubble on the OMR answer sheet provided to the candidate. 8. Darken completely only one OVAL/bubble which you think is correct as shown in the figure Correct method Wrong Method Rough work must be done on the pages (space for rough work) given at the end of the Question Booklet. 9. Answer sheets will be processed by electronic means. Hence, invalidation of OMR answer sheets resulting due to folding or putting stray marks on it or any damage to the answer sheet as well as incomplete/incorrect filling of answer sheet, will be the sole responsibility of the candidate. 10. If candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one of given answer happens to be correct. 11. After completion of examination, you have to hand over your OMR answer sheet and second copy of admit card(in case of PH candidates, copy of scribe admit card also) to the invigilator. Candidate shall be allowed to take the question paper booklet along with him. Please retain first copy of Admit card along with you. 12. Use of any electronic device like mobile, calculator or any electronic gadgets is strictly prohibited. If candidate is found in possession of any such devices, her/his candidature will be cancelled. |…∂x… {…j… / QUESTION PAPER ¥…Ë EÚŒ±{…EÚ |…EÚ…Æ˙ {…Æ˙“I…h…/OBJECTIVE(MCQ) TYPE TEST 1497 ¶……M…/PART  ¥…π…™…/ SUBJECT |…∂x…… EÚ“ ∫…ΔJ™……/No of Question ¶……M… A/Part A ∫……®……x™…  ¥…Y……x… & M… h…i…“™… + ¶…Y…i……/General Science & Quantitative Aptitude 20 |…∂x…/20 Questions ¶……M… B/ Part B ∫…ΔM…i… ]≈‰ıb˜ E‰Ú  ∫…±…‰§…∫… ∫…‰ |…∂x…/Questions from the Syllabus of relevant trade 80 |…∂x…/80 Questions  EÚ∫…“  ¥…¥……n˘ EÚ“ Œ∫l… i… ®… , +ƒ O…V…“ EÚl…x… Ω˛“ ®……x™… Ω˛…M……/In case of any dispute, English version will prevail. +¶™…l…‘ EÚ… x……®… : Name of the Candidate :..................................................... +x…÷ GÚ®……Δ Roll No. : {…Æ˙“I…… EÚ“ i……Æ˙“J…/Date of Examination (dd/mm/yyyy) : ........ /......... /..................... +¶™…l…‘ EÚ… Ω˛∫i……I…Æ˙ :  x…Æ˙“I…EÚ EÚ… Ω˛∫i……I…Æ˙ : Signature of the Candidate : ............................................ Signature of the Invigilator : ........................................  x…nÊ˘∂… : +{…x…‰ =k…Æ˙  ±…J…x…‰ ∫…‰ {…Ω˛±…‰ EfiÚ{…™……  x…®x… |…n˘k…  x…nÊ˘∂…… EÚ…‰ ∫……¥…v……x…“{…⁄¥…«EÚ {…g‰¯* 1. OMR =k…Æ˙ {… j…EÚ… ®… +{…x…‰ =k…Æ˙ +Δ EÚi… EÚÆ˙x…‰ ∫…‰ {…Ω˛±…‰ +…{…EÚ…‰ OMR =k…Æ˙ {… j…EÚ… E‰Ú  ¥…¥…Æ˙h… v™……x…{…⁄¥…«EÚ +{…x…‰ |…¥…‰∂… {…j… E‰Ú +x…÷∫……Æ˙ ¶…Æ˙x…… Ω˲* OMR EÚ… ®…⁄±™……ΔEÚx… x…Ω˛”  EÚ™…… V……BM…… ™… n˘ +∫…i™…/+{…⁄h…«  ¥…¥…Æ˙h… ¶…Æ˙… M…™…… Ω˛…‰* B∫…OMR {… j…EÚ…  V…∫…®… +x…÷GÚ®……ΔEÚ, {…n˘ EÚ…‰b˜ +…ËÆ˙ |…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… +x…÷GÚ®… x…Ω˛” Ω˛…‰M…… =∫…EÚ… ®…⁄±™……ΔEÚx…  EÚ∫…“ ¶…“ {… Æ˙Œ∫l… i… ®… x…Ω˛”  EÚ™…… V……BM……* 2. ∫…“±… i……‰c˜x…‰ E‰Ú `ˆ“EÚ §……n˘ +¶™…l…‘ ™…Ω˛ W……ƒS… EÚÆ˙ ±…  EÚ |…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… ®… §…Ω÷˛- ¥…EÚ±{… |…EÚ…Æ˙ E‰Ú 100 |…∂x… ΩÈ˛* ™… n˘ EÚ…‰<« +∫…ΔM… i… {……<« V……B i……‰ <∫…EÚ“ ∫…⁄S…x…… i…÷ÆΔ˙i…  x…Æ˙“I…EÚ EÚ…‰ n¢ +…ËÆ˙ {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… §…n˘±… ±…Â* |…∂x… {…j… ∫…‰ EÚ…‰<« EÚ…M…V… x…Ω˛”  x…EÚ…±…… V……x…… S…… Ω˛B* 3. +¶™…l…‘ ™…Ω˛ V……ƒS… ±…  EÚ |…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… {…Æ˙ ®…÷ p˘i… {…j… EÚ…‰b˜ +…ËÆ˙ |…¥…‰∂… {…j… {…Æ˙ ®…÷ p˘i… {…j… EÚ…‰b˜ ∫…®……x… ΩÈ˛* 4. +¶™…l…‘ +{…x…… x……®…, +x…÷GÚ®……ΔEÚ +…ËÆ˙ Ω˛∫i……I…Æ˙ |…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… E‰Ú ∫……®…x…‰ E‰Ú {…fiπ`ˆ {…Æ˙ <∫… EÚ…™…« E‰Ú  ±…B  n˘B ∫l……x… {…Æ˙ +¥…∂™… +Δ EÚi… EÚÆÂ˙* 5. ∫…¶…“ |…∂x… + x…¥……™…« ΩÈ˛* |…i™…‰EÚ |…∂x… EÚ… +ΔEÚ 1 Ω˲* M…±…i… =k…Æ˙ E‰Ú  ±…B EÚ…‰<« +ΔEÚ P…]ı…™…… x…Ω˛” V……BM……* 6. E‰Ú¥…±… x…“±…“ ™…… EÚ…±…“ §……ϱ… {……Ï<Δ]ı {…‰x… EÚ… |…™……‰M… EÚÆÂ˙* {… ∫…±… ™…… V…‰±… {…‰x… EÚ… |…™……‰M… x…Ω˛” EÚÆ ˙* 7. |…i™…‰EÚ |…∂x… E‰Ú  ±…B S……Æ˙  ¥…EÚ±{… =k…Æ˙ - (A), (B), (C), (D)  n˘B M…B ΩÈ˛  V…x…®… ∫…‰ E‰Ú¥…±… BEÚ ∫…Ω˛“ ΩÈ˛* +¶™…l…‘ E‰Ú  ±…B OMR =k…Æ˙ {… j…EÚ… {…Æ˙ |…n˘k… M……‰±……/¥…fii……EfiÚ i… EÚ…‰ ¶…Æ˙EÚÆ˙ +{…x…… =k…Æ˙ +Δ EÚi… EÚÆÂ˙* 8.  V…∫… M……‰±……/¥…fii……EfiÚ i… EÚ…‰ +…{… ∫…Ω˛“ ®……x…i…‰ ΩÈ˛ E‰Ú¥…±… =∫…‰ Ω˛“  S…j… ®…  n˘J……B +x…÷∫……Æ˙ {…⁄Æ˙“ i…Æ˙Ω˛ M…Ω˛Æ˙… EÚÆÂ˙* ∫…Ω˛“ i…Æ˙“EÚ… M…±…i… i…Æ˙“EÚ… Æ˙°Ú EÚ…™…« |…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… E‰Ú +Δi… ®… |…n˘k… (Æ˙°Ú EÚ…™…« E‰Ú  ±…B ∫l……x…) {…fiπ`ˆ {…Æ˙ Ω˛“ EÚÆÂ˙* 9. =k…Æ˙ {… j…EÚ… EÚ…‰ <±…‰C]≈ı…‰ x…EÚ ®……v™…®… ∫…‰ |… GÚ™……M…i…  EÚ™…… V……BM……* +i…& <∫…E‰Ú ®…÷c˜x…‰ ™…… <∫…{…Æ˙ EÚ…‰<«  x…∂……x… {…c˜x…‰ +l…¥…… =k…Æ˙ {… j…EÚ… EÚ…‰ EÚ…‰<« I… i… Ω˛…‰x…‰ E‰Ú ∫……l…-∫……l… +{…⁄h…«/ +∫…i™… ¶…Æ˙x…‰ E‰Ú  ±…B E‰Ú¥…±… +¶™…l…‘ Ω˛“ =k…Æ˙n˘…™…“ Ω˛…ÂM…‰* 10. ™… n˘ +¶™…l…‘ BEÚ ∫…‰ + v…EÚ =k…Æ˙ n‰˘i…… Ω˲ i……‰ =∫…‰ M…±…i… =k…Æ˙ Ω˛“ ®……x…… V……BM…… ¶…±…‰ Ω˛“ =x… =k…Æ˙… ®… ∫…‰ BEÚ ∫…Ω˛“ =k…Æ˙ Ω˛…‰* 11. {…Æ˙“I…… {…⁄Æ˙“ EÚÆ˙x…‰ E‰Ú §……n˘, +…{… +{…x…… OMR =k…Æ˙ {… j…EÚ… +…ËÆ˙ |…¥…‰∂… {…j… EÚ“ n⁄˘∫…Æ˙“ |… i… (PH +¶™…l…‘ E‰Ú ®……®…±…‰ ®… ∫GÚ…<§… |…¥…‰∂… {…j… EÚ“ |… i… ¶…“)  x…Æ˙“I…EÚ E‰Ú {……∫… V…®…… EÚÆ˙… n¢* +¶™…l…‘ EÚ…‰ |…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… +{…x…‰ ∫……l… ±…‰ V……x…‰ EÚ“ +x…÷®… i… Ω˲* |…¥…‰∂… {…j… EÚ“ |…l…®… |… i… ¶…“ +{…x…‰ {……∫… Æ˙J…Â* 12.  EÚ∫…“ <±…‰C]≈ı…‰ x…EÚ ™…Δj… V…Ë∫…‰ ®……‰§……<±…, EËÚ±…C™…⁄±…‰]ıÆ˙ ™…… +x™…  EÚ∫…“ <±…‰C]≈ı…‰ x…EÚ ={…EÚÆ˙h… EÚ… |…™……‰M… ∫…¥…«n˘… ¥…ÃV…i… Ω˲* ™… n˘ +¶™…l…‘ E‰Ú {……∫… B‰∫…… EÚ…‰<« ™…Δj… {……™…… V……i…… Ω˲ i……‰ =∫…EÚ“ +¶™…l…‘i……  x…Æ˙∫i… EÚÆ˙ n˘“ V……BM…“*

x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… ∫…Δ./ |…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… GÚ ... (B) 1 ∫…®…™…/Time : 2.30 PM to 4.30 PM +¥… v…/Duration : 2 Hrs + v…EÚi…®… +ΔEÚ/Maximum

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  • 11497_17 (B)

    /Time : 2.30 PM to 4.30 PM +v/Duration : 2 Hrs +vEi +E/Maximum Marks : 100

    |x {iE ./Question Booklet No. |x {iE G/Question Booklet Series {j Eb/Paper Code

    B

    |x {iE i iE x J V iE +{E

  • 21497_17 (B)

    GENERAL APTITUDE

    1. HCF of 84 & 270 isA) 8 B) 6 C) 4 D) 2

    2. The sum of first five multiples of 3 is:A) 45 B) 65 C) 75 D) 90

    3. 7:12 is equivalent to:A) 28 : 40 B) 42 : 71 C) 72 : 42 D) 42 : 72

    4. Find the simple interest on the Rs. 2000 at 25/4% per annum for the period from 4th Feb 2005 to 18th April 2005A) Rs. 35 B) Rs. 30 C) Rs. 25 D) Rs. 40

    5. The average of 20 numbers is Zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be greater than zero?A) 0 B) 1 C) 10 D) 19

    6. An athlete runs 200 meters in 24 seconds. His speed is?A) 10 km/hr B) 17 km/hr C) 27 km/hr D) 30 km/hr

    7. Every rational number isA) A natural number B) An integer C) A real number D) A whole number

    8. What decimal of an hour is a second?A) .0025 B) .0256 C) .00027 D) .000126

    9. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 40% apples and still has 420 apples. Originally, he had how many ?A) 588 apples B) 600 apples C) 672 apples D) 700 apples

    10. A does a work in 10 days and B does the same work in 15 days. In how many days they will do the same worktogether?A) 5 days B) 6 days C) 7 days D) 8 days

    11. How does light normally travel?A) In concentric circles B) In a straight lineC) Always towards a dark area D) In a curved line

    12. First Country to undergo industrial revolution:A) France B) Britain C) Germany D) USA

    13. A solar water heater can not be used to get hot water onA) A sunny day B) A cloudy day C) A hot day D) A windy day

    14. In India, the first cotton mill was set up inA) Madras B) Bombay C) Kanpur D) Surat

    15. Regur soil is the other name ofA) Black soil B) Alluvial soil C) Arid soil D) Laterite soil

  • 31497_17 (B)

    DOMAIN KNOWLEDGE

    21. In the diesel engine, the compression ratio is as high asA) 10 : 1 B) 15 : 1 C) 5 : 1 D) 3 : 1

    22. The device for smoothing out the power impulses from the engine is called theA) Flywheel B) Camshaft C) Crankshaft D) Clutch

    23. The amount of air fuel mixture taken in by the engine on the suction stroke is a measure of the enginesA) Compression ratio B) Volumetric efficiency C) Clearance volume D) None of these

    24. The size of an engine cylinder is referred to in terms of itsA) Diameter and bore B) Bore and length C) Bore and stroke D) None of these

    25. In an operating engine, the hottest part of the piston is theA) Head B) Ring grooves C) Skirt D) Pin bosses

    26. In normal operation the part of the exhaust valve that gets the hottest isA) Face B) Middle of Stem C) Centre of head D) Edge of margin

    27. The power developed inside the engine cylinder is calledA) IHP B) FHP C) BHP D) None of these

    28. As a rule when comparing the front and rear wheel cylinder pistons, it will be found that the pistons in the frontwheel cylinders areA) The same size B) Larger in diameter C) Smaller in diameter D) None of these

    29. Most of the mopeds in India have the capacity ofA) 150 cc B) 100 cc C) 175 cc D) 200 cc

    30. If compression ratio is increased thenA) Thermal efficiency will be increased B) Volumetric efficiency will be increasedC) Air standard efficiency will be decreased D) Air standard efficiency will be increased

    16. The different group of stars is known asA) Constellations B) Celestial bodies C) Asteroids D) Comet

    17. Which country has two-party system?A) India B) Sri Lanka C) United Kingdom D) Nepal

    18. Which of the following is a macro nutrient?A) Mn B) Mg C) Cu D) Zn

    19. The process of evaporation causesA) Cooling B) Heating C) Dryness D) None of these

    20. Place directly above focus on Earths surface is known asA) Strike B) Comma C) Epicenter D) Origin

  • 41497_17 (B)

    31. The turbulence in diesel engine ensures toA) Increase the Volumetric efficiency B) Increase the compression ratioC) Bring the fuel quickly in contact with the air D) Increase the specific fuel consumption

    32. As the compression ratio in an engine goes up, the octane requirements of the fuelA) Goes Up B) Goes Down C) Remain same D) Un predictable

    33. The combustion process in a diesel engine isA) Constant Pressure Process B) Isothermal ProcessC) Constant volume process D) Adiabatic process

    34. Which motor cycle has maximum power rating?A) Bullet B) Yamaha C) Rajdoot D) Jawa

    35. The compression ratio in a diesel engine is as high asA) 25 : 1 B) 20 : 1 C) 15 : 1 D) 10 : 1

    36. The fit of the piston to the cylinder is measured at theA) Piston Skirt B) Point of maximum diameterC) Point of minimum diameter D) Piston Head

    37. Engine torque is height atA) Low speed B) moderate speed C) High Speed D) None of these

    38. The most widely used brakes are operatedA) Electrically B) Hydraulically C) By air pressure D) By vacuum

    39. 0. In the air brake, air pressure is supplied byA) Engine manifold B) A compressor C) The diaphragm valve D) Nine of these

    40. The metal used for the brake drum isA) Aluminium alloy B) Cast steel C) Pressed steel D) Cast iron

    41. Two-stoke-engine-is-preferred-for-small-vehicles-becauseA) Fuel consumption is low B) Shock and vibrations are lessC) Its size is small D) It is easy to control

    42. During braking the brake shoe is moved outward to press against theA) Wheel piston or cylinder B) Brake liningC) Brake drum or disc D) Wheel rim or axle

    43. For a through inspection a tyre should beA) On the car B) On the wheel C) Off the wheel D) Inflated

    44. When an automobile takes a turn to avoid the skidding and over turningA) Each wheel will roll independentlyB) Front two wheels will have a common centre during a turningC) All the 4 wheels will roll on arcs having a common centreD) None of these

  • 51497_17 (B)

    45. The ring gear is mounted on theA) Differential housing B) Differential carrier C) Differential case D) Axle housing

    46. In the differential, the ring gear is bolted to theA) Differential housing B) Differential case C) Drive pinion D) Axle shaft

    47. Which of the following layouts is not used in motor vehicles?A) Front engine front drive B) Front engine rear drive C) Rear engine front drive D) Rear engine rear drive

    48. The most popular drive at the drive axle for the passenger car isA) Straight bevel gear B) Spiral bevel gear C) Worm gear drive D) Hypoid drive

    49. Clutch noises are usually most noticeable when the engine isA) Accelerating B) Decelerating C) Idling. Being started D) None of these

    50. The purpose of the guide ring in the fluid coupling is to reduce oilA) Movement between the members B) TurbulenceC) Level in coupling D) None of these

    51. While machining cast iron coolant should be?A) Dry air B) Kerosene C) Machine oil D) Soft water

    52. The tool post of a planning machine is mounted on?A) Apron B) Cross rail C) Clapper box D) Saddle

    53. The tensile strength of a metal is its ability to resist fracture when subjected to tensile loads, the tensile strength ofmetals are expressed in?A) N/mm sq. B) Kg/mm sq. C) N. Metre D) Kg. Metre

    54. Which one of the characteristics of a milling cutter is most suitable for climb milling?A) Left hand cutting B) Teeth material is carbideC) Larger clearance and rake angle D) The teeth are straight to the axis of the cutter

    55. A gear wheel has 36 teeth and 3 mm module, its pitch diameter is?A) 12 mm B) 75 mm C) 80 mm D) 108 mm

    56. Which one of the following thread forms is provided in the threaded parts where the pressure acts on one flank ofthe threads during transmission?A) V thread B) Square thread C) Knuckle thread D) Buttress thread

    57. Which one of the bushes used in a drill jig and permits cutting tools of different diameters?A) Press fit bushes B) Removable bushes (slip)C) Fixed removable bushes D) Liner bushes

    58. Which one of the following equipments is used in the shop floor for the checking of the form that is being turned?A) Template B) Snap gaugeC) Dial test indicator and slip gauges D) Tool room microscope

  • 61497_17 (B)

    59. While grinding and lapping cemented carbide tipped tool with diamond wheels a good flow of coolant should bedirected to cover the grinding zone, the coolant suitable is?A) Soluable oil B) Mineral oilC) Sulphurised oil D) Mixture of paraffin and water

    60. Which one of the following operations can be done on slotting machine?A) External keyway on long shaft B) Internal groovesC) Woodruff keyway on a shaft D) Keyway for feather keys

    61. You have to machine a flat surface on a work piece of two metres length. Which machine will you choose for this?A) Planning B) Slotting C) Milling D) Shaping

    62. Why it is necessary to maintain an approach distance between the cutting tool and the work while working onshaping machine?A) To cool down the cutting edge of the tool bit B) To avoid any ridger at the end of work pieceC) To allow the chips to fall and clear the cutting edge D) To enable the clapper box to return to cutting

    63. Oil grooves are to be cut in brass half bearings. Which one of the following chisels in suitable?A) Flat chisel B) Cross chisel C) Half round nose chisel D) Web chisel

    64. The quality control allows at the most 0.4% defective parts, How many defective parts can be allowed in aproduction of 500 parts?A) 1 B) 2 C) 10 D) 20

    65. One which unit the tool setting is done on NC machine?A) On special devices away from the machine B) On the NC machine during idle timeC) On the pre setting devices D) None of above

    66. The component of the surface texture upon which the roughness is superimposed is known as?A) Surface roughness B) Surface texture C) Lay D) Waviness

    67. Which one of the following groups of properties enables the manufacture of chain hooks from wrought iron?A) Ductility, malleability and hardness B) Hardness, toughness and ductilityC) Malleability, ductility and toughness D) Hardness, toughness and brittleness

    68. You have to file an aluminum block to a smooth finish, which one of the following cut of file is most suitable?A) Double cut B) Curved cut C) Rasp cut D) Single cut

    69. Which one of the following is an artificial abrasive?A) Emery B) Diamond C) Corundum D) Silicon carbide

    70. The grain size of a grinding wheel is indicated by numbers, which range of grain size referred to as Very Fine?A) 10 - 24 B) 30 - 60 C) 80 - 180 D) 220 - 600

    71. A screw thread is designated as 1" B.S.P. thread, in 1 inch B.S.P. thread what 1" indicates?A) Major diameter of thread B) Minor diameter of threadC) Pitch diameter of thread D) Hole diameter of pipe

    72. What will be the result if the clearance angle in drill is increased?A) Poor wedging action B) Weak cutting edge C) Rough hole surface D) Increased point angle

  • 71497_17 (B)

    73. The temperature to which a work piece is heated depends on the material and the type of forging process, thetemperature range for forging low carbon steel is?A) 700 800 deg celsius B) 650 920 deg celsius C) 800 1300 deg celsius D) 450 700 deg celsius

    74. It is commonly observed that the face of a grinding wheel becomes shiny and smooth or glazed after some use dueto one of the reasons stated below?A) Grade of wheel is too hard B) Abrasive of the wheel not suitable for the purposeC) Grain size is too coarse D) Structure of the wheel is too open

    75. A traveling steady is fixed on the saddle of a Lathe. What is the function of this steady rest?A) To prevent bending of long shafts due to cutting forcesB) To avoid load on the lathe centres while turning longC) To reduce the load on the cutting tool while turningD) To enables to turn at higher cutting speeds than recommended

    76. Zero setting of the two point bore dial gauge before the measurement is necessary to?A) Account for the errors in the gauge B) Facilitate comparisonC) Setup initial pressure in the gauge D) Eliminate inaccuracy of the measurement

    77. Indexing head mechanism works with?A) Rock and gear B) Worm and worm gear C) Two helical gear D) Two bevel gear

    78. Which gear arrangement used to change the circular motion of horizontal to vertical without change in speed ratio?A) Two spur gear B) Two helical gear C) Two bevel gear D) Worm and worm gear

    79. What is a built up edge is respect of a turning tool?A) Job material embedded on tool edgeB) A carbide tip soldered on a tool shankC) A method of reconditioning worn out cutting tool edgeD) A tool cutting edge with a crater on it

    80. Slip gauges are used as standards for precision length measurements, the slip gauges are available in four gradesas per BIS standard, which one of the following grades is meant only for reference?A) 0 grade B) 1 grade C) 00 grade D) 11 grade

    81. Which is the correct expression for the unit of feed rate in milling?A) m/min B) mm/rev C) mm/sec D) mm/min

    82. The position of gear cutter on the arbor for rack milling is?A) Nearer to the column B) Nearer to the arbor supportC) At the middle D) At any point on the arbor

    83. A 1.5mm displacement of tool point in boring operation will result in a change in the diameter equal to?A) 0.75 mm B) 1.5 mm C) 3 mm D) 6 mm

    84. Dressing and turning of a grinding wheel are?A) Exactly the same operation B) Done with the same equipmentC) Done only for coarse grinding wheels D) Only for form grinding

  • 81497_17 (B)

    85. How do you recognize a drill for soft metal?A) By the large helix angle B) By the small helix angleC) By the chisel edge angle D) By the point angle which is 90 deg

    86. Which gear arrangement used to change the circular motion of horizontal to vertical without change in speed ratio?A) Two spur gear B) Two helical gear C) Two bevel gear D) Worm and worm gear

    87. Indexing head mechanism works with?A) Rock and gear B) Worm and worm gear C) Two helical gear D) Two bevel gear

    88. What will be the result if the clearance angle in drill is increased?A) Poor wedging action B) Weak cutting edge C) Rough hole surface D) Increased point angle

    89. The radiator tubes are manufactured by usingA) Cast iron tubes B) Aluminum tubes C) Brass tubes D) Steel tubes

    90. If we know the engine speed, bore, stroke, number of cylinders and m.e.p in the cylinders, we can calculateA) FHP B) IHP C) BHP D) None of these

    91. Knowing the IHP and FHP of an engine, we can calculateA) Compression ratio B) rpm C) SAF D) BHP

    92. Which one of the following is not a trade name of tractor in IndiaA) Kirloskar B) Escort C) Standard D) HMT

    93. The ratio between the power output of an engine and the energy in the fuel burned to produce that power is calledA) Volumetric efficiency B) Thermal efficiency C) Mechanical efficiency D) None of these

    94. The air volume in the cylinder with the piston at B.D.C divided by the clearance volume is calledA) Compression ratio B) Piston displacement C) Cylinder ratio D) None of these

    95. The power used in overcoming friction in the engine is calledA) BHP B) IHP C) FHP D) None of these

    96. The average pressure during the power stroke minus the average pressure during the intake, compression andexhaust strokes is calledA) IHP B) Compression ratio C) BHP D) m.e.p

    97. IHP minus FHP equalsA) BHP B) BSFC C) m.e.p D) None of these

    98. Engine torque is highest atA) High speed B) Low speed C) Intermediate speed D) Any of these

    99. BHP divided by IHP isA) Thermal efficiency B) Mechanical efficiency C) Volumetric efficiency D) COP

    100. The percentage of the energy in the petrol burnt in the engine which is actually utilized in propelling the car is aslittle asA) 25% B) 60% B) 35% D) 15%

  • 1497_17 (B) 9

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  • 1497_17 (B) 10

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  • 1497_17 (B) 11

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  • 1497_17 (B) 12

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  • 1497_17 (B) 13

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  • 1497_17 (B) 14

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  • 1497_17 (B) 15

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  • 1497_17 (B) 16

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  • 1497_17 Tamil (B) 17

    GENERAL APTITUDEGENERAL APTITUDEGENERAL APTITUDEGENERAL APTITUDE 1.1.1.1. 84 & 270 HCF ( ) A) 8 B) 6 C) 4 D) 2 2.2.2.2. 3 : A) 45 B) 65 C) 75 D) 90 3.3.3.3. 7 : 12 : A) 28 : 40 B) 42 : 71 C) 72 : 42 D) 42 : 72 4.4.4.4. 2005 4 ! 2005 ! 18 $ 25/4% %! &. 2000 '( . A) &. 35 B) &. 30 C) &. 25 D) &. 40 5.5.5.5. 20 , . /, ', % ,% ? A) 0 B) 1 C) 10 D) 19 6.6.6.6. 12 24 (! 200 '2 $2. ? A) 10 km/hr B) 17 km/hr C) 27 km/hr D) 30 km/hr 7.7.7.7. 6 7 8 A) ! B) C) 9 D) : 8.8.8.8. % ( ? A) .0025 B) .0256 C) .00027 D) .000126 9.9.9.9. ; %2. 2 40% 9 420 ; . (!, 2 %! % %2? A) 588 B) 600 C) 672 D) 700 11110.0.0.0. A 2 10 '! 9 (2, B 15 '! 9 (2. 2 2 9! % '! (2? A) 5 ' B) 6 ' C) 7 ' D) 8 ' 11111111.... ( ? A) '! B) 2'(! C) D) '(! 11112.2.2.2. ! B) C) C2 D) B% 11115.5.5.5. ! D 2 ? A) 7< B) ! C) D)

  • 1497_17 Tamil (B) 18

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  • 1497_17 Tamil (B) 19

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  • 1497_17 Tamil (B) 20

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  • 1497_17 Tamil (B) 21

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  • 1497_17 Tamil (B) 22

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  • 1497_17 Tamil (B) 23

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  • 1497_17 Tamil (B) 24

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  • 1497_17 Tamil (B) 25

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  • 1497_17 Tamil (B) 26

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