CompTIA 220-701 A+ Essentials 100-Question Practice Exam

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1. What is the name of a new improved functionality introduced in Windows 7 that

allows for managing different types of files in a structure similar to Windows

folder?

A. Library

B. Cluster

C. Partition

D. Media Center

2. Encryption standards designed for securing wireless networks include: (Select

two answers)

A. WAN

B. WAP

C. WPA

D. WEP

3. EMI and RFI are examples of:

A. Motherboard specifications

B. Energy saving standards

C. Interference

D. Cable ratings

4. Which of the following devices may pose a risk to electrical safety due to

accumulated high voltage?

A. CRTs

B. Power supplies

C. Inverters

D. Laser printers

E. All of the above devices and components require high AC voltage and may pose

a risk to a technician's safety

5. XGA (eXtended Graphics Array) uses a resolution of:

A. 640 x 480

B. 800 x 600

C. 1024 x 768

D. 1280 x 1024

6. Physical device on a SCSI bus is identified by its unique:

A. Logical Unit Number (LUN)

B. SCSI ID

C. Originally Unique Identifier (OUI)

D. physical address

7. Verifying full system functionality should be the last step in the

troubleshooting process methodology.

A. True

B. False

8. What is the name of a hardware device that allows for administering multiple

hosts with the use of a single mouse, keyboard, and computer screen?

A. Microsoft Management Console (MMC)

B. Device Manager

C. Docking station

D. KVM switch

9. Which of the following Windows utilities are used to perform preventative

maintenance tasks? (Select all that apply)

A. chkdsk

B. vol

C. defrag

D. ver

10. Which of the following are memory form factors used in laptops? (Select two

answers)

A. AGP

B. SO-DIMM

C. C-RIMM

D. SO-RIMM

11. A Windows utility used for browsing logs related to application events, user

activity, and hardware or network failures is called:

A. Device Manager

B. Control Panel

C. Event Viewer

D. Performance Monitor

12. Which of the following servers dynamically assigns IP addresses?

A. DHCP

B. DNS

C. WINS

D. SMTP

13. Windows system utility used for displaying details about computer's hardware

configuration, computer components, and software (including drivers) is called:

A. nslookup

B. msconfig

C. ipconfig

D. msinfo32

14. Which Windows versions include a security feature that prompts for

administrator password when a program is about to make a change that requires

administrator-level permission? (Select two answers)

A. Windows Me

B. Windows Vista

C. Windows 7

D. Windows XP

15. RAID Level 0: (Select three answers)

A. is also referred to as striped disk array

B. offers no fault tolerance

C. requires at least two drives to implement

D. is also referred to as disk mirroring

E. requires at least three drives to implement

16. What is the maximum speed supported by the USB 1.1 standard?

A. 1.5 Mbps

B. 12 Mbps

C. 480 Mbps

D. 3.2 Gbps

17. Which of the following terms refers to replacing computer system components

without shutting down the system?

A. Standby

B. Auto-switching

C. Hot swapping

D. Reboot

18. A feature that can be found in some types of PC Power Supply Units that

allows a PSU to automatically adapt to the AC voltage supplied from the power

socket is called:

A. Hot swapping

B. Fixed-input

C. Inverter

D. auto-switching

19. Which mode in Windows saves the system state in RAM and puts the computer

into a power-saving state?

A. G0

B. Standby

C. G3

D. Hibernate

20. Which mode in Windows saves the system state information to a hard disk and

puts a computer into a power-saving state?

A. Standby

B. Safe mode

C. Hibernate

D. Sleep timer

21. A technology that allows to turn on a network computer remotely by sending a

special data packet is called:

A. Wake on LAN

B. Ping

C. WINS

D. Automated System Recovery (ASR)

22. HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) runs over TCP port:

A. 23

B. 110

C. 25

D. 80

23. Which of the following is an example of biometric authentication?

A. Password

B. Smart card

C. Fingerprint scanner

D. User name

24. Which of the following terms refers to a microchip embedded on the

motherboard of a personal computer or laptop that can store keys, passwords and

digital certificates?

A. FRU

B. EFS

C. TPM

D. HCL

25. A list of hardware and devices that have been tested to work with a given

operating system published by the operating system vendor is also known as:

A. MSDS

B. HCL

C. SSID

D. ACL

26. What is the name of a network access control method used to grant or deny

access to the network based on the physical address of Network Interface Card

(NIC)?

A. MAC filtering

B. WPA

C. SSID

D. ACL

27. A computer component that can be quickly replaced on-site is also referred

to as:

A. TPM

B. HCL

C. EFS

D. FRU

28. Which of the following statements regarding the RJ-45 connector are true?

(Select two answers)

A. RJ-45 is used with twisted-pair cabling

B. RJ-45 connects the cable to the phone outlet

C. RJ-45 is used with fiber-optic cabling

D. RJ-45 connects the cable to the network adapter

29. Which of the following should be the first step in the troubleshooting

process?

A. Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem and implementing the

solution

B. Documenting findings, actions and outcomes

C. Identification of the problem

D. Verifying full system functionality

30. A document containing information for the safe handling, use, storage and

disposal of potentially hazardous materials is also referred to as:

A. MBSA

B. MAU

C. MSDS

D. DLT

31. Service Set Identifier (SSID) is another term for:

A. MAC address

B. TCP/IP stack

C. The name of a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

D. Windows workgroup

32. Which of the following is the most secure way of removing data from a

magnetic hard drive?

A. High-level formatting

B. Degaussing

C. Moving files to Recycle Bin

D. Partitioning

33. IEEE 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing:

A. Ethernet

B. Token ring networks

C. Fiber-optic communication

D. Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs)

34. Which of the following cabling types are used with RJ-45 connectors? (Select

all that apply)

A. STP

B. Fiber-optic

C. Twisted pair

D. UTP

35. What are the characteristics of tape drives? (Select three answers)

A. Magnetic media

B. High capacity

C. Lack of moving parts

D. Low capacity

E. Slow seek times

36. SXGA+ (Super eXtended Graphics Array Plus) display standard uses a

resolution of:

A. 1400 x 1050

B. 1600 x 1200

C. 1024 x 768

D. 1920 x 1200

37. The resolution an LCD monitor was designed to display based on its size

providing the best display settings is also known as a native resolution.

A. True

B. False

38. What is the name of a device that apart from allowing for connecting a

laptop to a full-sized monitor, keyboard and other peripheral devices also

allows for attaching secondary storage devices such as additional hard drives,

floppy drives, or optical drives?

A. Managed switch

B. Port replicator

C. PCI slot

D. Docking station

39. Which of the following terms refers to a computer user-interface using a pen

(or stylus) and tablet, rather than devices such as a keyboard, joysticks or a

mouse?

A. Nettop

B. Desktop replacement

C. Pen computing

D. HDMI

40. Which of the following terms refer to RAID Level 1? (Select two answers)

A. Disk striping

B. Disk mirroring

C. Disk duplexing

D. Disk striping with distributed parity

41. What is the maximum allowable cable length defined in the Parallel ATA

(PATA) interface standard?

A. 1 meter

B. 18 inches

C. 2 meters

D. 5 meters

42. Which type of motherboard uses a riser card near the edge of the board?

A. BTX

B. micro ATX

C. ATX

D. NLX

43. The 6-pin Mini-DIN connector attached to a green PS/2 port is used for

connecting:

A. Mouse

B. Keyboard

C. Speaker

D. Monitor

44. The 6-pin Mini-DIN connector attached to a purple PS/2 port is used for

connecting:

A. Speaker

B. Monitor

C. Keyboard

D. Mouse

45. Communication that happens in two directions simultaneously is also referred

to as:

A. Full-duplex

B. Point-to-multipoint

C. Simplex

D. Half-duplex

46. Which of the following protocols is used for sending e-mail messages?

A. SMTP

B. POP3

C. HTTPS

D. Telnet

47. A memory cache on the processor chip is known as:

A. DRAM

B. Level 1 (L1) cache

C. VRAM

D. Level 2 (L2) cache

48. What is adware?

A. Unsolicited or undesired electronic messages

B. Malicious program that sends copies of itself to other computers on the

network

C. Software that displays advertisements

D. Malicious software that collects information about users without their

knowledge

49. Which of the following IEEE 802.11 standards has the shortest range?

A. 802.11b

B. 802.11g

C. 802.11n

D. 802.11a

50. In computer security, the practice of obtaining confidential information by

manipulating people is also known as:

A. Mantrap

B. Vulnerability

C. Hacking

D. Social engineering

51. What is the bit length of IPv4 address?

A. 64 bits

B. 32 bits

C. 128 bits

D. 48 bits

52. In half-duplex communication transmission takes place:

A. In two directions simultaneously

B. Only in one direction at a time

C. In one direction only

D. In one direction at half the speed

53. Which of the following are Windows tools for migrating user data and user

information to a new computer? (Select three answers)

A. USMT

B. Windows Easy Transfer

C. CHKDSK

D. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard

E. MBSA

54. What is the name of a Windows command-line utility that displays TCP/IP

configuration settings?

A. ifconfig

B. dxdiag

C. ipconfig

D. msconfig

55. Allowing a program through a firewall is also known as creating:

A. Event

B. Static route

C. Exception

D. Tunnel

56. Software that performs unwanted and harmful actions in disguise of a

legitimate and useful program is also referred to as:

A. Logic bomb

B. Spyware

C. Trojan horse

D. Adware

57. Which of the following terms refers to a device or software application

designed to detect malicious activities and violations of security policies on a

network and/or computer host?

A. HAL

B. DMZ

C. IPX

D. IDS

58. Safe Mode in Microsoft Windows can be accessed by pressing:

A. F8 key

B. F12 key

C. F6 key

D. F1 key

59. Windows device drivers tested by Microsoft are known as:

A. Updated drivers

B. OEM

C. Signed drivers

D. WHQL

60. A list of devices that a computer can boot from can be configured through:

A. Device Manager

B. BIOS

C. Control Panel

D. Master Boot Record (MBR)

61. Which of the following statements apply to Windows workgroups? (Select three

answers)

A. Security policies and permissions in workgroups are administered centrally

B. Logging on to any computer on the workgroup requires a single account

C. Workgroups typically consist of no more than twenty computers

D. There is no limit on the number of hosts that can become a part of a single

workgroup

E. Logging on to any computer in the workgroup requires an account on that

computer

F. Each computer in the workgroup has its own security policy

62. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) runs on TCP port number: (Select two answers)

A. 20

B. 21

C. 22

D. 23

E. 25

63. Which of the following are the features supported by the New Technology File

System (NTFS)? (Select best answer)

A. Object permissions

B. Encryption

C. Compression

D. All of the above features are supported by NTFS

64. Which of the following protocols allows for remote login from one host to

another?

A. HTTPS

B. POP3

C. Telnet

D. SMTP

65. What is the name of a command-line utility used for checking the

reachability of a remote host?

A. DxDiag

B. Ping

C. cmd

D. regedit

66. Which of the following statements apply to Windows domains? (Select three

answers)

A. Logging on to any computer on the Windows domain requires a single set of

credentials

B. Security policies and permissions on the Windows domain are administered

centrally

C. Windows domains are based on the Peer-to-Peer networking architecture

D. Each computer on the Windows domain has its own security policy

E. Windows domains are based on the Client-Server networking architecture

F. All members of the Windows domain must be on the same local network or subnet

67. What is the name of a Windows tool used for identifying problems that might

prevent Windows from starting correctly?

A. systray

B. msinfo32

C. msconfig

D. cmd.exe

68. Which of the following components is an example of CPU passive cooling?

A. Chipset

B. Computer case

C. Heat sink

D. Cooling fan

69. WUXGA (Widescreen Ultra eXtended Graphics Array) display standard uses a

resolution of:

A. 1400 x 1050

B. 1600 x 1200

C. 1024 x 768

D. 1920 x 1200

70. Which of the following terms refers to a Windows utility used for performing

tasks on a computer without the use of graphical interface?

A. dxdiag

B. cmd.exe

C. msinfo32

D. msconfig

71. PGA and LGA are examples of:

A. Motherboard form factors

B. Bus architectures

C. CPU housing types

D. Memory slots

72. In Microsoft Windows, the long horizontal bar at the bottom of the screen is

called:

A. Windows Aero

B. Taskbar

C. Task Manager

D. Desktop

73. FireWire is another term for which of the following standards?

A. IEEE 802.11

B. IEEE 1284

C. IEEE 802.3

D. IEEE 1394

74. Which of the following devices can cause disruptions in wireless network

connectivity? (Select all that apply)

A. Cordless phone

B. Baby monitor

C. Microwave oven

D. Ethernet switch

75. Which of the following industry standards defines parallel communication

interface?

A. FireWire

B. IEEE 1284

C. USB

D. IEEE 1394

76. In Microsoft Windows, this folder allows for accessing locations such as

hard disks, optical drives, and removable media.

A. My Computer

B. Control Panel

C. iexplore.exe

D. Task Manager

77. Which of the following are used for the purpose of authentication? (Select

all that apply)

A. User name and password

B. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

C. Smart card

D. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

E. Fingerprint scanner

78. Software that cannot be clearly classified as malware is also referred to

as:

A. Grayware

B. Rootkit

C. Logic bomb

D. Trojan horse

79. Which of the following are the two main CPU manufacturers for personal

computers? (Select two answers)

A. Intel

B. Asus

C. Nvidia

D. AMD

80. Devices that connect to ports on the back of computer case are commonly

referred to as:

A. Plug and play

B. Integrated

C. Peripheral devices

D. Docking devices

81. Which of the following is used to improve heat dissipation from the CPU?

A. Backplane

B. Thermal compound

C. Semiconductor

D. HVAC

82. Static RAM (SRAM) is slower than Dynamic RAM (DRAM).

A. True

B. False

83. Which of the following is an example of good communication skills when

dealing with a customer?

A. Argue with a technical user if necessary to educate them

B. Rely on your own judgement and do not restate and clarify what the customer

says

C. Ask close-ended questions to let the customer answer with a simple "yes" or

"no"

D. Listen to the customer and do not interrupt until he or she finishes

describing the problem

84. Dot-matrix and daisy-wheel printers fall into the category of:

A. Ink-jet printers

B. Impact printers

C. Laser printers

D. Thermal printers

85. Surge protector is a device designed to safeguard the computer from:

A. Voltage spikes

B. Brownouts

C. Power outage

D. Blackouts

86. POST card:

A. Terminates the SCSI chain

B. Is used in biometric authentication

C. Helps in troubleshooting computer startup problems

D. Is used to check proper functioning of the Network Interface Card (NIC)

87. Which of the following would be the best choice for cleaning the inside of

computer case? (Select two answers)

A. Contact cleaner

B. Damp cloth

C. Vacuum cleaner

D. Compressed air

88. Which of the following tools are used to protect against ESD? (Select all

that apply)

A. Tech bench

B. Antistatic bag

C. Ground mat

D. Antistatic wrist strap

89. C-RIMM:

A. Is a type of RAM used in laptops

B. Offers higher speeds than DRAM

C. Detects and corrects memory errors

D. Is a place holder module with no memory chips

90. What is the last step in the laser printing process?

A. Writing

B. Fusing

C. Cleaning

D. Charging

91. Which of the following are the contents of Master Boot Record (MBR)? (Select

two answers)

A. Master boot program

B. Partition table

C. Device drivers

D. User account information

E. Windows registry

92. Which type of printer has the capability of printing multi copy documents?

A. Laser

B. Dot-matrix printer

C. Ink-jet

D. Thermal

93. How many pins a floppy disk cable has?

A. 50 pins

B. 34 pins

C. 68 pins

D. 80 pins

94. DVD region code setting can be changed:

A. 3 times

B. 5 times

C. 0 times

D. there is no limit

95. Which of the following is the maximum speed supported by the IEEE 1394b

interface?

A. 480 Mbps

B. 400 Mbps

C. 12 Mbps

D. 800 Mbps

96. What is the maximum cable length for USB devices?

A. 5 meters

B. 1 meter

C. 4.5 meters

D. 18 inches

97. Which of the following are used to mark the delay in RAM response time?

(Select two answers)

A. RAS

B. ECC

C. CAS

D. RTC

98. Cable length for FireWire devices is limited to:

A. 2 meters

B. 5 meters

C. 18 inches

D. 4.5 meters

99. What is the name of a database in Windows that contains important

information about system hardware, installed programs and settings, and profiles

of each of the user accounts?

A. BIOS

B. SAM

C. Registry

D. Hive

100. Placing print jobs in a queue is also referred to as:

A. Spooling

B. Dumping

C. Transferring

D. Preprocessing

ANSWERS

1. Answer: A. Library

Explanation: Windows library works like a regular Windows folder providing

access to different files and folders in one place, but unlike folder which

actually stores the data the library is a manageable collection of short cuts to

different files and folders which might be stored in various locations including

external hard drives or remote computers.

2. Answers: C and D. WPA and WEP

Explanation: Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) and Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) are

encryption standards designed for securing wireless networks. WEP is an older

standard and due to its vulnerabilities is not recommended. Wide Area Network

(WAN) refers to a network or group of networks that span a large geographical

area. Wireless Access Point (WAP) connects wireless nodes to wireless or wired

networks.

3. Answer: C. Interference

Explanation: Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) and Radio Frequency Interference

(RFI) are two types of interference that can disrupt the operation of wired and

wireless networks. One of the protective measures against EMI in wired networks

is cable shielding. Radio Frequency Interference (RFI) is a type of EMI that

occurs in radio frequency range and can cause disruptions in the operation of

wireless networks (the most common effects of RFI include intermittent

connectivity loss and low data transmission rates).

4. Answer: E. All of the above devices require high AC voltage and may pose a

risk to electrical safety

Explanation: Although most of the PC components require low voltage DC power to

operate (3.3 and 5.0 volts for electronic components, 12.0 volts for mechanical

parts), some PC devices need high voltage AC power and may pose a risk to

electrical safety even when unplugged. PC power supplies convert high AC voltage

into low voltage DC current, and capacitors inside the PC power supply can hold

high electric charge for a period of time even when the device is unplugged.

Older types of monitors based on the cathode ray tube (CRT) technology can also

retain high voltages even if the power is disconnected. Laser printing process

relies on extremely high voltages and working on the inside of the laser printer

case while the device is switched on poses risk of electrocution. Liquid Crystal

Display (LCD) monitors use low voltage DC power, but also include inverters

which transform DC power back into AC power needed by the panel backlights.

Troubleshooting all of those devices and components requires specialized skills.

5. Answer: C. 1024 x 768

Explanation: XGA (eXtended Graphics Array) supports screen resolution of up to

1024 x 768. VGA (Video Graphics Array) standard supports screen resolution of up

to 640 x 480. Resolution of 800 x 600 is used by the SVGA (Super VGA) standard.

1280 x 1024 refers to SXGA (Super XGA) resolution standard.

6. Answer: B. SCSI ID

Explanation: SCSI ID identifies the physical device on a SCSI chain. If the SCSI

device has some further devices embedded in it, each of those devices is

identified with the use of a Logical Unit Number (LUN). Originally Unique

Identifier (OUI) refers to the first half of the Media Access Control (MAC)

address of the Network Interface Card (NIC), and is used to identify the

manufacturer of the card. The term physical address is another term for the MAC

address.

7. Answer: B. False

Explanation: The last step of the troubleshooting process methodology involves

documenting findings, actions and outcomes, and comes after verifying full

system functionality.

8. Answer: D. KVM switch

Explanation: Keyboard, Video, Mouse (KVM) switch is a hardware device for

administering multiple hosts from a single computer. Microsoft Management

Console (MMC) is a software utility that hosts and displays Microsoft software

administrative tools (also known as snap-ins) used for managing Windows. Device

Manager is a Windows utility for checking and modifying system hardware

configuration. Docking stations are hardware devices that expand laptop

capabilities by providing ports for connecting peripheral devices and additional

secondary storage devices such as hard, floppy, or optical drives.

9. Answers: A and C. chkdsk and defrag

Explanation: chkdsk is a Windows utility used for checking disk, fixing errors

on the disk, and displaying status report. defrag utility in Windows improves

system performance by consolidating fragmented files. Windows ver and vol

commands have no other use than providing information on Microsoft Windows

version (ver command) and displaying volume label and serial number (vol

command).

10. Answers: B and D. SO-DIMM and SO-RIMM

Explanation: Small outline DIMMs (SO-DIMMs) and small outline RIMMs (SO-RIMMs)

are the memory module types used in laptops. Continuity RIMMs (C-RIMMs) are

place holder modules with no memory chips. Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) is a

video bus designed specifically for graphics cards.

11. Answer: C. Event Viewer

Explanation: Event Viewer is a Windows utility for monitoring system health and

troubleshooting problems with applications, operating system, and hardware.

Event Viewer allows for browsing and managing event logs. The most common logs

available in Event Viewer include Application, System, and Security logs.

Depending on the severity of the event, Application and System logs display

events that fall into three categories: Information, Warning, and Error.

Information events denote normal operation of the system (such as starting and

stopping of system services, or successful completion of some routine background

tasks), Warning events point to non-critical errors (for example when

installation of a software component fails because the component is already on

the system), Error events point to serious issues, for example when programs

stop responding and need to be closed by Windows. Security log contains events

such as valid and invalid logon attempts, as well as events related to resource

use, such as creating, opening, or deleting files or other objects. Security-

related events are called audits and inform only about success or failure of an

event. Administrators can specify what events are recorded in the Security log

(for example in order to monitor attempts at logging on to the system).

12. Answer: A. DHCP

Explanation: Dynamic IP addresses are managed by Dynamic Host Configuration

Protocol (DHCP) server. DNS servers resolve host names to IP addresses. WINS

servers resolve NetBIOS names to IP addresses in Windows networks. SMTP servers

handle electronic mail (e-mail) messages.

13. Answer: D. msinfo32

Explanation: Windows utility that displays details about computer's hardware

configuration, computer components, and software (including drivers) is called

msinfo32. nslookup displays information about domain names and their

corresponding IP addresses. msconfig is a Windows utility that allows for

turning on and off common Windows services and programs in order to identify

Windows startup problems. ipconfig is a command-line tool for displaying TCP/IP

network configuration information on Windows.

14. Answers: B and C. Windows Vista and Windows 7

Explanation: Windows Vista and Windows 7 include the User Account Security (UAC)

feature which displays a prompt for administrator password when a program is

about to make a change that requires an administrator-level permission. UAC was

introduced in Windows Vista and is also present in Windows 7, but wasn't

available in earlier Windows releases prior to Vista, such as Windows Me or XP.

15. Answers: A B and C. RAID Level 0: is also referred to as striped disk array,

offers no fault tolerance, requires at least two drives to implement

Explanation: Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a collection of

different data storage schemes (referred to as RAID levels) that allow for

combining multiple hard disks into a single logical unit in order to increase

fault tolerance and performance. RAID Level 0 breaks data into fragments called

blocks and each block of data is written to a separate disk drive. This greatly

improves performance as every physical disk drive handles only a part of the

workload related to write and read operations. Each consecutive physical drive

included in this type of array improves the speed of read/write operations by

adding more hardware resources to handle decreasing amount of workload. The main

disadvantage of RAID 0 is that it doesn't offer any fault tolerance. Each drive

holds only part of the information and in case of failure of any of the drives

there is no way to rebuild the array which in turn results in the loss of all

data.

16. Answer: B. 12 Mbps

Explanation: USB version 1.1 offers two data transfer speeds: 1.5 Mbps

(sometimes referred to as "Low-Speed" and designed for low data rate peripherals

such as joysticks) and 12 Mbps (sometimes referred to as "Full-Speed" and

designed for higher-speed devices such as disk drives). USB version 2.0

(officially labelled as "Hi-Speed") allows for transfer rates of 480 Mpbs and is

backward-compatible with the earlier versions. USB 3.0 standard (officially

marketed as "SuperSpeed") has transmission rates of up to 5 Gbps and is

backwards compatible with USB 2.0.

17. Answer: C. Hot swapping

Explanation: Replacing computer system components without shutting down the

system and with minimal disruption to the operation of the system is also

referred to as hot swapping.

18. Answer: D. Auto-switching

Explanation: Power supplies may accept an AC current of 110-120 volts (standard

AC current in the United States and Canada) or 220-240 volts (European AC

standard). A PSU might have either a manual selector switch on the back of the

device for adjusting the supplied voltage (these types of PSUs are referred to

as fixed-input devices), or automatically adapt to the supplied AC voltage

(auto-switching PSUs).

19. Answer: B. Standby

Explanation: Standby mode is one of the power management modes that can be

found in the earlier versions of Windows (prior to Vista). Standby mode saves

the system state in RAM and puts a computer into a power-saving state by

disconnecting power to certain components and peripherals (such as monitors and

hard drives). The system can be brought back to its previous state with all the

open applications and documents by pressing the power button or on command, and

this mode allows to get back to all the tasks much quicker than in case of a

normal computer shutdown and restart.

20. Answer: C. Hibernate

Explanation: Hibernate mode in Windows saves the system state to a hard disk.

The difference between standby and hibernate mode is that hibernate mode allows

to safely power off the computer whereas standby mode relies on RAM which still

needs a supply of power to be able to store the system state information (a

computer in a standby mode cannot be powered off completely without losing this

data). In case of complete power outage while in standby mode the system state

data stored in RAM will be lost. In a similar situation, hibernate mode allows

to bring the system back to its saved state with all the open applications and

documents by pressing the power button.

21. Answer: A. Wake on LAN

Explanation: Technology that allows to turn on a network computer remotely by

sending a special data packet (aka Magic Packet) is called Wake on LAN. Ping is

a command-line utility that allows to check for reachability of a remote host.

Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) translates host names to network addresses

in Microsoft networks and has a similar function to DNS. Automated System

Recovery (ASR) is a set of tools and utilities in Windows XP and Windows Server

2003 used for system recovery in case of a serious system error (when Windows is

unable to start). In Windows Vista and Windows 7 similar set of tools is

available in the System Recovery Options menu on the Windows installation disc.

22. Answer: D. 80

Explanation: HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) runs over TCP port number 80.

TCP port 23 is used by Telnet. TCP port 110 is used by Post Office Protocol

version 3 (POP3). TCP port 25 is reserved for the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

(SMTP).

23. Answer: C. fingerprint scanner

Explanation: In computer security, user's identity can be verified either by

examining something that the user knows (a user name or password), something

that the user has (a physical object such as smart card), or something that the

user is (unique trait of every single person such as finger print or pattern of

a human eye iris). Biometric authentication systems are based on examining the

unique traits of a user and fingerprint scanner is an example of a biometric

device.

24. Answer: C. TPM

Explanation: Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a specification, published by the

Trusted Computing Group (TCG), for a microcontroller that can store secured

information, and also the general name of implementations of that specification.

Trusted Platform Modules are hardware based security microcontrollers that store

keys, passwords and digital certificates and protect this data from external

software attacks and physical theft. TPMs are usually embedded on the

motherboard of a personal computer or laptop, but they can also be used in other

devices such as mobile phones or network equipment.

25. Answer: B. HCL

Explanation: Hardware Compatibility List (HCL) is an official list of hardware

components and peripheral devices that have been tested to work with a given

operating system. HCLs are usually published by the operating system vendors but

can also be maintained by users. In addition to the information published on the

vendor's site, some operating system vendors also offer software programs that

scan for potential issues with hardware, devices, and installed programs before

upgrade. One of the examples of such software is Upgrade Advisor utility from

Microsoft.

26. Answer: A. MAC filtering

Explanation: Network access control method based on the physical address (MAC

address) of the Network Interface Card (NIC) is called MAC filtering or MAC

address filtering. 48-bit MAC address is a unique number assigned to every

network adapter. Wireless Access Point can have a certain MAC address

blacklisted or whitelisted and based on the entry on either of the lists grant

or deny access to the network.

27. Answer: D. FRU

Explanation: Field Replaceable Unit (FRU) is a term used in reference to the

computer component that can be quickly replaced on-site eliminating the need to

send the entire device to the repair facility. Examples of FRUs include memory

modules, expansion cards, or power supplies.

28. Answers: A and D. RJ-45 is used with twisted-pair cabling and RJ-45 connects

the cable to the network adapter

Explanation: RJ-45 (Registered Jack 45) is a type of connector used in Ethernet

networks. RJ-45 works with twisted-pair copper cabling and is used for

connecting cable to the Network Interface Card (NIC). Registered Jack is a

series of standardized connectors and wiring patterns. RJ-45 is one of the two

RJ connectors mentioned in the 220-701 exam objectives. Another one, called RJ-

11, is smaller in size than RJ-45 and can be found on telephones and telephone

sockets.

29. Answer: C. Identification of the problem

Explanation: Identification of the problem should be the first step in the

troubleshooting process recommended by CompTIA. This step includes questioning

the user, identifying user changes to computer, and performing backups of user

data. The other optional answers in this question refer to the last three steps

of the troubleshooting process. Documentation of findings, actions and outcomes

should come as the very last troubleshooting step after verifying full system

functionality, and verification of full system functionality should take place

after implementing the actual solution to the problem.

30. Answer: C. MSDS

Explanation: Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) is a document containing

information for the safe handling, use, storage and disposal of potentially

hazardous materials. An MSDS for a computer component, for example a laptop

battery, contains information on the substance used in battery manufacturing and

its toxicity, first aid measures and extinguishing methods in case of

electrolyte leakage and catching fire, instructions on handling, storage,

transport and safe disposal of the battery.

31. Answer: C. The name of a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

Explanation: Service Set Identifier (SSID) is another term for the name of a

Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN). Many wireless networks advertise their

presence by regularly broadcasting the SSID in a special packet called beacon

frame. In wireless networks with disabled security features knowing the network

SSID is enough to get access to the network. SSID can be hidden by disabling the

SSID broadcast on the Wireless Access Point, but hidden SSID can still be

discovered with the use of a packet sniffing software. Security measures that

help in preventing unauthorized access to a wireless network include strong

encryption standards such as WPA and WPA2.

32. Answer: B. Degaussing

Explanation: One of the security measures applied before the disposal of a

magnetic storage media involves the process of degaussing. Hard drives (also

other types of magnetic storage media such as tapes and floppy disks) can be

placed inside a strong magnetic field in order to permanently remove information

stored on the media. This is often done to prevent unauthorized parties from

retrieving sensitive information after media disposal.

33. Answer: D. Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs)

Explanation: IEEE 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing Wireless Local

Area Networks (WLANs). IEEE 802.3 is a collection of standards for Ethernet

networks. Token ring networks are standardized by the IEEE 802.4 standard.

34. Answers: A, C and D. STP, Twisted pair, and UTP

Explanation: Twisted pair is one of the cabling types (besides coaxial and

fiber-optic cabling) used in Ethernet networks. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) is

not surrounded by any shielding that would provide protection against

Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) from outside sources. When used as a network

media, UTP cables are often installed with Registered Jack 45 (RJ-45) connector

(RJ-11 connectors are used for telephone cabling). The biggest advantage of UTP

is its low cost and ease of installation. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) also uses

RJ-45 connectors and reduces EMI interference from outside sources such as power

generating machinery. STP cabling can be implemented with the use of a braided

screen or foil and protecting sheath can cover all four pairs only, or (in order

to offer the best protection) cover all four pairs and additionally each

individual pair of wires. The general feature of all twisted-pair cabling types

is that wires are grouped into pairs and wires in each pair are twisted around

each other in order to reduce signal interference from adjacent wire pairs

(effect known as crosstalk).

35. Answers: A, B, and E. Magnetic media, High capacity, and Slow seek times

Explanation: Tape drives are a type of magnetic media storage devices. The main

features of tapes include high capacity, low cost and durability. Because of

those advantages, tapes are used as an inexpensive backup and archival solution.

The main drawback of tape drives involves slow seek times in comparison to other

storage media such as magnetic hard drives or solid-state drives. In order to be

able to read a particular piece of data from tape, the tape has to be rolled to

the desired point where the information is stored.

36. Answer: A. 1400 x 1050

Explanation: SXGA+ (Super eXtended Graphics Array Plus) display standard uses a

resolution of 1400 x 1050. Resolution of 1600 x 1200 applies to the UXGA (Ultra

eXtended Graphics Array) standard. 1024 x 768 resolution is used by the XGA

(Extended Graphics Array) standard. (WUXGA) Widescreen Ultra eXtended Graphics

Array display standard uses a resolution of 1920 x 1200.

37. Answer: A. True

Explanation: The resolution an LCD monitor was designed to display based on its

size providing the best display settings is also known as native resolution.

Native resolution is the actual amount of pixels built into the LCD monitor.

38. Answer: D. Docking station

Explanation: Port replicator allows for connecting a laptop to a power outlet

and provides additional ports for connecting laptop to a full-sized monitor,

keyboard and other peripheral devices. A docking station provides the same

functions as a port replicator, but additionally allows for attaching secondary

storage devices, such as additional hard drives, floppy drives, or optical

drives.

39. Answer: C. Pen computing

Explanation: The term pen computing refers to a computer user-interface using a

pen (or stylus) and tablet, rather than devices such as a keyboard, joysticks or

a mouse. Nettop is a generic term for small-factor desktop computers offering

very basic features and capabilities. High-end, more expensive (also heavier and

larger) laptops offering performance similar to regular desktops are often

referred to as desktop replacements. High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI)

is a digital audio and video standard.

40. Answers: B and C. Disk mirroring and Disk duplexing

Explanation: RAID Level 1 is also referred to as disk mirroring or disk

duplexing. The term disk mirroring refers to a situation in which all the drives

(minimum of two and very frequently only two) in a RAID 1 array operate through

a single disk controller. The term disk duplexing refers to a RAID Level 1

solution with a separate controller for each drive. RAID Level 1 offers very

high fault tolerance because data is written identically to multiple drives.

Failure of one of the drives doesn't break the array and the array continues to

operate as long as at least one drive is functioning. High redundancy of RAID

Level 1 comes at the cost of high disk overhead (highest of all RAID types).

41. Answer: B. 18 inches

Explanation: The maximum allowable cable length defined in the Parallel ATA

(PATA) interface standard is 18 inches. 1 meter is the maximum length for Serial

ATA (SATA) cables. 2 meters is the maximum cable length defined in the external

SATA (eSATA) standard. 5 meters is the maximum cable length for Universal Serial

Bus (USB).

42. Answer: D. NLX

Explanation: New Low profile eXtended (NLX) motherboard form factor uses a riser

card (doughterboard) near the edge of the board. Expansion cards that plug into

a riser card on the NLX motherboard are parallel with the board which saves

space and allows for smaller system case.

43. Answer: A. Mouse

Explanation: The 6-pin Mini-DIN connector attached to a green PS/2 port is used

for connecting mouse.

44. Answer: C. Keyboard

Explanation: The 6-pin Mini-DIN connector attached to a purple PS/2 port is used

for connecting keyboard.

45. Answer: A. Full-duplex

Explanation: Full-duplex is a type of communication that happens in two

directions simultaneously. Communication between two devices whereby

transmission takes place in only one direction at a time is called half-duplex

communication.

46. Answer: A. SMTP

Explanation: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used for

sending e-mail messages. SMTP runs over TCP port 25.

47. Answer: B. Level 1 (L1) cache

Explanation: A memory cache on the processor chip is also known as Level 1 (L1)

cache, primary cache, or internal cache. This type of memory is made of static

RAM (SRAM), which is much faster than regular dynamic RAM (DRAM).

48. Answer: C. Software that displays advertisements

Explanation: Adware is a type of software that displays advertisements on the

user system, often in the form of a pop-up window. Malicious program that sends

copies of itself to other computers on the network is called computer worm.

Malicious software that collects information about users without their knowledge

is called spyware. Unsolicited or undesired electronic messages are known as

spam.

49. Answer: D. 802.11a

Explanation: IEEE 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing wireless

networking transmission methods. IEEE 802.11a standard operates in the 5.0-GHz

frequency range and offers speeds of up to 54 Mbps. The range between wireless

device and access point supported by this standard is 50 meters.

50. Answer: D. Social engineering

Explanation: The practice of obtaining confidential information by manipulating

people is also known as social engineering.

51. Answer: B. 32 bits

Explanation: The length of IPv4 address is 32 bits. IPv6 addresses are made of

128 bits. MAC addresses consist of 48 bits.

52. Answer: B. only in one direction at a time

Explanation: In half-duplex mode communication takes place only in one direction

at a time. Two devices communicating with each other in both directions

simultaneously are said to be in full-duplex mode. Transmission that is carried

out in one direction only is also referred to as simplex.

53. Answers: A, B, and D. USMT, Windows Easy Transfer, and Files and Settings

Transfer Wizard

Explanation: User State Migration Tool (USMT) is a more advanced migration tool

for transferring user-profile information to a new Windows computer. USMT is an

advanced, scriptable command-line tool used for migrating multiple user profiles

in Windows domain environment. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard is a user

migration tool available in Windows XP. Windows Easy Transfer is an improved

version of the Files and Settings Transfer Wizard for Windows Vista and Windows

7. Windows Easy Transfer is not available in Windows XP, but the application can

be downloaded and installed on Windows XP or Windows 2000 (on Windows 2000

Windows Easy Transfer can only be used for transferring files from Windows 2000

to a new computer; transfer of user settings is not supported).

54. Answer: C. ipconfig

Explanation: Windows command-line utility for displaying and configuring TCP/IP

settings is called ipconfig (ifconfig is the Linux equivalent of this tool used

in UNIX-like systems). By default ipconfig displays only the IP address, subnet

mask and default gateway for each network adapter on the system configured to

use TCP/IP. ipconfig /all displays full configuration information (including,

for example, MAC address of the Network Interface Card).

55. Answer: C. Exception

Explanation: Allowing a program through a firewall is also known as creating an

exception.

56. Answer: C. Trojan horse

Explanation: Software that performs unwanted and harmful actions in disguise of

a legitimate and useful program is also referred to as a Trojan horse. This type

of malware may act like a legitimate program and have all the expected

functionalities, but apart from that it will also contain a portion of malicious

code appended to it that the user is unaware of.

57. Answer: D. IDS

Explanation: Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is a general term for a device or

software application designed to detect malicious activities and violations of

security policies on a network and/or computer host. An IDS designed to monitor

networks is known as Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS), an IDS installed

on a particular host monitoring only that host is called Host Intrusion

Detection System (HIDS). IDSs do not take any active steps to prevent or stop

the intrusion relying only on passive response which may include sending an

alert to a management console or saving information about the event in logs.

58. Answer: A. F8 key

Explanation: Safe Mode in Microsoft Windows can be accessed by pressing the F8

key during system boot. Safe Mode allows for resolving problems that cause

Windows startup errors and prevent the system from starting normally. Startup

errors can be caused by faulty applications, system services, and device drivers

that are loaded automatically. In Safe Mode, only the core Windows drivers and

system services are loaded, and once the system starts in this mode it allows

for troubleshooting problems by disabling or removing a system service, a device

driver, or automatically started application that is preventing the computer

from starting normally.

59. Answer: C. Signed drivers

Explanation: Windows device drivers tested by Microsoft are known as signed

drivers. Drivers are signed by Microsoft after they pass a series of tests for

functionality and reliability. For a driver to earn this certification, it must

pass a series of tests administered by the Windows Hardware Quality Labs (WHQL).

Due to stringent WHQL standards, using signed drivers typically results in a

more stable system.

60. Answer: B. BIOS

Explanation: A list of devices that a computer can boot from can be configured

through the BIOS interface.

61. Answers: C, E, and F.

Explanation: Computers running Windows on a network must be part of a workgroup

or a domain. Windows workgroups typically consist of no more than twenty

computers. Each computer in the workgroup has its own security policy and

logging on to any computer in the workgroup requires an account on that

computer.

62. Answer: A and B. 20 and 21

Explanation: File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses TCP port numbers 20 and 21.

Connection established over TCP port 20 (the data connection) is used for

exchanging data, connection made over TCP port 21 (the control connection)

remains open for the duration of the whole session and is used for session

administration (commands, identification, passwords, etc.).

63. Answer: D. All of the above features are supported by NTFS

Explanation: NTFS was designed as a replacement for its predecessor, the File

Allocation Table (FAT) file system. Its advantages over FAT include improved

reliability due to the file system recovery features, increased security

achieved by allowing users to set permissions on files or folders (through the

Discretionary Access Control access control model), support for the Encrypting

File System (EFS) technology used to store encrypted files on NTFS volumes, file

compression, and disk quotas.

64. Answer: C. Telnet

Explanation: Network protocol used on the Internet or Local Area Networks (LANs)

that allows for remote login from one host to another and executing commands on

a remote host is called Telnet. Telnet runs on TCP port number 23.

65. Answer: B. Ping

Explanation: Command-line utility used for checking the reachability of a remote

host is called ping.

66. Answers: A, B, and E

Explanation: Windows domains are based on the Client-Server networking

architecture and are used for managing large number of networked hosts. Security

policies and permissions on a Windows domain are administered centrally through

servers that store information on user accounts and security settings. Logging

on to any computer on the Windows domain requires a single set of credentials.

67. Answer: C. msconfig

Explanation: System Configuration (msconfig) is a Windows tool designed to help

in identifying and isolating Windows startup problems. The main option in this

utility allows for disabling services and applications that are loaded during

Windows startup (turning them back on one by one helps in isolating program or

service that might prevent Windows from starting correctly).

68. Answer: C. Heat sink

Explanation: Heat sink is an example of CPU passive cooling. Heat sinks are

usually made of an aluminium alloy and often have fins. They are mounted on top

of the processor and in order to improve thermal conductivity and transfer of

heat from the CPU a special thermal compound is also applied between the two.

Heat sinks are referred to as passive cooling components because they do not

need to draw any power in order to operate (as opposed to active cooling

components, such as cooling fans).

69. Answer: D. 1920 x 1200

Explanation: WUXGA (Widescreen Ultra eXtended Graphics Array) display standard

uses a resolution of 1920 x 1200 and has an aspect ratio of 16:10 (ratio of the

width of the image to its height).

70. Answer: B. cmd.exe

Explanation: Command Prompt (cmd.exe) allows for performing tasks in Windows

without the use of graphical interface. This system utility is typically used by

advanced users and some of its commands can be executed only in an elevated mode

(while logged on as an administrator).

71. Answer: C. CPU housing types

Explanation: Pin Grid Array (PGA) and Land Grid Array (LGA) are examples of CPU

housing types. PGA packages have pins placed on the bottom of the chip, LGA

packages have lands (small pads) on the bottom of the chip to match the pins

which are located on the CPU socket.

72. Answer: B. Taskbar

Explanation: In Microsoft Windows, the long horizontal bar at the bottom of the

screen is called taskbar. Starting from the left, Windows taskbar includes the

Start button (providing access to programs, folders, and settings), middle

section (showing open applications and allowing for quick switching between

them) and notification area (including a clock and icons that communicate the

status of certain programs and computer settings). Notification area is also

referred to as system tray, or systray.

73. Answer: D. IEEE 1394

Explanation: FireWire is another term for the IEEE 1394 standard (FireWire is a

trademarked name for this standard owned by Apple).

74. Answers: A, B, and C. Cordless phone, Baby monitor, and Microwave oven

Explanation: Cordless phones, baby monitors, microwave ovens, Bluetooth devices

and other wireless devices operating in the 2.4-GHz frequency range can cause

disruptions in wireless network connectivity.

75. Answer: B. IEEE 1284

Explanation: 1284 is an IEEE standard for parallel port. Universal Serial Bus

(USB), IEEE 1394 (aka FireWire) are industry standards defining serial

communication interface.

76. Answer: A. My Computer

Explanation: My Computer folder provides access to locations such as hard disks,

CD or DVD drives, removable media, and other devices that might be connected to

the computer, such as external hard drives and USB flash drives.

77. Answers: A, C, and E. Sser name and password, Smart card, and Fingerprint

scanner

Explanation: Authentication is proving user identity to a system. Authentication

process can be based on user names and passwords (something that the user

knows), physical tokens such as smart cards (something that the user has), or

unique traits of every single person, such as finger prints (fingerprint

scanner). Once the process of authentication is complete, the next step is to

apply the rules that define the extent to which the user can interact with the

system (authorization). Mandatory Access Control (MAC) and Discretionary Access

Control (DAC) are two access control models used for authorization, i.e.

granting or denying access to certain resources on the system once the user is

authenticated.

78. Answer: A. Grayware

Explanation: Programs that cannot be clearly classified as malicious software

(malware) are also referred to as grayware (fall into the gray area). Malicious

code is any piece of code intended to do harm to the user system. Examples of

malware include rootkits, logic bombs, and Trojans. Actions performed by

grayware might be annoying to the user, but not necessarily serious or illegal.

Advertising pop-ups might be classified as grayware.

79. Answers: A and D. Intel and AMD

Explanation: The two main CPU manufacturers for personal computers are Intel and

AMD.

80. Answer: C. Peripheral devices

Explanation: Devices that connect to ports on the back of the computer case are

commonly referred to as peripheral devices.

81. Answer: B. Thermal compound

Explanation: In order to improve heat dissipation from the CPU, a thin layer of

thermal compound is applied between the CPU and the heat sink before mounting

the heat sink on top of the processor.

82. Answer: B. False

Explanation: Static RAM (SRAM) is much faster than Dynamic RAM (DRAM) because it

doesn't need to be refreshed as often as DRAM. Processor cache memory is made of

Static RAM which allows for quick access to instructions stored in the CPU

cache.

83. Answer: D. Listen to the customer and do not interrupt until he or she

finishes describing the problem

Explanation: The ability to listen to the customer without interrupting until

they're done with describing the issue is an example of the appropriate use of

communication skills and professionalism. When dealing with a difficult customer

or a knowledgeable user avoid arguments and taking things personally. To narrow

the scope of the problem restate and clarify what the customer says and ask

open-ended questions to help the customer describe in their own words where the

problem is.

84. Answer: B. Impact printers

Explanation: Dot-matrix and daisy-wheel printers fall into the category of

impact printers. Impact printers use print heads or needles that hit the surface

of the ink ribbon, which presses the ink onto the paper.

85. Answer: A. Voltage spikes

Explanation: Surge protectors safeguard the computer from short voltage spikes

by limiting the supplied voltage. Power conditioners are used to protect the

computer and provide supply of power in case of longer drops in voltage

(brownouts). Backup power generators are used in case of prolonged and complete

power outages (also known as blackouts).

86. Answer: C. Helps in troubleshooting computer startup problems

Explanation: Power-On Self Test (POST) is a diagnostic routine that takes place

immediately after the computer is powered on. The purpose of POST is to check

the proper functioning of the system hardware components. POST diagnostic card

is an expansion card that displays progress and error messages (in form of

numeric codes) generated during POST.

87. Answers: A and D. Contact cleaner and Compressed air

Explanation: Dust accumulated inside computer case can cause the system to

overheat. Vacuum cleaners may damage delicate computer parts by applying too

much suction and also by producing ESD. If a specialized antistatic vacuum

cleaner is not available, the best (and cheap) way for removing dust from the

inside of the case is to use a can of compressed air. Contact cleaners are used

for removing dirt from tips of expansion cards that plug into the motherboard

slots.

88. Answers: B, C, and D: Antistatic bag, Ground mat, Antistatic wrist strap

Explanation: Antistatic bags, wrist straps, and mats are all countermeasures

used to protect computer components from Electrostatic Discharge (ESD).

89. Answer: D. Is a place holder module with no memory chips

Explanation: Continuity RIMM (C-RIMM) is a place holder module with no memory

chips. C-RIMMs are used with RDRAM (Rambus DRAM) memory modules to ensure

continuity throughout all memory slots. Design of Rambus memory controllers

requires RDRAM memory modules to be installed in pairs and any remaining open

memory slots must be filled with C-RIMMs.

90. Answer: B. Fusing

Explanation: Fusing is the last phase in the laser printing process. In this

step, pressure and heat are used to melt the toner particles to the paper. The

fusing rollers apply the heat to the paper and pressure rollers apply the

pressure to bond the melted toner into the paper.

91. Answers: A and B. Master boot program and partition table

Explanation: Master Boot Record (MBR) consists of master boot program and

partition table that contains information about all partitions on the drive.

92. Answer: B. Dot-matrix printer

Explanation: Dot-matrix printers are impact printers equipped with the

capability of printing multi copy documents.

93. Answer: B. 34 pins

Explanation: Floppy disk cable has 34 pins.

94. Answer: B. 5 times

Explanation: Most DVDs are encoded to play in specific regions. Playing a

regionalized DVD requires setting the DVD drive to play discs from that region.

DVD region code setting can be changed 5 times. After reaching the limit the DVD

region code cannot be changed even after reinstalling Windows or moving the DVD

drive to another computer.

95. Answer: D. 800 Mbps

Explanation: The maximum speed supported by the IEEE 1394b interface is 800

Mbps. IEEE 1394b interface is also known under the Apple Inc. brand name

FireWire 800.

96. Answer: A. 5 meters

Explanation: The maximum cable length for USB devices is 5 meters. 4.5 meters is

the maximum cable length for FireWire devices. 1 meter is the maximum cable

length for internal SATA. 18 inches is the maximum cable length for PATA.

97. Answers: A and C. RAS and CAS

Explanation: Column access strobe (CAS) latency and row access strobe (RAS)

latency are two memory features used to mark the delay in RAM response time.

98. Answer: D. 4.5 meters

Explanation: Cable length for FireWire devices is limited to 4.5 meters.

99. Answer: C. Registry

Explanation: A database in Windows that contains important information about

system hardware, installed programs and settings, and profiles of each of the

user accounts is called registry.

100. Answer: A. Spooling

Explanation: Placing print jobs in a queue is also referred to as spooling.