IBPS PO Mains Mock Test 1 - ixamBee

IBPS PO Mains Mock Test 1

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The answers along with explanations are given at the end of the question paper

Section: Reasoning & Computer Aptitude Directions(1-5):

Step 1:

Append the elements with the number obtained by adding the number of the characters as in the alphabetical series.

Step 2:

If the elements contain:

i) One vowel: Replace the number with the sum of the digits of that number & replace the vowel with the next vowel in the alphabetical series.

ii) Two vowels: Replace first vowel with the next vowel in the alphabetical series.

iii) No vowel: Multiply the digits of the number and replace first consonant with the closest vowel that comes before the consonant in the alphabetical series and replace the second consonant with the next letter in the alphabetical series.

Step 3:

Step 3 is coded in some special pattern.

As per the rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.



And answer the following questions

Question No.1

Which of the following element replaces the alphabets IG9 in step 3? Options :

1. PX0 2. JG9 3. FA10 4. JV9 5. None of these

Question No.2 Which of the following element replaces TP36 in step 2? Options :

1. OP14 2. OQ18 3. OI14 4. UX12 5. None of these

Question No.3 Which of the following element is placed immediate right to PX0 in step 3? Options :

1. JG9 2. VI14 3. PU36 4. JV9 5. None of these

Question No.4 Which of the following is diagonally opposite to the element UX12 in step 2? Options :

1. EX0 2. OI14 3. UU36 4. OQ18 5. None of these



Question No.5 Which of the following replaces UU36 in step 3? Options :

1. VQ18 2. PX12 3. JV9 4. VI14 5. None of these

Directions (6-10):

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

In April, the India Meteorological Department (IMD) had predicted “near normal”, or 96%, rains and then upgraded the figure to 98% a couple of months later. These percentages refer to the proportion of rains to 89 cm, a 50-year average of monsoon rains. However, the country finally ended up with “below normal” rains (that is, less than 96% of the 50-year long period average). In itself, this is not a problem. Crop sowing is expected to be only a little less than last year, which saw a record harvest, with more districts posting deficient rain. Better drought management has over the years weakened the link between rain shortfall and food production, but the IMD continues to persevere with the meaningless practice of assigning a catch-all number to the quantum of rain expected during the monsoon.

Question No.6 What can be the repercussions of below average rainfall?

I. Drought like conditions are prevailing in the country.

II. Country has become fully independent of the natural rainfall.

III. Food production is not directly correlated with the rainfall now a days as better water saving and drought management practices have been adopted by the government.

Options :

1. Both I and II 2. Only III 3. Only I 4. Both II and III 5. All I, II and III

Question No.7 What shows the inefficiency of meteorological department in predicting the accurate forecast of rainfall?

I. The department wrongly calculated the 50 year average of rainfall.

II. Constantly changing the weather forecast detrimental to the farmers of the country.

III. Rainfall not happening up to the calculations of meteorological department

Options :

1. Only I 2. Both I and II 3. Only II 4. Both II and III 5. All I, II and III



Question No.8 Which of the following represents the people sitting at extreme ends of both the lines? Options :

1. Tanvi, Smita and Lena, Manjeet 2. Tanvi, Smita and Naveen, Kishor 3. Rohan, Prita and Naveen, Lena 4. Prita, Smita and Lena, Naveen 5. Rohan, Prita and Kishor, Manjeet

Question No.9

Who amongst the following sits on the immediate left of the one who likes Dairy Milk in row-1? Options :

1. Smita 2. The who likes Perk in row-1 3. The who likes Munch in row-1 4. Rohan 5. Tanvi

Question No.10 Which of the following represent both the immediate neighbours of Manjeet? Options :

1. Naveen and the one who likes Kit Kat in row-2 2. Lena and the one who likes Munch in row-2 3. Kishor and the one who likes Perk in row-2 4. Lena and the one who likes Dairy Milk in row-2 5. Kishor and the one who likes Dairy Milk in row-2

Directions (11-15):

Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the following questions given below:

Question No.11

If all the numbers of the above given arrangement in set 1 are written in reverse order (i.e. 1st number in the set is replaced by last number in the set, second number in the set is replaced by second last number in the set and so on…), which element will be third to the left of eighth from the right end?

Options :

1. 0 2. * 3. U 4. 6 5. None of these



Question No.12

If all the capital letters from set 1 are removed and all the small letters from set 2 are removed, then, then the fifth element to the right of the eighth element from the left of the set 1 will be_______ whereas the fourth element to the right of the seventh from the right end of set 2 will be_______.

Options :

1. 03 2. #P 3. g1 4. $3 5. None of these

Question No.13 Which element is the sixth to the right of the sixteenth from the left in the new series if the first ten elements and the last ten elements of set 2 are exchanged (1st element exchanged with last, 2nd element exchanged with second last and so on)? Options :

1. ! 2. g 3. d 4. f 5. None of these

Question No.14 If set 1 is written in reversed order and all the letters are dropped, then how many elements are there between # and 2? Options :

1. 7 2. 4 3. 6 4. 3 5. None of these

Question No.15 Four of the five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the arrangement and so form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

tEw Urf K0& gD# &5g $mV

Options :

1. K0& 2. Urf 3. $mV 4. gD# 5. None of these



Directions(16-19): Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

An input-output is given in different steps. Some mathematical operations are done in each step.

As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Question No.16

Find the sum of the two numbers obtained in step III?

Options :

1. 1.5 2. 10.5 3. 10.25 4. 1.025 5. 102.5

Question No.17 Find the difference between sum of numbers which obtained in 1st step and sum of numbers obtained in all other steps? Options :

1. 5.65 2. 6.25 3. 17 4. 2.65 5. 19.5



Question No.18 Find the product of the numbers obtained in step I? Options :

1. 640 2. 320 3. 160 4. 128 5. None of these

Directions(19-22):

Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Nine dogs (A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I) are participating in a dog show and forming different patterns. All dogs are standing forming a square such that, H,B,D,F are at the consecutive corners of the square and H stands in the North west direction with respect to A. I,C,E,G are standing at the center of each side of square such that I is between H and B and is 4 m to the North of A, C is between B and D, E is between D and F, G is between H and F. A is standing inside the square, in the center and each dog standing at the center of each side is 4 meters away from it. The length of each side of square is 8m.

H moves 4m towards North and D moves 4 m towards south. C moves 4 meter towards south and then turns left and walks for another 4 meters and stops.

B moves 4 meter towards East and then turns left and walks for another 4 m and then turns right and walks for another 4 m.

G moves 8 m East and then turns right and walks for another 4m. F walks 4 m North and turns towards its right and walks for another 4 m. I walks 4 m West and then turns left and walks for other 8 m.

A walks 4√2 m towards South East direction and then it starts moving towards north for 8 m and then walks for other 4 m after turning left. E walks 8 m towards West and then turns right and walks for 4m and stops.

Question No.19 After all the dogs have reached their final positions, how many dogs occupy the same position which was earlier occupied by some dog? Options :

1. Three 2. Four 3. None 4. Five 5. None of these

Question No.20 What is the shortest distance between E and C? Options :

1. 8 m 2. 38 m 3. 4√17 m 4. 17√4 m 5. 20 m



Question No.21 Which of the following combinations of dogs are in a straight line? Options :

1. C, I, G 2. D, G, E 3. H, B, A 4. F, E, C 5. H, E, I

Question No.22 In which direction is A with respect to its initial position? Options :

1. South 2. South East 3. West 4. North West 5. None of these

Directions(23-24):

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

On 2nd October Holiday, Sheetal wants to buy a dress online through online shopping app and chooses to apply certain filters in the app, for the selection of the dress of her choice. The filter conditions are the following. The dress must:

a) be of knee length and of a bright colour (yellow, pink, peach, mustard, orange, red, green, light blue)

b) have either 3/4th sleeves or full sleeves.

c) cost less than Rupees 800

d) be of Rayon, Chiffon, cotton, georgette

e) be delivered within 4 days

Question No.23

Which of the following dresses will appear after the application of the filter? Options :

1. The dress which is made of cotton and has short cap sleeves 2. The dress which is navy blue in color with full sleeves and Rayon fabric 3. The dress which is pink in colour and will be delivered by 7th October 4. The dress which is made of red coloured chiffon and costs Rupees 799 5. The dress which is orange coloured ankle length and will be delivered by 4th October.



Question No.24 Which of the following contradicts the views expressed in the above statements? Options :

1. A costly but useful addition to the Electronic Voting Machine, it allows the voter to verify her vote after registering it on the EVM, and the paper trail allows for an audit of the election results by the EC in a select and randomised number of constituencies.

2. The EC has boldly responded to baseless allegations regarding tampered EVMs and is now out in open to demonstrate the effectiveness and accuracy of the EVMs by conducting elections through VVPAT

3. Initially, the VVPAT was supposed to take place in different phases, which decision now seems altered.

4. Only 2 & 3 5. None of the above

Directions(25-30):

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Question No.25 STATEMENT:

As much as it is providing a boost to the local economy, excessive tourism is also spelling doom to the environmental sustainability of cities and livelihoods associated with it. Now there is push back from the locals in major European cities against tourism. Residents of Venice staged a protest in July against the menaces perpetual tourism has brought on to the city. Barcelona wants to tax the tourists to plug the influx.

ASSUMPTIONS:

I. Many of the tourists who comes to the country, does not care for environmental sustainability as they come to enjoy their holidays.

II. The reactions of the locals matter the most and the government adheres to their demands when it comes to tourism for boost of local economy.

III. The government may listen to the demands of the locals and take certain steps like taxing the tourists to insure that the serenity and beauty of such places is maintained.

Options :

1. Only I follows 2. Only 3 follows 3. 1 and 3 follow 4. Only 2 follows 5. 1 and 2 follow



Question No.26 STATEMENT:

During Navarathri celebrations, the Kannika Parameshwari temple on Vysial Street has a rather unique practice. It is not the priests but a select group of men who decorate the deity for the day. These men stay in the temple premises during the nine days and perform their duty in the purest way possible.

ASSUMPTIONS:

I. There are bedrooms available in the temple premises where the select group of men stay during Navratri.

II. In most of the temples, all the temple decorations are taken care of by the priests of the temple.

III. During Navrathri, it is mandatory to decorate the deities.

Options :

1. All follow 2. Only 3 follows 3. 1 and 3 follow 4. 2 and 3 follow 5. None follows

Question No.27 Which of the following function(s) is/are not present in the number keypad of keyboard? Options :

1. Addition 2. Delete 3. Page up 4. Print Screen 5. End

Question No.28 The current window that is being used is known as _________ Options :

1. Dormant Window 2. Active Window 3. Desktop 4. Passive 5. Task Manager

Question No.29 In relation to computer, what is ‘nibble’? Options :

1. the process of pausing the current action and switching to the priority command 2. unit for half a byte 3. switching between multiple windows using Windows + Tab keys 4. unit for measuring of clock speed 5. None of these



Question No.30 Which of the following is not a Microsoft product? Options :

1. Skype for business 2. Visual Basic 6.0 3. Windows Vista 4. Java 5. None of these

Directions(31-35): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Ten types of flowers (Gerbera, Rose, Lily, Dahlia, Daffodil, Peony, Marigold, Lotus, Orchid and Primrose) are used to make six bouquets (Pink, yellow, blue, red, green, purple) consisting of 12 flowers in each bouquet.

2. Each bouquet can have minimum two types of flowers or maximum three types of flowers with equal number of flowers of each type. Each type of flower is used at least in one bouquet and at max in two bouquets.

3. Minimum flowers of Gerbera and Rose are used and maximum flowers of Dahlia and Daffodil are used while forming 6 bouquets.

4. 6 Peony are used in only in the yellow bouquet. 6 Dahlia are used in Purple bouquet.

5. Total 8 orchids are used in 2 bouquets but never with Rose. Dahlia are used only with Marigold, Lotus and Orchid. Daffodils are used with Marigold, Primrose and Peony.

6. Total 6 Lotus are used.

7. Marigold is in the red bouquet but not with Daffodils.

8. Primrose are in green and blue bouquet

9. Marigold, rose and gerbera are not in blue bouquet. Peony are used only in one bouquet.

Question No.31 How many lilies are used in 6 bouquets all together? Options :

1. (4) 2. (6) 3. (8) 4. (10) 5. (12)

Question No.32 With which of the following flower are Primrose never used? Options :

1. Daffodil 2. Marigold 3. Lily 4. Rose 5. Orchid



Question No.33 Lotus are used with which flower? Options :

1. Dahlia 2. Daffodil 3. Peony 4. Primrose 5. Lily

Question No.34 In which bouquet is lily used? Options :

1. Pink 2. Yellow 3. Blue 4. Both 1 & 3 5. Both 2 & 3

Question No.35

Which bouquet contains Orchid?

Options :

1. Green 2. Red 3. Pink 4. Yellow 5. Purple

Directions(36-40):

Read the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

1. Nine people (A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I) are sitting around a round table facing the center, not necessarily in the same order. Among them are 4 married couples and 1 pair of siblings. One of the siblings is unmarried. Each person has a different hobby (Singing, travelling, painting, gardening, trekking, sketching, photography, cooking, Reading), not necessarily in the same order.

2. The one who likes photography sits second to the left of a male.

3. F sits to the immediate left of her brother who likes cooking.

4. A’s husband likes singing and he sits to the immediate right of the female who likes painting.

5. G’s wife sits second to his right. No male likes reading or photography.

6. The one who likes reading sits to the immediate left of C’s sister and is married to E who likes trekking.

7. Both the immediate neighbours of only B and C are of opposite gender to B and C respectively. Gender of B is opposite to C.

8. D likes reading and sits second to the right of B, who likes painting.



9. The wife of the one who sits to the immediate left of D likes gardening. I is married to C, likes photography and sits to the immediate left of the one who likes sketching.

Question No.36 Who among the following likes travelling? Options :

1. A 2. F 3. G 4. H 5. Either 2 or 3

Question No.37 Which among the following is not a husband wife pair? Options :

1. D, E 2. C, F 3. B, G 4. A, H 5. None of these

Question No.38 If the hobbies of husbands and wives are exchanged, what will be the hobby of the one sitting third to the right of C? Options :

1. Painting 2. Sketching 3. Singing 4. Photography 5. Reading

Question No.39 Which husband is sitting farthest from his wife? Options :

1. E 2. H 3. G 4. C 5. Both E and H



Question No.40 Whose spouse sits second to the left of the one who likes trekking? Options :

1. The one who is sitting second to the left of the one who likes travelling 2. The one who likes cooking 3. The one sits to the immediate right of the one who likes sketching 4. The one who likes sketching 5. The one who sits third to the right of the one who likes painting.

Directions(41-45):

Seven Friends – Chirag, Tanvi, Haneet, Shipra, Hanish, Biswa, Isha lives on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered seven. Each of them like a different cuisine North Indian, Mexican, Chinese, Italian, Continental, Mediterranean, and South Indian but not necessarily in the same order.

(i) The one who likes Chinese lives on the floor, numbered 3.

(ii) Only one person lives between Haneet and the one who likes Chinese.

(iii) The one who likes Mediterranean lives immediately above Haneet.

(iv) Only one person lives between the one who likes Mediterranean and the one who likes Mexican.

(v) The number of people living between Haneet and the one who likes Mexican is the same as that between the one who likes Mediterranean and Biswa.

(vi) Tanvi lives on an odd-numbered floor and likes Continental.

(vii) Only two people lives between Hanish and the one who likes Continental.

(viii) The one who likes Italian lives on one of the floor below Hanish but not on Floor number 2.

(ix) Only two people live between Chirag and Isha.

(x) The one who likes North Indian lives immediately below Chirag.

Question No.41 Who is living on the floor above which Biswa lives? Options :

1. Tanvi 2. Hanish 3. Haneet 4. Chirag 5. None of these

Question No.42 The one who likes North Indian lives at? Options :

1. Floor no. 4 2. Floor no. 5 3. Floor no. 2 4. Floor no. 7 5. None of these



Question No.43 Who is lives between Haneet and the person who lives at 3rd floor? Options :

1. Hanish 2. Chirag 3. Shipra 4. Biswa 5. None of these

Question No.44 Which one of the following combination is true? Options :

1. Floor no. 3 – Hanish – Mexican 2. Floor no. 5 – Chirag – Chinese 3. Floor no. 2 – Biswa – North Indian 4. Floor no. 1 – Haneet – Italian 5. Floor no.7 – Tanvi – South Indian

Question No.45 How many persons lives below where the Chirag lives? Options :

1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. More than three 5. None of these

Section: English Language Directions(46-50): From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

Question No.46

While hiking the mountains of Nepal, a British Hiker irked a tea seller by bargaining for what she thought was steeply priced tea. At 150 Nepalese Rupees, steep the tea may be but it doesn’t discount the hardships the seller endured to make it available for the tourist. In turn, the tea seller grabbed a piece of wood from her backyard and chased the tourist, all the while screaming how presumably rich the tourist was and how she feels exploited because of the bargain. __________________

Options :

1. For its gains, the tourism industry is not far behind from luring more tourists using new methods. 2. In effect, the researchers mined Instagram pictures based on geo-tagging to help tourists see

cities from a local's perspective. 3. Enraged locals can also chase you down a narrow mountain path, as was witnessed in a viral

video last week, filmed by a British hiker. 4. Needless to mention, the exchange also doesn’t entitle the seller to threaten a tourist so

violently. 5. Nepal is hence looking at hiring additional squads to control the crowd of tourists.



Question No.47

By the time I woke up the sun was shining bright. The mist-clad Banasura Hill, the second highest in Wayanad, towered over the resort resembling an elephant’s trunk. One could see miles of wilderness stretching in a soothing display of green grandeur. Puffs of grey and white clouds floated across the blue sky. Following a sumptuous breakfast in the outdoors to the chucking of a woodpecker, I was all set to trek up the Banasura Hill. _____________________________.

Options :

1. Soon, rain turned to mist and shrouded the nearby hills and the vehicles began to move. 2. As I moved into the forest on hillside, the guide told me if I don’t walk fast, it would take me

another four hours to walk six kms to the top.

3. I was slow as the initial gradient was slippery from previous night’s rains.

4. A healthy pair of lungs and a good pair of shoes is all that you require to get going on the track, taking in the scent of the luscious foliage.

5. Soon the grassy meadows changed the high mountain landscape to idyllic.

Question No.48 The fallout of focussing on numbers to gauge a phenomenon as geographically and quantitatively varied as the Indian monsoon is that it has ripple effects of tricking everyone from policymakers to the stock markets that a ‘normal’ monsoon implies all will be well with rainfall distribution. So this year’s floods in Mumbai, Assam and Bihar, and the months-long drought in Karnataka and Vidarbha were all merged under an umbrella number. The Indian monsoon has over the centuries stayed remarkably consistent at around 89 cm during the monsoon months, give or take 10%. The challenge lies in capturing intra-seasonal variation or forecasting a sudden change in global weather (such as typhoons) that can affect rainfall over specific districts. ____________________________. Options :

1. While more and more farmers are opting for crop insurance and have far greater access via mobile phones to news on weather patterns, what they seek are localised, actionable inputs to guide them on sowing or harvesting decisions.

2. Therefore, simply getting these blanket four-month forecasts right doesn’t really help.

3. The Indian Meteorological Department is increasingly relying on supercomputers and

sophisticated models to warn of weather changes at the district level.

4. The Indian Meteorological Department must give momentum to this shift.

5. These localised estimates aim to warn of threatening weather and are operationally useful rather than reduce rain to numerical jugglery.



Question No.49 The Nobel Prize for physics this year is for the discovery of the gravitational waves released by violent events in the universe such as the mergers of black holes. The first time this was detected was on September 14, 2015, by the LIGO-VIRGO collaboration. Since then three more detections have been made, the latest one on September 28, 2017. The discovery is due to an extremely delicate experiment. Gravitational waves were predicted by Einstein almost 100 years ago. _______________________. Options :

1. It also throws up the possibility of detectors that can look at the beginning of the universe.

2. After about 50 years of experimentation the waves were detected for the first time in September 2015.

3. The discovery can pave the way for proving the general theory of relativity, so that we can

look deeper and deeper into the universe.

4. The discovery and the repeated detection (four times now) has made the possibility of gravitational wave astronomy very real.

5. Gravitational wave astronomy is a way of mapping out some of the most violent processes in

the universe such as black hole or neutron star mergers that cannot be detected with light or the conventional methods.

Question No.50 The government notes that business establishments are increasingly reliant on private investigators for gathering information and intelligence. Therefore, a large number of private detective agencies have come up all over the country. While in most cases, these agencies have helped in meeting the private investigation and vigilance needs of business establishments, there has been growing concern over how these agencies function, as some of them conduct operations without due verification of those employed as agents. __________________________. Options :

1. It also makes it mandatory for private detective agencies to hold licenses to carry on their business.

2. The Private Detective Agencies (Regulation) Bill has been pending in Parliament for the past

seven years.

3. The proposed law, the government says, would enforce proper norms for the functioning of private detective agencies.

4. In short, the government wants to regulate the functioning of private detective agencies so

that they are run within legal parameters and are accountable to a regulatory authority.

5. Also not observed is due regard for the protection of the rights of individuals who are spied upon.



Directions(51-55): In the given sentences, there are three blank spaces. Below each sentence five set of words have been given. Find out which set of words can be filled up in the blanks in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

Question No.51

The Prime Minister ___________ that the country could only _______ economically if planners had a clear _______ of rural development in the context of growing unemployment.

Options :

1. vouch, meet, set 2. believed, progress, concept 3. thought, develops, idea 4. imagine, grow, vision 5. believes, deter, plan

Question No.52

________ aim in life is to provide happiness _______ enable a harmonious atmosphere _________ everyone forever.

Options :

1. Mine, to, including 2. Their, alongwith, for 3. His, along, through 4. Her, through, in 5. My, and, for

Question No.53

Law of triviality __________ to the observation ________ people in organisations pay more attention to unimportant issues ________ towards issues that really matter.

Options :

1. behaves, of, inclining 2. stands, of, instead 3. refers, that, than 4. referring, where, then 5. calls, in, tilting

Question No.54 ________ the current government _________ to revive neoliberal momentum, there is no assessment of the legacy of liberalisation even ________ narrow economic benchmarks. Options :

1. While, seeks, on 2. Since, wish, for 3. When, plan, through 4. Though, fail, by 5. For, decide, from



Question No.55 A distributor ________ electricity from a generator, adds transmission and distribution________, a charge to recover technical losses, operating expenses, and his profit to determine the tariff to be charged __________ a consumer. Options :

1. plans, loses, in 2. buys, charges, from 3. deals, criteria, through 4. gets, cost, of 5. looses, variables, in

Directions(56-60): In questions given below, a part of the sentence is given in bold and underlined . Below are given alternatives to the bold and underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, option 5 is the answer.

Question No.56 He was stunned for seeing me waiting for him and told me that I looked very angry. Options :

1. stun to see 2. stunned by see 3. stun to seeing 4. stunned to see 5. No improvement required

Question No.57 He believed that an efficiency and integrity of the administration was important to get policies and programmes implemented in the right spirit. Options :

1. His belief that an 2. He beliefs that an 3. He beliefs that the 4. He believed that the 5. No improvement required

Question No.58 The complete of education marking a turning point in the life of every individual. Options :

1. completion in education marked 2. complete education of marks 3. completion of education marks 4. complete in education marks 5. No improvement required



Question No.59 Opportunity for employment is being created increasingly by our developing plan are implemented. Options :

1. by their developing plans 2. as our development plans are 3. by our development plans 4. through our developing plans 5. No improvement required

Question No.60 Guru Gobind Singh said it was our duty to come to the defence of all those who were threatened through no fault of their own. Options :

1. say that it is our duty to come for 2. says that it was our duty to come for 3. said that it is his duties for come to 4. said that it is my duty to come for 5. No improvement required

Directions (61-65):

Rearrange the following six sentences a, b, c, d, e and f in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

a) But influenza was present in India even before 2009 in the form of H3N2 and Influenza B virus types.

b) The problem with these official figures, however, is that they only capture H1N1 numbers, a practice that has been adopted in response to the severity of the 2009 pandemic.

c) Ever since the influenza virus known as H1N1 landed on Indian shores during the 2009 pandemic, outbreaks have been an annual occurrence.

d) This year the virus has been particularly active; mortality, at 1,873 by the last week of September, is quickly catching up with the 2015 toll.

e) The worst was in 2015, when 2,990 people succumbed to it.

f) In comparison, official figures show 2016 to be a relatively benign year, with an H1N1 death toll of 265.

Question No.61 Which is the FIRST sentence of the paragraph? Options :

1. A 2. F 3. D 4. E 5. C



Question No.62 Which is the SIXTH (LAST) sentence of the paragraph? Options :

1. F 2. B 3. A 4. E 5. D

Question No.63 Which is the THIRD sentence of the paragraph? Options :

1. F 2. E 3. D 4. C 5. B

Question No.64 Which is the FIFTH sentence of the paragraph? Options :

1. F 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. C

Question No.65 Which is the SECOND sentence of the paragraph? Options :

1. C 2. D 3. E 4. A 5. B

Directions(66-73):

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

For years, China was regarded as the globe's bastion for economic growth. But a new study predicts those days are fading further into the rearview mirror as the Asian economic titan slows its roll. India appears to have snatched the growth crown from China, with researchers at Harvard University's Center for International Development estimating its economy will grow at a 7.7 percent average annual pace between 2015 and 2025. That ties Uganda for the fastest expected rate of economic growth over the course of that decade. But considering the World Bank last year estimated India's economy was more than 88 times larger than Uganda's, the former's rate of expansion will make bigger waves in the international market as India plugs along toward becoming one of the world's



single largest economies. "The researchers attribute India's rapid growth prospects to the fact that it is particularly well positioned to continue diversifying into new areas, given the capabilities accumulated to date," said a press release accompanying the report. "India has made inroads in diversifying its export base to include more complex sectors, such as chemicals, vehicles, and certain electronics." The updated economic growth metrics tell a story of both India's rise and China's slowdown. The economy that for years drummed up annual growth metrics north of 7 percent – often sitting comfortably in the double-digits – is expected to slow down in the coming years, maintaining an average growth rate of 4.4 percent between 2015 and 2025. That's above the global average but is still a far cry from the breakneck pace the country maintained in recent years. China's economy last year grew at a notably faster 6.7 percent pace, and that was still its worst performance in more than a quarter of a decade.

It's worth noting, though, that India isn't necessarily expected to become a larger economy than China over the long haul. By 2050, China is expected to surpass the U.S. as the world's largest economy, with India possibly second should economic conditions evolve as predicted, according to a separate report published earlier this year by PricewaterhouseCoopers. Though the U.S. is currently measured to be the world's largest economy by traditional metrics, growth has proven to be lackluster in the aftermath of the Great Recession. The Federal Reserve predicts America's long-term economic growth through 2019 and beyond will fail to hit 2 percent. President Donald Trump's administration, meanwhile, has promised to put policies in place to boost annual gross domestic product gains north of 3 percent over the long haul. The most recent Harvard, study, though, projects U.S. expansion will fall somewhere in the middle, averaging out about 2.9 percent annual expansion between 2015 and 2025. Though that's well shy of the numbers coming out of China and India, it would still be a welcome uptick in the eyes of U.S. economists. America's GDP hasn't eclipsed 2.8 percent growth in any year since 2005, and it's only happened three times since the turn of the millennium. Trump's economy-boosting efforts like health care, tax and infrastructure reform have yet to fully work their ways through Capitol Hill, and big-ticket deregulatory efforts – like what's contained in the House-approved Financial Choice Act – also haven't yet been signed into law. But Harvard's study suggests there could be a U.S. economic rebound on the horizon, though whether that's thanks to Trump's legislative agenda remains to be seen.

Question No.66 Which country is currently the largest economy in the world? Options :

1. India 2. China 3. USA 4. Uganda 5. Cannot be determined

Question No.67 What is the reason behind the GDP of the USA not going over 2.8 in the past decade? Options :

1. The recession phases 2. Competitive market in China 3. Competitive market in both India and China 4. Election of Donald Trump as the president 5. None of these



Question No.68 Why is the rate of expansion of the Indian economy considered to spur the international market? Options :

1. Growth rate of India is more than 7 whereas it lies around 2.8 for the USA 2. India is a much larger economy than Uganda and thus will make a stronger impact in the

international market

3. China is recording a slow growth rate

4. India has diversified its exports base to include new sectors such as green energy, chemicals etc., which has uplifted the growth of Indian Economy

5. All of the above

Question No.69 What according to the researchers is/are the reason(s) behind India’s rapid growth? Options :

1. The biggest competitor China is recording its worst performance in more than a quarter of a decade.

2. India is in a good positon to diversify into new areas 3. India expanded its export base to complex sectors 4. Both 2 & 3 5. All of the above

Question No.70 When the growth rate of Uganda and India is nearly the same, how can we say that India’s economy is larger than Uganda’s? Options :

1. The report by PricewaterhouseCoopers says so 2. Uganda is a smaller country in terms of population in comparison to India and thus it will be

said to be a smaller economy than India. 3. The researchers predicted that according to the data gathered such conclusion can be

derived. 4. Only 1 & 3 5. None of these

Question No.71 Choose the word which is the same in meaning as the word/phrase given in bold as used in the passage BASTION Options :

1. Predictor 2. Upholder 3. Follower 4. Preacher 5. None of these



Question No.72 Choose the word which is the same in meaning as the word/phrase given in bold as used in the passage. HAUL Options :

1. Distance 2. Walk 3. Difficult 4. Shove 5. None of these

Question No.73 Choose the word which is the opposite in meaning as the word UPTICK as used in the passage. Options :

1. Decline 2. Downway 3. Doom 4. Boon 5. Flourish

Directions(74-80):

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The Reserve Bank of India’s Monetary Policy Committee has since inception retained its unwavering focus on its primary remit: the preservation of price stability. It follows then that the central bank’s rate-setting panel opted to leave benchmark interest rates unchanged and retain a neutral stance to achieve the medium-term target of keeping Consumer Price Index inflation close to 4% on a durable basis, while supporting growth. Spelling out the rationale for the decision, the MPC felt that with global crude oil prices having “firmed up further” amid a pick-up in demand and tighter supplies in the wake of OPEC’s production cuts, the threat of upward pressure on accelerating inflation has increased appreciably. Add to this the uncertainty posed by the prospects of weaker-than-anticipated kharif crop output and the impact this may have on food prices, and the concerns agitating policymakers will be evident. There are also the not-so-small matters of farm loan waivers by States that could roil the quality of public spending and exert price pressures — as well as the question of when States may decide to implement their own salary and allowance increases in the wake of the Centre’s Seventh Pay Commission implementation.

As the statement accompanying the rate decision points out, CPI inflation has risen by around two percentage points since the MPC’s last meeting in August: from 1.46% in June 2017, to a provisional 3.36% in August. The RBI’s September survey of household inflation expectations too has shown in qualitative responses a marked uptick in the proportion of respondents expecting the general price level to increase by more than the current rate. The welter of domestic pressure points on prices has also coincided with, in the MPC’s words, “an escalation of global geo-political uncertainty and heightened volatility in financial markets due to the U.S. Fed’s plans of balance sheet unwinding and the risk of normalisation by the European Central Bank.” In the face of such a “juxtaposition of risks” to the outlook for price stability, the overwhelming majority of the MPC’s six members saw little choice but to hold rates; there was a solitary dissent vote for a 25 basis points cut. The RBI’s policymakers simultaneously raised their inflation projection for the second half of the current fiscal to a 4.2-4.6% range and cut the estimate for real Gross Value Added growth this year to 6.7%, from the August forecast of 7.3%. Reiterating the urgent imperative to “reinvigorate investment activity” to spur growth, the MPC has laid the onus squarely on the government’s shoulders: from suggesting the recapitalisation of stressed state-owned lenders, to calling for further simplification of the GST regime



and urging that stalled public sector investment projects be restarted. The baton has been passed and now it is for the Centre to do the running.

Question No.74 What, according to the passage is the main responsibility of the Monetary Policy Committee of RBI? Options :

1. Ensuring that the fluctuations in prices of commodities in the market are handled well by the consumers

2. Ensuring Price stability 3. Ensuring that interest rates remain unchanged 4. Both 1 and 2 5. All of the above

Question No.75 What is the reason for the rise in the prices of crude oil on global level? Options :

1. High demand of crude Oil 2. Low supply of crude oil due to the reduction in the production by OPEC combined with higher

supply 3. Consumer Price Index inflation close to 4% 4. Both 2 and 3 5. All of the above

Question No.76 “The task of suggesting the recapitalisation of stressed state-owned lenders is currently a major responsibilyt of the MPC”. This Statement is Options :

1. Definitely True 2. Definitely False 3. Probably True 4. Probably False 5. Cannot be determined

Question No.77 What has the MPC done to ensure price stability? Options :

1. MPC received qualitative responses for household inflation expectations 2. MPC did not change the standard interest rates 3. MPC created a balance between the Consumer Price Index inflation and growth 4. Both 2 & 3 5. All of the above



Question No.78 Choose the word which is the same in meaning as the word/phrase given in bold as used in the passage.

REMIT

Options :

1. Repayment 2. Responsibility 3. Consequence 4. Giveaway 5. None of these

Question No.79 Choose the word which is the same in meaning as the word/phrase given in bold as used in the passage.

WELTER

Options :

1. Flurry 2. Spur 3. Moray 4. Loaves 5. None of these

Question No.80 Choose the word which is the opposite in meaning as the word INCEPTION as used in the passage. Options :

1. Competence 2. Denouement 3. Opulence 4. Livre 5. Spur

Section: Data Analysis & Interpretation Directions(81-85): In each of the following questions, a question is followed by information given in three statements. You have to study the question along with the statement and decide the information given in which of the statements is necessary to answer the question.

Question No.81 What is the profit percent or loss percent incurred in the transaction?

I. 5% discount is given on the marked price.

II. Cost price is 10% more than the marked price.

III. Selling price of the article is Rs. 22,800



Options :

1. I and II together or only III alone 2. Only I and III 3. Only I and II 4. All I, II and III 5. None of these

Question No.82 What is the present age of mother?

I. The difference between the ages of mother and daughter is 45 years.

II. The present age of daughter is 1/4thof the present age of the mother.

III. The sum of the ages of mother and daughter is 75 years.

Options :

1. Any two of them 2. Only I and III 3. Only I and II 4. All I, II and III 5. None of these

Question No.83 What is the cost of fencing a rectangular plot?

I. The length of the plot is thrice its breadth.

II. The cost of fencing is Rs. 16 per metre.

III. Ratio between breadth and length of the plot is 1 : 3.

Options :


Question No.84 What will be the compound interest earned on a sum in two years?

I. The simple interest on the same amount at the same rate of interest in two years is Rs. 800.

II. The amount becomes more than double at compound interest in 10 years.

III. The simple interest on the same amount at the same rate of interest in three years is Rs. 1,200.

Options :




Question No.85 At what time will a train reach city P from city Q?

I. The 600 meter long train crosses a signal pole in 20 seconds.

II. The another train crosses a 400 m long platform in 30 secs.

III. The train leaves city P at 10:00 am for city Q situated at a distance of 1,620 km.

Options :


Directions(86-90):

Study the following line graph Chart carefully and answer the following questions.

Number of candidates who got selected in IAS examination from six states during two given years:

Question No.86 Which of the following states has the number of qualified candidate in the given competitive exams is maximum? Options :

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. E



Question No.87 What is the ratio of the total number of candidates qualified from state C and D in 2015 and 2016 together to the total number of qualified students from state B and F in 2014 and 2015 together? Options :

1. 43 : 30 2. 31 : 29 3. 47 : 29 4. 52 : 47 5. None of these

Question No.88 Combining 2014 and 2015, if 75% of the appeared candidates from state A qualified in the given competitive exams, what was the total number of appeared candidates from state A in 2014 and 2015 together? Options :

1. 925 2. 800 3. 1000 4. 750 5. None of these

Question No.89 What is the average number of qualified candidates in the given competitive exam from states A, C, D and F? Options :

1. 1310 2. 1462.5 3. 1450 4. 15540 5. None of these

Question No.90 The number of qualified candidates in 2015 is approximately what percent less than the number of qualified candidates in 2016? Options :

1. 28% 2. 18% 3. 27% 4. 21% 5. 32%

Directions(91-95):

Study the following Pie Chart carefully and answer the following questions.

The pie-chart show the number of postgraduates from various trades and also the number of post graduates posted in different cities.

The total number of postgraduates = 6,000



Percentage of postgraduates from various trades.

Percentage of postgraduates posted in different cities.

The table shows the number of postgraduates from various trades posted in two cities.



Question No.91 If 40% of the total number of the postgraduates from Aviation are posted in Chennai, then the total number of postgraduates from Aviation who are posted in Chennai is what percent of the postgraduates posted in Chennai? Options :

1. 32% 2. 48% 3. 36% 4. 40% 5. None of these

Question No.92 What is the total number of postgraduates who are posted in Chennai, Delhi, Jaipur and Pune? Options :

1. 3600 2. 3060 3. 3006 4. 3660 5. None of these

Question No.93 If 25% of the total number of postgraduates from Management posted in Delhi, Bangalore and Chennai are in the ratio of 10 : 11 : 12 and 15% of the remaining postgraduates from Management who are posted in Jaipur, then what is the total number of postgraduates from Management who are posted in Jaipur, Delhi and Chennai? Options :

1. 720s 2. 630 3. 603 4. 845 5. None of these



Question No.94 What is the difference between the number of postgraduates from Engineering trade posted in Pune and Chandigarh and the number of postgraduates from Logistics and Aviation trade together in both the cities? Options :

1. 621 2. 525 3. 310 4. 705 5. None of these

Question No.95 If the number of postgraduates from Hotel Management posted in Chennai and Delhi is 20% of the total number of postgraduates posted in different cities, then what is the ratio of the number of postgraduates from Hotel Management posted in Pune and Chandigarh together to the number of postgraduates from Hotel Management in Chennai and Delhi together? Options :

1. 181 : 171 2. 191 : 145 3. 151 : 127 4. 162 : 139 5. None of these

Directions(96-100): Each question given below contains a statement followed by quantity I and quantity II. Find both to find the relationship among them. Mark your answer according.

Question No.96 Quantity I: A student multiplied a number by 3/5 instead of 5/3. What is the % error in the calculation?

Quantity II: The population of a town is 2,34,000. 4/9 of them are males and rest are females. If 30% of males are married and number of married females is 2.5 times of married males. Find the percent of married females out of total females in the town?

Options :

1. Quantity I > Quantity II 2. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II 3. Quantity I < Quantity II 4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II 5. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation can be established



Question No.97 Quantity I: There are two types of animals in a pet shop. Some are puppies and some are kittens. Each kitten takes 8 biscuits and each puppy takes 11 biscuits. If 500 biscuits were eaten by 55 animals. Find the number of puppies?

Quantity II: A, B, C, D purchased a toffees of Rs. 56 the share of B + C + D is 460% of A and the share of A + C + D is 366.66% of B and the share of C is 40% of A + B + D. Find the share of D.

Options :


Question No.98 Quantity I: The price of rice is decreased by 30%, by how much % the consumption is increase so that the expenditure will decreased by 10%?

Quantity II: A man spends Rs. 45,600 out of his income 68,400. If his income and expenditure are increased by 19% and 13%. Find the percentage change in his savings.

Options :


Question No.99 Quantity I: The cash price of a notebook is Rs. 100 but is can also be purchased on 11 monthly equal instalments of Rs. 10 each. Find rate of S.I.?

Quantity II: Cost price of 12 articles is equal to selling price of 9 articles while the discount given on 10 articles is equal to the profit earn on 5 articles. Find the difference between profit %and discount %?

Options : 1. Quantity I > Quantity II 2. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II 3. Quantity I < Quantity II 4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II 5. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation can be established

Question No.100 Quantity I: A vessel contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 7 : 5. If 9 litre of mixture is sold and replaced by same amount of water then the new mixture contain milk and water in the ratio 7 : 9. Find initial amount of water?

Quantity II: A vessel is full of 63 litre of milk. If 9 litre of milk is taken out and replace by water. Further 7 litre of mixture is taken out and replace again with water then find the amount of water at the end?

Options : 1. Quantity I > Quantity II 2. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II 3. Quantity I < Quantity II 4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II 5. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation can be established



Directions(101-105):

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Three persons Heera, Moti and Panna invested different amounts in different years for different years for different time periods and shared profit from the total profit given as per table. Some values are missing. Answer the questions on the basis of given table and information in question.

Question No.101 Moti’s investment in 2016 is 12000 less than that of Heera in the same year. Panna’s Profit in 2016 is Rs. 35000. For how many months did Panna invest his money in 2016? Options :

1. (8) 2. (10) 3. (9) 4. (6) 5. (11)

Question No.102 Find the profit of Panna in 2015, if the profits of Heera and Moti in the same year is Rs 21000 and Rs 27000? Options :

1. 45000 2. 30000 3. 42000 4. 36000 5. 50000



Question No.103 Moti’s investment in 2017 is 20% greater than that of Heera in same year. If profit of Moti is Rs 42000, then what is the Profit of Panna? Options :

1. 44500 2. 37850 3. 20000 4. 38000 5. 35000

Question No.104 Find the total profit in the year 2014, if the investment of Panna is half of the investment of Moti in the same year and the profit of the Heera is 22000 ? Options :

1. 72000 2. 64800 3. 77800 4. 83600 5. 64600

Question No.105 In 2013, the difference between the profit shares of Moti and Panna is Rs 1300 and the profit share of Heera is Rs 10400. If the investment of Heera is Rs 14000 less than 6000 times the investment time (in months) of Panna, Find the total investment of all the three? Options :

1. 92000 2. 96000 3. 88000 4. 90000 5. 84000

Directions (106-110):

Study the following Bar graph carefully and answer the questions that follow :



Question No.106 If the cost price of A and E is equal to Rs 2400 each. Find the difference in their Market Price. Options :

1. 800 2. 600 3. 1200 4. 1500 5. 400

Question No.107 If the market price of D is 150% of market price of C, then find the selling price of C, if market price of D is Rs 7200. Options :

1. 3620 2. 4480 3. 3340 4. 2880 5. 2520

Question No.108 Find the ratio of Selling Price of D and C, if the cost price of both is same. Options :

1. 18:23 2. 15:16 3. 9:13 4. 16:15 5. 33:35

Question No.109 Find the Selling price of B,, if the ratio of marked price of B and D is 5 : 1 and the Cost Price of D is Rs 12000 Options :

1. 54000 2. 52000 3. 63000 4. 66000 5. 55000

Question No.110 If the cost price of C and A is same, then find how much % the selling price of A is more or less than that of C. Options :

1. 8.33% 2. 4% 3. 5% 4. 6.66% 5. 8%



Directions(111-115):

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:

From a School, a total of 2640 students chose – Science, Commerce, Arts and Agriculture as their streams after class 10th. 45% of the total students are girls. The number of boys who chose Science is 248 less than 4/11 of the total boys. The number of Boys who chose Arts is 20% more than number of boys who chose Science. The number of boys who chose Commerce is 100 more than the number of girls in Arts. Total number of girls who chose Commerce and Agriculture is 568. Total number of students who chose Science is 520. Number of girls in Commerce is 100 less than the number of girls in Arts. Number of boys who chose Agriculture is 32 more than 10/33 of the total number of boys.

Question No.111 Number of Boys who chose Commerce is what percent more than the number of girls who chose Science? Options :

1. 45*2/5 % 2. 57*2/5 % 3. 51*2/3 % 4. 41*2/3 % 5. 46*2/3 %

Question No.112 What is the ratio between the number of Boys who chose Commerce and Arts together and the number of girls in Science and Arts together? Options :

1. 208 : 123 2. 140 : 133 3. 204 : 171 4. 135 : 129 5. 204 : 155

Question No.113 The Boys who chose Agriculture and Commerce together are what percent of total number of Boys? Options :

1. 66.66% 2. 57.57% 3. 38.38% 4. 45.45% 5. 41.41%

Question No.114 What is the total number of students in Arts and Commerce together? Options :

1. 1816 2. 1128 3. 1294 4. 1096 5. 1218



Question No.115 Girls who chose Agriculture is what percent of number of Boys who chose Commerce and Arts together? Options :

1. 80.24% 2. 66.38% 3. 74.28% 4. 57.64% 5. 64.92%

Section: General/Economy/Banking Awareness Question No.116 Which of the following banks built the National Stock Exchange of India (NSE)? Options :

1. Exim Bank 2. Industrial Investment Bank of India 3. IDBI Bank 4. United Western Bank 5. The Reserve Bank of India.

Question No.117 Who has won the US Open Women’s Doubles title-2018? Options :

1. Latisha Chan and Martina Hingis 2. Naomi Osaka and Sloane Stephens 3. Timea Babos and Kristina Mladenovic 4. Coco Vandeweghe and Ashleigh Barty 5. None of the above

Question No.118

Who will be honoured with the Sarala Award-2018?

Options :

1. Dr. Hrushikesh Panda 2. Banaja Devi 3. Satrughna Pandav 4. Prafulla Das 5. None of these



Question No.119

The Five year plan which recognized human development as the core of all development efforts?

Options :

1. Eighth 2. Ninth 3. Tenth 4. Eleventh 5. Twelfth

Question No.120

Government of India has released how much amount of money for the Terai road project in Nepal?

Options :

1. 320 mn Nepali Rupees 2. 470 mn Nepali Rupees 3. 430 mn Nepali Rupees 4. 560 mn Nepali Rupees 5. 380 mn Nepali Rupees

Question No.121

Which of the following country does not have Euro as their currency?

Options :

1. Belgium 2. Cyprus 3. France 4. Poland 5. Latvia

Question No.122

UAE has announced to launch Mars Mission named "HOPE", which is expected to be launched by _______.

Options :

1. 2022 2. 2020 3. 2024 4. 2025 5. 2019



Question No.123

Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) has received orders worth Rs. ______ for the manufacture of Long range surface to air missile systems.

Options :

1. Rs. 920 cr 2. Rs. 840 cr 3. Rs. 9200 cr 4. Rs. 8400 cr 5. Rs. 9020 cr

Question No.124

Which of the following financial year is followed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ?

Options :

1. 1st April – 31st March 2. 1st May – 30th April 3. 1st July – 30th June 4. 1st January – 31st December 5. 1st September – 31st August

Question No.125

Fiscal Policy in India is formulated by whom?

Options :

1. SEBI 2. Reserve Bank of India 3. Ministry of Finance 4. Planning Commission 5. Finance Commission

Question No.126

The new rupee symbol is presented by the Government of India in

Options :

1. 10th June 2010 2. 11th July 2011 3. 10th July 2012 4. 15th July 2012 5. 15th June 2010

Question No.127

When was the Banking Regulation Act passed?

Options :

1. 1939 2. 1954 3. 1949 4. 1956 5. 1926



Question No.128

When was General Insurance Corporation established?

Options :

1. 1972 2. 1973 3. 1974 4. 1975 5. 1976

Question No.129

Finance Commission of India was formed to define the financial relation between the ------ and ------

Options : 1. State, RBI 2. RBI, Centre 3. RBI, SEBI 4. Centre, State 5. Centre, IMF

Question No.130

Gohela Boro is related to which of the following sports?

Options :

1. Cricket 2. Table Tennis 3. Badminton 4. Basketball 5. Archery

Question No.131

What is the constituency of Commerce and Industry minister Suresh Prabhu ?

Options :

1. Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh 2. Andhra Pradesh 3. Gujarat 4. Nagpur, Maharashtra 5. Bangalore North, Karnataka

Question No.132

In which city, India's first National Wildlife Genetic Resource Bank for wildlife conservation was inaugurated?

Options :

1. Chennai 2. Bengalore 3. Hyderabad 4. New Delhi 5. Telangana



Question No.133

Certificate of deposit issued by banks have a maturity period of :

Options :

1. 14 days to 365 days 2. 7 days to 12 months 3. 1 day to 7 days 4. 15 days to 6 months 5. 15 days to 12 months

Question No.134

FTC stands for

Options :

1. Federated Trade Commission 2. Federal Trade Commission 3. Federal Transaction Commission 4. Federated Trade Charge 5. Federal Transaction Charge

Question No.135

IFSC Code contains how many characters that facilitate fund transfer in any part of the country?

Options :

1. (8) 2. (7) 3. (11) 4. (13) 5. (10)

Question No.136

Which organisation approved 500 million US Dollar of loan for water supply, sewerage, drainage infra in Tamil Nadu?

Options :

1. IMF 2. ADB 3. World Bank 4. IBRD 5. None of these

Question No.137

In which country world's first all - digital art museum has opened?

Options : 1. Germany 2. France 3. Iran 4. Japan 5. Saudi Arabia



Question No.138

The Full form of NCCC is

Options :

1. National Cyclone Control Centre 2. National Cyber Coordination Centre 3. National Computer Coordination Centre 4. National Crime Control Centre 5. National Court Coordination Centre

Question No.139

Which of the following European country is the guarantor of Bank of Central African States ?

Options :

1. France 2. Poland 3. Spain 4. Germany 5. Netherland

Question No.140

In which year the first Bank of India was established?

Options :

1. 1845 2. 1770 3. 1698 4. 1670 5. 1793

Question No.141

Which of the following Bank was not nationalized in the First Phase of Nationalization of Banks?

Options :

1. United Bank of India 2. Union Bank of India 3. Indian Overseas Bank 4. Oriental Bank of Commerce 5. Dena Bank

Question No.142

Which country hosted the fourth Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)'s annual meet in July 2019?

Options :

1. Bhutan 2. Myanmar 3. China 4. Luxembourg 5. Sri lanka



Question No.143

The Housing Development Bank of India is

Options :

1. IFCI 2. IDBI 3. EXIM 4. NHB 5. SIDBI

Question No.144

The Headquarter of SIDBI was located in __________

Options :

1. Delhi 2. Lucknow 3. Ahmedabad 4. Kolkata 5. Dehradun

Question No.145

Which of the following Bank also owns a linkage Program called SHG’s.

Options :

1. SBI 2. NABARD 3. EXIM 4. SIDBI 5. IDBI

Question No.146

The country’s first India-Israel Innovation Centre (IIIC) has launched in ____.

Options :

1. Ahmedabad 2. Hyderabad 3. Bengalore 4. Telangana 5. Kolkata

Question No.147

Which of the following University has announced to rename its School of Management and Entrepreneurship as Atal Bihari Vajpayee School of Management and Entrepreneurship?

Options :

1. IIT Roorkee 2. Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) 3. Aligarh University 4. Banaras Hindu University (BHU) 5. None of the above



Question No.148

Where is Rohtang Pass located?

Options :

1. Sikkim 2. Uttar Pradesh 3. Himanchal Pradesh 4. Meghalaya 5. Uttarakhand

Question No.149

Where is the headquarter of UNDP (United Nations Development Programme)?

Options :

1. New York 2. London 3. Moscow 4. Geneva 5. Washington d.c

Question No.150

Which of the following was the first Chairman of Finance commission ?

Options :

1. K Santhanam 2. J.M.Schelet 3. K.C.Neogy 4. K.C.Pant 5. MS Swaminathan

Question No.151

Fateh Sagar Lake is in which of the following city?

Options :

1. Agra 2. Udaipur 3. Surat 4. Jaipur 5. Indore

Question No.152

Three Banks were merged into one Bank i.e, Imperial Bank in 1921. They are:

Options :

1. Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Ahmedabad, Bank of Madras 2. Bank of Bombay, Bank of Ahmedabad, Bank of Mysore 3. Bank of Bombay, Bank of Madras, Bank of Calcutta 4. Bank of Mysore, Bank of Ahmedabad, Bank of Indore 5. Bank of Indore, Bank of Saurashtra, Bank of Madras



Question No.153

The 5 - year National Saving Certificate has the current interest rate of ________

Options :

1. 7.4% 2. 7.6% 3. 8% 4. 7.2% 5. 7.9%

Question No.154

The other name for SWIFT code is

Options :

1. BIC 2. UTR 3. IFSC 4. IMPS code 5. MICR code

Question No.155

The Book ‘Divine Life’ is written by

Options :

1. Amrita Pritam 2. Swami Shivanand 3. Nayantara Sehgal 4. Mahadevi Verma 5. Sri Aurobindo Ghosh



Answers and Explanations

Question.1. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Step 3: The first alphabet is replaced by the next character in the alphabetical series and the rest of the elements (alphabet & number) are exchanged with the second alphabet and number in the opposite cell.

















Question.6. Answer : Option 2 Question.7. Answer : Option 4










After removing Capital letters

AND

After removing Small letters


After rearrangement:


Reversed order

Dropping letters:





Question.17. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Sum of numbers obtained in 1st step = 2+2+5+1+4+1+2+4 = 17

Sum of numbers obtained in step 2,3 and 4 = 2+.5+.4+4+.25+10+2.5 = 19.65

Difference = 2.65



Question.18. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: 2 X 2 X 5 X 1 X 4 X 1 X 2 X 4 = 640




After movements:

Thus, A, F, G and I occupy the positions which were pereviously occupied by other dogs.

Question.20. Answer : Option 3


Question.22. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: A is towards North with respect to its initial position. Question.23. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: In 1) Sleeves inappropriate. In 2, colour inappropriate, in 3, delivery date inappropriate, in 5, length is inappropriate. Question.24. Answer : Option 2



Question.25. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Reaction of the locals does matter to the government to some extent but the government never adheres to all the demands of the locals. The 3rd assumption may be a course of action for the government but it is not an assumption. Question.26. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: It is not mandatory that they sleep in bedrooms. People can also sleep on floors. Thus, I does not follow

Nothing about the decoration of the entire temple has been mentioned in the passage, thus II does not follow

It is not mandatory, but out of love and devotion that people decorate deities thus III does not follow.

Question.27. Answer : Option 4 Question.28. Answer : Option 2 Question.29. Answer : Option 2 Question.30. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Java is a product of Oracle. It was developed by Sun microsystems and later acquired by Oracle. Question.31. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Total 10 types of flowers are given (Gerbera, Rose, Lily, Dahlia, Daffodil, Peony, Marigold, Lotus, Orchid and Primrose) and 6 types of bouquets are given (Pink, yellow, blue, red, green, purple) which are made using these flowers. Each bouquet must have exactly 12 flowers and can have either two or three types of flowers in it with equal number of each type.

i.e. if a bouquet has 2 types of flowers then it has 6 flowers of both the type each (6+6)

if a bouquet has 3 types of flowers, then it has 4 flowers each of three types. (4+4+4)

Each type of flower can be used in min one and maximum two bouquets.

i.e. for each type , number of flowers that can be used are either 4, 6, 8, 10 or 12.

Now, forming the table with available data.

From 4,



Since 6 peonies and 6 Dahlias used in yellow and purple bouquets, this means 6 flowers of only one type can be used with them in these bouquets.

8 orchids used in 2 bouquets. Flowers can only be used in group of 4 or 6, this means orchids are used in two bouquets such that 4 orchids in each bouquet with two other types of flowers.

Dahlia used with only Marigold, lotus and Orchid. This means Dahlia used in two bouquets but not in yellow bouquet (because peony in yellow bouquet) Daffodils are used with Marigold, Primrose and Peony but according to 9, Peony used only in one bouquet. Thus, Daffodils used with peony in yellow bouquet.

And Daffodils + Marigold + Primrose used together in a bouquet. Also according to 6, 6 lotus are used in total, which could be in any bouquet consisting of only one other type of flower used in a group of 6. Also, Dahlia is used with Lotus and 6 Lotus are used, thus 6 Dahlias are used with 6 Lotus. Thus, Dahlia + Marigold + Orchid in one bouquet.

According to 7, Marigold is in the red bouquet but not with Daffodils. Thus, In red bouquet, Dahlia + Marigold + Orchid

According to 8, Primrose are in green and blue bouquet

Also, according to 9, Marigold rose and gerbera are not in blue bouquet. But, Marigold is with Primrose and Daffodils. Thus these are in green bouquet. Peony are used only in one bouquet.

Since 8 orchids are used, 4 are used in red bouquet, other 4 are to be placed either in Pink bouquet or the blue bouquet. Also, gerbera and rose are used in minimum number i.e. only 4 gerbera and 4 rose are used. This means, one other type of flower needs to be places in the pink bouquet. Only possibility is Lily placed in pink as well as in blue bouquet.



Question.32. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Total 10 types of flowers are given (Gerbera, Rose, Lily, Dahlia, Daffodil, Peony, Marigold, Lotus, Orchid and Primrose) and 6 types of bouquets are given (Pink, yellow, blue, red, green, purple) which are made using these flowers. Each bouquet must have exactly 12 flowers and can have either two or three types of flowers in it with equal number of each type.






From 4,



















From 4,

















From 4,



















From 4,











Question.36. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: From 1, 3, 6, 8, 5

From 7, C is a male and B’s gender is opposite to C, thus B is a female. From 4, A’s husband likes singing and he sits to the immediate right of the female who likes painting.

So far, we know, F is the sister of C and since I is the wife of C, and one of the siblings is unmarried, F is unmarried.

C (+) X I (-)

A’s husband (+), Singing X A

D (-), Reading X E (+), trekking



From 9, wife of the one who sits to the immediate left of D likes gardening i.e. A likes gardening

C (+) X I (-)

A’s husband (+), Singing X A (-), gardening


The one who likes photography sits second to the left of a male and no male likes photography, possible positions are:

OR



We know that, F is the sister of C and is the unmarried female and there are 4 married couples. Thus, there must be four men and 5 women at the table. In case I,

The one sitting to the immediate right of the one who likes photography should be a male (to complete the number of males)



The one sitting to the immediate right of the one who likes photography should be a female (to complete the number of females)

From 5, G’s wife sits second to his right. Also, From 9, wife of the one who sits to the immediate left of D likes gardening. I is married to C, likes photography and sits to the immediate left of the one who likes sketching.

Case II: NO FEMALE LEFT for gardening, hence case II discarded.



We know that D is married to E and E likes trekking. Thus,






C (+) X I (-)




C (+) X I (-)








OR
















C (+) X I (-)




C (+) X I (-)






OR


















C (+) X I (-)




C (+) X I (-)






OR


















C (+) X I (-)




C (+) X I (-)








OR













Question.41. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: From (ii), only one person lives between Haneet and the one who likes Chinese. So, two possibilities are there:

Case (i) – Haneet lives in floor no. 1

Case (ii) – Haneet lives in floor no. 5.

If Haneet lives on floor no. 5, then one who likes Mediterranean lives at floor no. 6.

∵ From (iv), only one person lives between one who likes Mediterranean and the one who likes Mexican. Therefore, one who likes Mexican lives at floor no. 4.

∵ From (v), number of people living between Haneet and one who likes Mexican is the same as that between the one who likes Mediterranean and Biswa. Therefore, Biswa lives at floor no. 7.

From (vi), Tanvi lives at odd numbered floor and likes continental. Therefore, Tanvi lives at floor no. 7 and likes Continental.

From (vii), two people lives between Hanish and one who likes Continental.Therefore, Hanish lives at floor no. 4.

From (viii), one who likes Italian lives at one of the floors below Hanish but not at floor no.2 and the only place left below Hanish is floor no.2. Therefore, case II cannot be possible.

Now, Haneet lives at floor no 1, then one who likes Mediterranean lives at floor no. 2. ∵ From (iv), only one person lives between one who likes Mediterranean and the one who likes Mexican. Therefore, one who likes Mexican lives at floor no. 4. ∵ From (v), number of people living between Haneet and one who likes Mexican is the same as that between the one who likes Mediterranean and Biswa. Therefore, Biswa lives at floor no. 5.

Now, from (vi), Tanvi lives on an odd numbered floor and likes Continental. Therefore, Tanvi is living at floor no. 7 and likes Continental. From (vii), two people live between Hanish and the one who likes Continental. Therefore, Hanish is living at floor no. 4. ∵ From (viii), one who likes Italian lives at floor below Hanish but not at floor no. 2. Therefore, the only place left for the person who likes Italian is at



floor no. 1.

From (ix), one who likes North Indian lives immediately below Chirag. So, the only two consecutive places left for them is floor no. 5 and 6. Therefore, Chirag lives at floor no. 6 and one who likes North Indian is at floor no. 5.

Now, only flying distance left for any person to fly is South Indian and the only person left is Chirag. Therefore, Chirag likes South Indian.

From (ix), two people lives between Chirag and Isha. Therefore, Isha is living at floor no 3. Now, only person left is Shipra and the only floor left is floor no.2. Therefore, Shipra lives at floor no.2.













Now, from (vi), Tanvi lives on an odd numbered floor and likes Continental. Therefore, Tanvi is living at floor no. 7 and likes Continental. From (vii), two people live between Hanish and the one who likes Continental. Therefore, Hanish is living at floor no. 4. ∵ From (viii), one who likes Italian lives at floor below Hanish but not at floor no. 2. Therefore, the only place left for the person who likes Italian is at floor no. 1.















Now, Haneet lives at floor no 1, then one who likes Mediterranean lives at floor no. 2. ∵ From (iv), only one person lives between one who likes Mediterranean and the one who likes Mexican.



Therefore, one who likes Mexican lives at floor no. 4. ∵ From (v), number of people living between Haneet and one who likes Mexican is the same as that between the one who likes Mediterranean and Biswa. Therefore, Biswa lives at floor no. 5.








Explanation: From (ii), only one person lives between Haneet and the one who likes Chinese. So, two possibilities are there:










Now, from (vi), Tanvi lives on an odd numbered floor and likes Continental. Therefore, Tanvi is living at floor no. 7 and likes Continental. From (vii), two people live between Hanish and the one who likes Continental. Therefore, Hanish is living at floor no. 4. ∵ From (viii), one who likes Italian lives at floor below Hanish but not at floor no. 2. Therefore, the only place left for the person who likes Italian is at floor no.



1.






















Question.46. Answer : Option 4 Question.47. Answer : Option 4 Question.48. Answer : Option 2 Question.49. Answer : Option 3 Question.50. Answer : Option 5 Question.51. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: The Prime Minister believed that the country could only progress economically if planners had a clear concept of rural development in the context of growing unemployment.

For the first blank, 3rd person present form of verb BELIEVES or past participle form BELIEVED/THOUGHT can be used. For the second blank, POGRESS is the correct usage as DEVELOPS is the incorrect form. (DEVELOP would have been correct. Verb with could does not change its form according to the subject). With BELIEVED and PROGRESS, CONCEPT is given and it is appropriate for the 3rd blank.

Question.52. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: My aim in life is to provide happiness and enable a harmonious atmosphere for everyone forever.

For the 1st blank, 2/3/4/5 are appropriate. For the second blank, conjunction should be used connecting the two parts of the sentence. Thus, AND should be used. And in the third blank, FOR will be used to show ‘who is intended to have’




Question.54. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: While the current government seeks to revive neoliberal momentum, there is no assessment of the legacy of liberalisation even on narrow economic benchmarks. Question.55. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: A distributor buys electricity from a generator, adds transmission and distribution charges, a charge to recover technical losses, operating expenses, and his profit to determine the tariff to be charged from a consumer. Question.56. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Since WAS is used, past tense will be used. Hence STUNNED will be used. STUNNED TO SEE or STUNNED BY SEEING is the correct usage.

He was stunned to see me waiting for him and told me that I looked very angry.

Question.57. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: He believed that the efficiency and integrity of the administration was important to get policies and programmes implemented in the right spirit. Question.58. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: The completion of education marks a turning point in the life of every individual. Question.59. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Opportunity for employment is being created increasingly as our development plans are implemented. Question.60. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Guru Gobind Singh said it was our duty to come to the defence of all those who were threatened through no fault of their own. Question.61. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:



c e d f b a

Ever since the influenza virus known as H1N1 landed on Indian shores during the 2009 pandemic, outbreaks have been an annual occurrence. The worst was in 2015, when 2,990 people succumbed to it. This year the virus has been particularly active; mortality, at 1,873 by the last week of September, is quickly catching up with the 2015 toll. In comparison, official figures show 2016 to be a relatively benign year, with an H1N1 death toll of 265. The problem with these official figures, however, is that they only capture H1N1 numbers, a practice that has been adopted in response to the severity of the 2009 pandemic. But influenza was present in India even before 2009 in the form of H3N2 and Influenza B virus types.

Question.62. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: c e d f b a










Question.66. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: “Though the U.S. is currently measured to be the world's largest economy by traditional metrics, growth has proven to be lackluster in the aftermath of the Great Recession.” Question.67. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: “Though the U.S. is currently measured to be the world's largest economy by traditional metrics, growth has proven to be lackluster in the aftermath of the Great Recession.” Question.68. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: It is said in the passage that India will make a spur in the international market, but the reason behind it is not stated. Question.69. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: “The researchers attribute India's rapid growth prospects to the fact that it is particularly well positioned to continue diversifying into new areas, given the capabilities accumulated to date," said a press release accompanying the report. "India has made inroads in diversifying its export base to include more complex sectors, such as chemicals, vehicles, and certain electronics.”” Question.70. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: But considering the World Bank last year estimated India's economy was more than 88 times larger than Uganda's, the former's rate of expansion will make bigger waves in the international market as India plugs along toward becoming one of the world's single largest economies. Question.71. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Bastion means stronghold or upholder



Question.72. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Haul means a long distance/journey. Question.73. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Uptick means slight increment, opposite would be decline. Question.74. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India’s Monetary Policy Committee has since inception retained its unwavering focus on its primary remit: the preservation of price stability. Question.75. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: “… the MPC felt that with global crude oil prices having “firmed up further” amid a pick-up in demand and tighter supplies in the wake of OPEC’s production cuts….” Question.76. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: “Reiterating the urgent imperative to “reinvigorate investment activity” to spur growth, the MPC has laid the onus squarely on the government’s shoulders: from suggesting the recapitalisation of stressed state-owned lenders” Question.77. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: “The Reserve Bank of India’s Monetary Policy Committee has since inception retained its unwavering focus on its primary remit: the preservation of price stability. It follows then that the central bank’s rate-setting panel opted to leave benchmark interest rates unchanged and retain a neutral stance to achieve the medium-term target of keeping Consumer Price Index inflation close to 4% on a durable basis, while supporting growth.” Question.78. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Remit means responsibility Question.79. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:



Welter means confusion/flurry Question.80. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Inception means beginning. Opposite is Denouement meaning End. Question.81. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: From (I) & (III)

MP = 22,800×100/95 = Rs. 24,000 ………...(i)

From (II),

CP = 24,000 × 110/100 = Rs. 26,400 …………(ii)

From (i) and (ii),

∴ Loss % = (26400-22800)/26400× 100 = 13.6% approx.

Question.82. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: From (II),

Let the mother’s age be x and daughter’s age be (x )/4.

From (I) &(II),

x - (x )/4 = 45

(3x )/4 = 45

∴x = 60 years.

From (II) & (III),

x + (x )/4 = 75

(5x )/4 = 75

∴x = 60 years.

From (I) & (III),

x-y = 45 and x+y = 75

By solving will get the value of x i.e. the answer.

Question.83. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Since, we don’t know either the perimeter or the length or breadth of the rectangular plot, even all the statements togetherare not sufficient to answer the question. Question.84. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:



From (I) & (III),

SI for 1 year = Rs. 400

∴ 400 = P × R × 1/100

From this we cannot get the answer and also statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.

Question.85. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: From I and III,

Speed of the train = 600/20× 18/5 = 72 km/hr.

Time = 1620/72 = 22*1/2 hrs.

Arrival time = 10 am + 22*1/2hrs = 8.30 am.

Statement I and III is sufficient to answer the question.

Question.86. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Number of qualified candidate from state A = 400 + 350 + 750 = 1500

Number of qualified candidate from state B = 250 + 500 + 500 =1250

Number of qualified candidate from state C = 350 + 450 + 600 = 1400

Number of qualified candidate from state D = 500 + 550 + 550 = 1600

Number of qualified candidate from state E = 450 + 600 + 700 = 1750

Number of qualified candidate in the competitive exams from state F = 300 + 450 + 600 =1350

Number of qualified candidate in the competitive exams from state E is maximum.

Question.87. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Number of candidates qualified from state C in 2015 and 2016 = 450 + 600 = 1050

Number of candidates qualified from state D in 2015 and 2016 = 550 + 550 = 1100

Total number of candidates qualified from state C and D in 2015 and 2016 together = 1050 + 1100 = 2150

Number of candidates qualified from state B in 2014 and 2015 = 250 + 500 = 750

Number of candidates qualified from state F in 2014 and 2015 = 300 + 450 = 750

Total number of candidates qualified from state B and F in 2014 and 2015 together = 750 + 750 = 1500

Required ratio = 2150 : 1500 = 43 : 30



Question.88. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Total number of qualified candidates from state A in 2014 and 2015 together = 400 + 350 = 750

75% of appeared candidates qualified from both the years.

Total number of appeared candidates from state A in 2014 and 2015 = 750 × 100/75 = 1000

Question.89. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Number of qualified candidate in the competitive exams from state A = 400 + 350 + 750 = 1500

Number of qualified candidate in the competitive exams from state C = 350 + 450 + 600 = 1400

Number of qualified candidate in the competitive exams from state D = 500 + 550 + 550 = 1600

Number of qualified candidate in the competitive exams from state F = 300 + 450 + 600 =1350

Required average = (1500 + 1400 + 1600 + 1350)/4 = 1462.5

Question.90. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Number of qualified candidates in 2015 = 350 + 500 + 450 + 550 + 600 + 450 = 2900

Number of qualified candidates in 2016 = 750 + 500 + 600 + 550 + 700 + 600 = 3650

Required percent = (3700-2900)/3700 × 100 = 21.62% (22% approx)

Question.91. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Number of postgraduates from Aviation posted in Chennai = 6000 × 18/100 × 40/100 = 432

Number of postgraduates posted in Chennai = 6000 × 15/100 = 900

Required percent = (432 ×100)/900 = 48

Question.92. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Total number of postgraduates posted in Chennai, Delhi, Jaipur and Pune = 6000(((15+12+16+18))/100 = 6,000 × 61/100 = 3660 Question.93. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Total number of postgraduates from Management = 6,000 × 36/100 = 2160



∴ 25% of 2160 = 2160 × 25/100 = 540

Remaining number of postgraduates from Management = 2160 – 540 = 1620

Number of postgraduates from Management who are posted in Jaipur = 1620 × 15/100 = 243

Total number of postgraduates from Management who are posted in Jaipur, Delhi and Chennai = 243 + 540 × ((10+12))/33

243 + 540 × 22/33

243 + 360 = 603

Question.94. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Number of postgraduates from Engineering trade posted in Pune = 6000 × 18/100 × 20/100 = 216

Number of postgraduates from Engineering trade posted in Chandigarh = 6000 × 13/100 × 15/100 = 117

Total number of postgraduates from Engineering trade posted in Pune and Chandigarh = 216 + 117 = 333

Number of postgraduates from Logistics and Aviation trade posted in Pune = 6000 × 18/100 × ((20+25))/100 = 486

Number of postgraduates from Logistics and Aviation trade posted in Chandigarh = 6000 × 13/100 × ((20+40))/100 = 468

Total number of postgraduates from Logistics and Aviation trade posted in Pune and Chandigarh = 486 + 468 = 954

Required difference = 954 – 333 = 621

Question.95. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Number of postgraduates from Hotel Management posted in Chennai = 6000 × 15/100 × 20/100 = 180

Number of postgraduates from Hotel Management posted in Delhi = 6000 × 12/100 × 20/100 = 144


Number of postgraduates from Hotel Management posted in Pune = 6000 × 18/100 × 15/100 = 162

Number of postgraduates from Hotel Management posted in Chandigarh = 6000 × 13/100 × 15/100 = 117


Required ratio = 324 : 278 = 162 : 139




Quantity II: Number of males = 4/9× 2,34,000 = 1,04,000

Number of females = 2,34,000 – 1,04,000 = 1,30,000

Number of married males = 30/100×1,04,000 = 31,200

Number of married females = 31,200 x 2.5 = 78,000

∴ Required percent = (78000 ×100)/130000 = 60%

Hence, Quantity I > Quantity II




Question.98. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Quantity I: Let expenditure = 100

Price = 70

New expenditure = 90

∴ Required % = (90-70)/70 × 100 = 28*4/7 %





\Quantity II: Final Quantity = 63 (1-9/63) (1-7/63)

= 63 × 6/7 × 8/9

= 48 litre

Water = 63 - 48

= 15 litre.

Hence, Quantity I = Quantity II



Question.101. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Moti’s investment in 2016 = 48000 – 12000 = 36000

So, Ratio of Profits of Heera : Moti : Panna is

48000 × 9 : 36000 × 12 : 42000 × Q

72 : 72 : 7Q

Now,

115000 × 7Q/(72+72+7Q) = 35000

7Q/(144+7Q)= 35000/115000

Q = 9 months

Question.102. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Let the total Profit in 2015 = Rs x

Ratio of profit share of Heera : Moti : Panna is

(42000×P)/([42000×P+48000×9+40000 ×(P+4)]) × x = 21000 .............................(i)

Also,

(48000×9)/(42000×P+48000×9+40000 ×(P+4)]) ×x = 27000 ........................(ii)

On dividing both the equations:

(42000 ×P)/(48000 ×9)= 21000/27000

P = 8

Put P = 8 in one of the equations above;

(42000×8)/([42000×8+48000×9+40000 ×(8+4)]) × x = 21000

x = 78000

Also put P= 8 in

42×P : 48×9 : 40×(P+4)

So Profit sharing Ratio = 42 × 8 : 48 × 9 : 40 × 12

= 336 : 432 : 480 = 7 : 9 : 10

∴ Profit of Panna = 10/26 ×78000 = 30000

Question.103. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Moti’s Investment is = 120/100 ×50000 = Rs 60000

So, ratio of profits of Heera : Moti : Panna is

50000 × 12 : 60000 × R : 50000 × R

60 : 6R : 5R



SO, Profit of Moti = 6R/(60+11R) × 119000 = 42000

R = 10

Then the ratio becomes

60 : 6×10 : 5×10

6 : 6 : 5

Profit of Pannna = 5/17 × 119000 = 35000

Question.104. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Investment of Panna = 36000/2 = 18000

Investment of Panna = Investment of Heera = 18000

Profit Sharing Ratio = [18000×10 : 36000×8 : 18000×12] = 5 : 8: 6

Now

5 units = 22000

1 unit = 4400

19 units = 83600

Total profit = 83600

Question.105. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Ratio of profit share of Heera : Moti : Panna is

A × 8 : (A+4000) × B : (A+8000) × B

So,

([(A+8000)×B –(A+4000)×B ])/(A×8+(A+4000)×B+(A+8000)×B) × 32500 = 1300 ...............................(i)

Also given,

8A/(A×8+(A+4000)×B+(A+8000)×B) × 32500 = 10400 ..............................(ii)

Divide both equations (i) and (ii)

We get,

((A+8000)×B-(A+4000)×B)/8A = 1/8

On solving the equation,

A = 4000B ............................(iii)

Also given,

A = 6000 × B – 14000 .................................(iv)

From (iii) and (iv), we get

4000B = 6000B – 14000

2000B = 14000



B = 7

A = 4000 × 7 = 28000

So total Investment = 28000 + 32000 + 36000 = Rs 96000

Question.106. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: For A

Profit = 40% = 2/5 [CP = 5, SP = 5+2=7]

Discount = 30% = 3/10 [MP = 10, SP = 10-3=7]

Make Sp same

CP : SP : MP

5 : 7 : 10 .................................... (i)

For E

Profit = 40% = 2/5 [CP = 5, SP = 5+2=7]

Discount = 20% = 1/5 [MP = 5, SP = 5-1=4]

Make Sp same

CP : SP : MP

20 : 28 : 35 ...........................................(ii)

Make CP of A and E same by multiplying equation (i) with 4 gives

CP : SP : MP

20 : 28 : 40

So, 20 unit = 2400

1 unit = 120

Difference in MP = 40 – 35 = 5 units

So Required Difference = 5 × 120 = 600

Question.107. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: For D

CP : SP : MP

4 : 5 : 6.................................. (i)

For C

CP : SP : MP

9 : 12 : 20.................................... (ii)

MP of D is 150% of C

150% of 20 = 30 Units

On multiplying equation (i) by 5



We get

CP : SP : MP

20 : 25 : 30

Now,

30 units = 7200

1 unit = 240

12 unit = 240 ×12 = 2880


CP : SP : MP

4 : 5 : 6.................................. (i)

For C

CP : SP : MP

9 : 12 : 20.................................... (ii)

On multiplying equation (i) by 9 and (ii) by 4

(i) gives 36 : 45 : 24

(ii) gives 36 : 48 : 80

Required Ratio = 45: 48 = 15: 16


CP : SP : MP

4 : 5 : 6 ..................................(i)

For B

CP : SP : MP

2 : 3 : 5 ..................................(i)

Since ratio of Marked price of B and D is 5 : 1

Multiplying equation (ii) by 6

We get,

CP : SP : MP

12 : 18 : 30

Now,

4 units = 12000

1 unit = 3000



SP of B = 18 ×3000 = 54000

Question.110. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: For C

CP : SP : MP

9 : 12 : 20 .................................... (i)

For A

CP : SP : MP

5 : 7 : 10 .................................... (ii)

To make CP same, multiplying (i) by 5 and (ii) by 9

(i) gives 45 : 60 : 100

(ii) gives 45 : 63 : 90

SP of A is 3 more than that of C

So Required % = 3/60 ×100 = 5%

Question.111. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Total Students = 2640

Girls = 45% of 2640 = 1188

So number of Boys = 2640 – 1188 = 1452

Boys chose Science = 4/11 × 1452 – 248 = 280

Total in Science 520, So girls in Science = 520 – 280 = 240

Boys chose Agriculture = 10/33 × 1452 + 32 = 472

Boys chose Arts = 20% more than in Science = 120/100 × 280 =336

So Boys in Science + Commerce + Arts + Agriculture = 1452

∴ Boys in Commerce = 1452 – 1088 = 364

Number of Girls in Arts = 364 – 100 = 264

Number of Girls in Commerce = 264 - 100 = 164

Girls in Science, Commerce, Arts and Agriculture = 1188

∴ Girls in Agriculture = 1188 – 668 = 520



Number of Girls in Science = 240 Number of Boys in Commerce = 364 Difference = 124 Required Percentage = 124/240 × 100 = 51*2/3 % Question.112. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Total Students = 2640

Girls = 45% of 2640 = 1188

So number of Boys = 2640 – 1188 = 1452





∴ Boys in Commerce = 100 + Girls in Arts = 100 + 380 = 480

Boys in Agriculture = 1452 - (280 + 480 + 336) = 356

Number of Girls in Arts = 1188 - (568 + 240) = 1188 - 808 = 380



∴ Girls in Agriculture = 1188 – (240 + 280 + 380) = 1188 - 900 = 288



Number of Boys in Commerce and Arts = 816

Number of Girls in Science and Arts = 620

Required ratio = 816: 620= 204 : 155

Question.113. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Total Students = 2640

Girls = 45% of 2640 = 1188

So number of Boys = 2640 – 1188 = 1452






∴ Boys in Commerce = 1452 – 1088 = 364







Boys who chose Agriculture and Commerce = 364 + 472 = 836 Total number of Boys = 1452 Required % = 836/1452 × 100 = 57.57% Question.114. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Total Students = 2640

Girls = 45% of 2640 = 1188

So number of Boys = 2640 – 1188 = 1452






∴ Boys in Commerce = 1452 – 1088 = 364







Total number of Students in Arts = 336 + 264 = 600 Total number of Students in Commerce = 364 + 164 = 528 Required number of Students = 600 + 528 = 1128 Question.115. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Total Students = 2640

Girls = 45% of 2640 = 1188

So number of Boys = 2640 – 1188 = 1452






∴ Boys in Commerce = 1452 – 1088 = 364







Number of Girls who chose Agriculture = 520 Number of Boys who chose Commerce and Arts together = 364 + 336 = 700 Required Percentage = 520/700 × 100 = 74.28% Question.116. Answer : Option 3 Question.117. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Australian tennis star Ashleigh Barty has landed her maiden grand slam title, teaming with American CoCo Vandeweghe to win a thrilling US Open women's doubles final in New York. They defeated Timea Babos (Hungary) and Kristina Mladenovic (France) in the final 3 - 6, 7 - 6 (7- 2), 7 - 6 (8 - 6) . Question.118. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Poet Satrughna Pandav will get the Sarala Puraskar this year for his poetry collection "Misra Dhrupad". He will be felicitated with cash award of Rs,. 5 lakh and a citation at a special event on Oct 26 in the city. This was announced by Sarala Puraskar Committee. Question.119. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: The main objective of Eighth Five year plan was creation of employment, check population growth, and overall human development as the core of all the development efforts. Question.120. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: The Government of India has released 470 million Nepali rupess grant for Terai roads project in Nepal. Indian Ambassador to Nepal Manjeev Singh Puri handed over a cheque of grant to Secretary, Ministry of Physical Infrastructure and Transport of Nepal, Madhusudan Adhikari in Kathmandu.



Question.121. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: The currency of Poland is Polish zloty. Question.122. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: This spacecraft orbiter is a planned uncrewed mission to Mars by the United Arab Emirates to study the Martian atmosphere and climate. The Hope probe is expected to be launched in the summer of 2020 and it will take seven to nine months to arrive at Mars. Question.123. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: A Rs. 9,200 crore order for supply of seven long range surface-to-air missile (LRSAM) systems has pushed the order book of state-run Bharat Electronics Ltd beyond Rs 50,000 crore for the first time in a single financial year. "The company has entered into contracts worth about Rs 9,200 crore with Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) and Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) to supply LRSAM systems," Question.124. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: RBI, while preparing its accounts and Annual report takes lot of data about economy, banking and finance, which becomes available with some time lag for April-March. Therefore, RBI keeps its reporting year after a gap of one quarter i.e. July-June. Question.125. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Fiscal policy formulated by the Government of India has been creating considerable impact on the economy of the country. Question.126. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: The Indian rupee sign (₹ ) is the currency sign for the India rupee, the official currency of India. Designed by D. Udaya Kumar, it was presented to the public by the Government of India on 15th July 2010. Question.127. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 is a legislation in India that regulates all banking firms in India. Initially, the law was applicable only to Banking companies. Question.128. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: General Insurance Corporation (GIC) was established in November 1972.



Question.129. Answer : Option 4 Question.130. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Union Minister of State (I/C) Youth Affairs and Sports Col Rajyavardhan Rathore has sanctioned financial assistance of Rs. 5 Lakh (Five Lakh) to National Level Archer Ms. Gohela Boro for her medical treatment. The financial assistance has been given from Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay National Welfare Fund for Sportspersons (PDUNWFS). This is in addition to financial assistance of over Rs 3.37 Lakh already provided to her upto January, 2018. Ms. Gohela Boro is suffering from systemic lupus erythematosus combined with other multiple disorder. She belongs to very poor family in village Amguri in Kokrajhar, Assam. Question.131. Answer : Option 2 Question.132. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: India's first genetic bank for wildlife conservation inaugurated in Hyderabad. National Wildlife Genetic Resource Bank was inaugurated at Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology's (CCMB) Laboratory of Conservation of Endangered Species (LaCONES) facility in Hyderabad, Telanagana. Question.133. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Certificates of Deposit are money market instruments and their maturity period is between seven days to one year for commercial banks. For Financial Institutions, the maturity is not less than a year and not more than three years. Question.134. Answer : Option 2 Question.135. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: The Indian Financial System Code (also known as IFSC) is an unique 11 character code for identifying the bank and branch which an account is held. The IFSC code is used by the NEFT, RTGS and IMPS finance transfer systems. Question.136. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: The board of directors of the Asian Development Bank (ADB) has approved financing of up to $500 million for a multi-tranche financing facility (MFF) that will develop climate-resilient water supply, sewerage, and drainage infrastructure in at least 10 cities in Tamil Nadu. The country's first solar - powered sewage treatment plant on a pilot basis will also be part of the programme.



Question.137. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has approved the financing of up to 500 million U.S. dollars for a multi-tranche financing facility (MFF) that will develop climate-resilient water supply, sewerage, and drainage infrastructure in at least 10 cities in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu. Question.138. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: The Government of India has proposed to set up National Cyber Coordination Centre , a multi-stakeholder Body, will be implemented by Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) at Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. Question.139. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: The Bank of Central African States is a Central Bank that serves six central African countries which form the Economic and Monetary Community of Central Africa and the European Country which is the guarantor of this Central Bank is France. Question.140. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: The First Bank of India was Bank of Hindustan or Hindustan Bank was set up in 1770 by Alexander and Co. Question.141. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Oriental Bank of Commerce was nationalized on 15th April 1980 in the Second Phase of Nationalization of Banks. Question.142. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: The Board of Governors of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank ( AIIB) announced today that the Fourth AIIB Annual Meeting will be held in Luxembourg in July 2019. Luxembourg is a founding member of AIIB as well as a leading international financial center and a facilitator of investments between Europe and Asia. Question.143. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: The Full form of NHB is National Housing Bank. It is an apex financial institution for housing. Question.144. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: About SIDBI



Full form – Small Industries Development Bank of India

Set up on – 2nd April 1990

Headquarters – Lucknow.

Question.145. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: About SHG

Self-Help Group (SHG) is a small voluntary association of poor people, preferably from the same socio-economic background. SHG was started in 1992 at the initiative of NABARD.

Question.146. Answer : Option 3 Question.147. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: The Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) has proposed to rename its newest School of Management and Entrepreneurship after former prime minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee, who passed away on August 16. Question.148. Answer : Option 3 Question.149. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) is the United Nations' global development network. Headquartered in New York city , UNDP advocates for change and connects countries to knowledge, experience and resources to help people build a better life. It provides expert advice, training and grants support to developing countries, with increasing emphasis on assistance to the least developed countries . Question.150. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: The First Finance Commission of India was appointed in 1951, for the period o1952-57 by the President of India and was chaired by K.C.Neogy. Question.151. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Fateh Sagar Lake is situated in the city of Udaipur in the Indian state of R ajasthan. It is an artificial lake named after Maharana Fateh Singh of Udaipur and Mewar, constructed north-west of Udaipur, to the north of Lake Pichola in the 1680s.



Question.152. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Bank of Bombay, Bank of Madras, Bank of Calcutta were known as Presidency Banks. All the three Banks were merged into one Bank – Imperial Bank in 1921, further in 1955, Imperial Bank is renamed as State Bank of India. Question.153. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Currently, the rate of interest is 8% for the quarter 1 October 2018 to 31 December 2018 (annually) prior to which the rate of interest stood at 7.6% – the government revises this rate every quarter. Question.154. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: SWIFT- Society for World-wide Inter Bank Financial Telecommunications is used to transfer finance from one bank to another and from one country to another. The SWIFT net network consists of a SWIFT code also Known as BIC code (Business Identification Code). Question.155. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: The Divine Life Society is a spiritual organsation and an ashram, founded by Sri Aurobindo Ghosh in 1936, at Muni Ki Reti, Rishikesh, India.

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IBPS PO Mains Mock Test 1 - ixamBee