C-SAT Sample Paper Class X

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C-SAT Sample Paper Class X

Q. 1 Pressure exerted by a sharp needle on a surface is

(a) More than the pressure exerted by blunt needle

(b) Less than the pressure exerted by a blunt needle

(c) Equal to the pressure exerted by a blunt needle

(d) None of these

Q. 2 Pressure varies with area (A) as

(a) A (b) 1

A(c) 2A (d) 2

1

A

Q. 3 The S.I. unit of thrust

(a) N (b) dyne (c) Nm2 (d) Nm–2

Q. 4 Find the time for which a force of 1 kgwt. acts on a body of mass 1kg moving with uniform

speed of 4 ms–1 to stop the body

(a) 0.4 s (b) 0.8 s (c) 0.2 s (d) 0.6 s

Q. 5 Two masses of 1 gm and of 4 gm are moving with equal linear momenta, the ratio of their

kinetic energies is

(a) 4 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 16

Q. 6 Correct relation is

(a) 1 Horse power = 746 W

(b) 2 Horse power = 746 W

(c) 1 Horse power = 740 W

(d) 1 Horse power = 373 W

SECTION – A (PHYSICS 1–20)

Space for Rough Work



Q. 7 For the wave shapes shown in figures the wave of maximum frequency will be

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Q. 8 The speeds of sound in air and sea-water are given to be 340 m/s and 1440 m/s respectively.

A ship sends a strong signal straight down and detects its echo after 1.5 seconds. The depth

of sea at that point is

(a) 2.16 kms (b) 1.08 kms (c) 0.51 kms (d) 0.255 kms

Q. 9 Sound with frequency more than 20 KHz is known as

(a) Audible sound (b) Ultrasonic (c) Inaudible sound (d) None of these

Q. 10 The frequency of a source of sound is 50 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in one minute?

(a) 50 (b) 300 (c) 3000 (d) 30000




Q. 11 In the following figure, the equivalent resistance between the points A and B in ohm will be

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 9

Q. 12 The material of heating element in an electric press has

(a) High melting point and high specific resistance

(b) High melting point and low specific resistance

(c) Low melting point and high specific resistance

(d) Low melting point and high specific resistance

Q. 13 An electric iron draws a current of 15 A from a 220 V supply. What is the cost of using iron

for 30 min everyday for 15 days, if the cost of 1 unit (1 unit = 1 kWh) is 2 rupees?

(a) Rupees 49.5 (b) Rupees 60 (c) Rupees 40 (d) Rupees 10

Q. 14 When 1 J of work is done to move a charge of 1 C from one point to another point then the

potential difference between two points in a given circuit will be

(a) 1 V (b) 4 V (c) 8 V (d) Zero

Q. 15 Which of the following correctly represents graphical relation between angle of incidence (i)

and angle of reflection (r)?

(a) (b) (c) (d)




Q. 16 An object A is placed at a distance d in front of a plane mirror. If one stands directly behind

the object at distance S from the mirror, then the distance of the image of A from the individual

is

(a) 2S (b) 2d (c) S +d (d) S +2d

Q. 17 Which position of the object will produce a magnified virtual image, if a concave mirror of

focal length 15 cm is being used?

(a) 10 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 30cm (d) 35 cm

Q. 18 If the speed of light in medium 1 and medium 2 are 2.5 × 108 m/s and 2 × 108 m/s respectively

,then the refractive index of medium 1 with respect to medium 2 is___

(a) 2.5

3(b)

2.5

2(c)

3

2.5(d)

2

2.5

Q. 19 The correct relation between u, v and r for a mirror will be

(where u = object distance,pv = image distance, r = radius of curvature) vvvvvvvvvvvvv

(a) uv

ru v

(b) uv

ru v

(c) ru v

(d) r u v

Q. 20 An object is placed at a distance from a concave lens. Which of the following are the

characteristics of the image formed by it?

(a) Real, inverted and magnified (b) Real, erect and diminished

(c) Virtual, inverted and highly diminished (d) Virtual, erect and diminished




Q. 21 The formula mass of NaCl is

(a) 56.5 u (b) 36.5 u (c) 58.5 u (d) 55.5 u

Q. 22 The law of conservation of mass was given by

(a) John Dalton (b) Proust (c) Lavoisier (d) None of these

Q. 23 When calcium carbonate is heated, it gives

(a) CaO & CO (b) Ca & CO2 (c) CaO & CO2 (d) None of these

Q. 24 Hydrogen and Oxygen combine in the ratio of 1 : 8 by mass to form water. What mass of

oxygen gas would be required to react completely with 3 g of hydrogen gas?

(a) 24 g (b) 27 g (c) 21 g (d) 3 g

Q. 25 The number of carbon atoms in 1 g of CaCO3 is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q. 26 When alpha particles are allowed to strike thin metal foil, most of them go straight through

the foil because

(a) Alpha particles are much heavier than electrons.

(b) Alpha particles are positively charged.

(c) Most part of the atom is empty.

(d) Alpha particles move with high velocity.

Q. 27 The Nucleons are

(a) Protons and electrons (b) Neutrons and electrons

(c) Protons and neutrons (d) None of these

Q. 28 Which of the following has the same number of protons, electrons and neutrons?

(a) 5427 X (b)

27 X (c) 5426 X (d) 55

28 X


SECTION – B (CHEMISTRY 21–40)



Q. 29 An alpha particle contains

(a) 4 positive charge and 2 mass unit (b) 2 positive charge and 4 mass unit

(c) 2 positive charge and 2 mass unit (d) 4 positive charge and 4 mass unit

Q. 30 An atom which has a mass number of 14 and 8 neutrons is an

(a) Isotope of oxygen (b) Isobar of oxygen (c) Isotope of carbon (d) None of these

Q. 31 A brown and bright element “x” when heated in presence of air turns into black substance

“y”. If Hydrogen gas is passed over this heating material again “x” is obtained. “x” and “y”

are

(a) Cu and CuO (b) S and SO2 (c) C and CO2 (d) Na and NaH

Q. 32

The reaction is interpreted as

(a) 2H S is getting oxidised and 2Cl is getting reduced

(b) 2H S is getting reduced and 2Cl is getting oxidised

(c) Only 2H S is oxidised

(d) Both 2H S and 2Cl are reduced

Q. 33 Container made of Copper metal on exposure to air for long time turns green. The green

layer is due to

(a) CuO (b) 3 2CuCO .Cu(OH)

(c) 3 2CuCO .3Cu(OH) (d) All of the above

Q. 34 Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) All metal carbonates react with acid to give a salt, water and carbon dioxide

(b) All metal oxides react with water to give salt and acid

(c) Some metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen

(d) Some non metal oxides react with water to form an acid




Q. 35 The pair of the solutions which have pH value less than 7, is

(a) Solution of washing soda and solution of vinegar

(b) Solution of soap and solution of washing soda

(c) Solution of copper sulphate and solution of washing soda

(d) Solution of vinegar and solution of formic acid

Q. 36 Identify the wrong statement

(a) Higher the hydronium ion concentration lower is the pH value

(b) Universal indicator is used to judge how strong a given acid or base is

(c) As the pH value increases from 7 to 14, it represents increase in H+ ion concentration in the solution

(d) Values less than 7 on the pH scale represent an acidic solution.

Q. 37 In order to decrease the rate of setting of Cement, which compound is mixed in it?

(a) 2Ca(OH) (Slaked lime) (b) 3CaCO (Calcium Carbonate)

(c) 4 2CaSO .2H O (Gypsum) (d) 2 3Al O (Alumina)

Q. 38 Plaster of paris hardens by

(a) Losing 2CaCl (b) Absorbing 2CO (c) Absorbing water (d) Releasing water

Q. 39 On reacting a compound of calcium (x) with water compound (y) is obtained. (y) on boiling with

4NH Cl a gas (z) is obtained. x, y and z respectively are

(a) 3 3CaCO , CaO, NH (b) 3 2CaCO , CaO, Cl

(c) 2 2CaO, CaCl , Cl (d) 2 3CaO, Ca(OH) , NH

Q. 40 10 mL of HCl and 10 mL of NaOH solutions are contained in two separate beakers labelled

I and II respectively. On adding zinc granules to both, it is observed that at room temperature:

(a) Gas is evolved in beaker II but not in beaker I

(b) No gas is evolved in either of the two beakers

(c) Gas is evolved vigorously in both

(d) Gas is evolved vigorously in beaker I but not so in beaker II




Q. 41 Bile Juice is secreted from

(a) Salivary glands (b) Intestinal glands (c) Stomach (d) Liver

Q. 42 Substances necessary for autotrophic nutrition are

(a) 2CO and 2H O (b) Chlorophyll (c) Sun light (d) All of the above

Q. 43 In which one of the following alternatives the correct order of processes is given?

(a) Assimilation ® Absorption ® Digestion ® Ingestion ® Egestion

(b) Absorption ® Digestion ® Ingestion ® Assimilation ® Egestion

(c) Digestion ® Ingestion ® Assimilation ® Absorption ® Egestion

(d) Ingestion ® Digestion ® Absorption ® Assimilation® Egestion

Q. 44 Gastric juice contains

(a) Pepsin and Trypsin (b) Pepsin and HCl

(c) Trypsin and HCl (d) Amylase and Pepsin

Q. 45 Opening and closing of stomatal pore is the function of

(a) Epidermal cells (b) Subsidiary cells

(c) Guard cells (d) None of the above

Q. 46 When terminal phosphate linkage in ATP is broken energy released is equivalent to

(a) 30.5 kJ / mol (b) 61 kJ / mol (c) 128 kJ / mol (d) 83 kJ / mol


SECTION – C (BIOLOGY 41–60)



Q. 47 Pick out the incorrect statement

(a) Energy released in aerobic respiration is lot greater as compared to anaerobic

(b) In fermentation, pyruvate is broken to CO2 + Ethanol.

(c) Pyruvate is a six carbon molecule

(d) In muscles pyruvate is converted to lactic acid causing cramps

Q. 48 Where does the gaseous exchange take place during respiration in human being?

(a) Alveoli (b) Pharynx (c) Nasopharynx (d) Trachea

Q. 49 Sphygmomanometer measures

(a) Pulse rate (b) Blood pressure (c) Diffusion pressure (d) Air pressure

Q. 50 Which organ is known as “blood bank”

(a) Heart (b) Liver (c) Spleen (d) Kidney

Q. 51 Urea synthesis occurs in

(a) Kidney (b) Liver (c) Brain (d) Muscles

Q. 52 In humans, which of these carries urine from kidneys to bladder

(a) Uterus (b) Ureter (c) Pelvis (d) Urethra

Q. 53 The essential hormone for ripening of fruits is

(a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin (c) Ethylene (d) Gibberellin

Q. 54 Choose the correct from the following

i. In light, hormone auxin helps the cells to grow longer in plants.

ii. Plant hormone gibberellins helps in growth of a stem.

iii. Cytokinins inhibit cell division.

iv. Abscisic acid promotes growth in plants.

(a) i and iii are correct (b) ii and iv are correct

(c) i and ii are correct (d) i and iv are correct




Q. 55 Function of Blood Plasma is to

(a) Transport food (b) Transport CO2

(c) Transport nitrogenous waste (d) All of the above

Q. 56 Which part of the brain controls co-ordinated movements of our body, such as riding a bicycle?

(a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum (c) Medulla (d) Pons

Q. 57 Which one of the following first receives the pollen during fertilization?

(a) Stigma (b) Style (c) Pollen tube (d) Female gamete

Q. 58 Which part of a seed is known as future shoot

(a) Cotyledon (b) Testa (c) Plumule (d) Radicle

Q. 59 Human egg and sperm are similar in that:

1. About the same number are produced per month.

2. Both have the same degree of motility.

3. They have the same number of chromosomes.

4. They are about the same size.

Choose the right option

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) Only 3 (d) All of the above

Q. 60 Which one of these has 23 chromosomes

(a) Human Zygote (b) Liver Cell (c) Muscle Cell (d) Human Sperm




Q. 61 In a family a couple has 2 sons Arsul and Akshat. The age of father is 3 times that of Akshat

and age of Arshul is half of his mother. Now wife is 9 years younger to her husband and the

difference between age of Arshul and Akshat is 7 years while Akshat is younger to Arshul.

What will be the ratio of ages of Arshul and Akshat after 5 years :

(a) 28 : 35 (b) 17 : 30 (c) 35 : 28 (d) 30 : 17

Q. 62 Select the pair of equations with no solution :

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(a) (i), (ii) (b) (ii), (iii) (c) (i), (iii) (d) (iv), (i)

Q. 63 If ABCD is a rectangle, then co-ordinates of D are:

A (–8, 0) B (2, 0)

C (2, –6)D ( )

(a) (–6, 8) (b) (–8, –6) (c) (–6, –8) (d) (6, –8)

Q. 64 If the points A (1, 2), O (0, 0) and C (a, b) are collinear, then

(a) a = b (b) a = 2 b (c) 2a = b (d) a = –b

Q. 65 If , then can be reduced to

(a) cos b (B) cos 2b (C) sin a (D) sin 2a

SECTION – D (MATHEMATICS 61–80)




Q. 66 If DABC is right angled at C, then the value of is

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 1

2(D)

3

2

Q. 67 The value of the expression

is

(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0

Q. 68 A pole 6 m high casts a shadow 2 3 m long on the ground, then the Sun's elevation is

(a) 60° (b) 45° (c) 30° (d) 90°

Q. 69 The value of the expression is

(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Infinity (d) None of these

Q. 70 Which term of the AP: 21, 42, 63, 84,... is 210?

(a) 9th (b) 10th (c) 11th (d) 12th

Q. 71 has

(a) Four real roots (b) Two real roots (c) No real roots (d) One real root




Q. 72 If one root of a quadratic equation is 1

then the equation will be

(a) x x (b) x x (c) 2x x (d) 2x x

Q. 73 For some integer q, every odd integer is of the form

(a) q (b) q + 1 (c) 2q (d) 2q + 1

Q. 74 If two positive integers p and q can be expressed as and ; a, b being prime

numbers, then LCM (p, q) is

(a) ab (b) a2b2 (c) a3b2 (d) a3b3

Q. 75 If one of the zeroes of the cubic polynomial is –1, then the product of the other

two zeroes is

(a) b – a + 1 (b) b – a – 1 (c) a – b + 1 (d) a – b – 1

Q. 76 In given Fig, two line segments AC and BD intersect each other at the point P such that

PA = 6 cm, PB = 3 cm, PC = 2.5 cm, PD = 5 cm, ÐAPB = 50° and ÐCDP = 30°. Then, ÐPBA

is equal to

(a) 50° (b) 30° (c) 60° (d) 100°




Q. 77 A cubical ice cream brick of edge 22 cm is to be distributed among some children by filling

ice cream cones of radius 2 cm and height 7 cm upto its brim. How many children will get

the ice cream cones?

(a) 163 (b) 263 (c) 363 (d) 463

Q. 78 A hollow cube of internal edge 22cm is filled with spherical marbles of diameter 0.5 cm and

it is assumed that 1

8 space of the cube remains unfilled. Then the number of marbles that

the cube can accommodate is

(a) 142296 (b) 142396 (c) 142496 (d) 142596

Q. 79 Volumes of two spheres are in the ratio 64 : 27. The ratio of their surface areas is

(a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 9 : 16 (d) 16 : 9

Q. 80 Find the area of the shaded region in Fig

4 m

4 m

3 m3 m 12 m

26 m

(a) 133.43 (b) 233.43 (c) 78.57 (d) None of these




Q. 81 How many pairs of letters in the word 'CHAIRS' have as many letters between them in the

word as in the alphabet?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 4

Q. 82 583 is related to 293 in the same way as 488 is related to____

(a) 291 (b) 378 (c) 487 (d) 581

Q. 83 Pointing out to a lady, a girl said, "She is the daughter-in-law of the grandmother of my

father's only son." How is the lady related to the girl ?

(a) Sister-in-law (b) Mother (c) Aunt (d) Can't be determined

Q. 84 A man is facing north-west. He turns 90o in the clockwise direction, then 180o in the

anticlockwise direction and then another 90o in the same direction. Which direction is he

facing now?

(a) South (b) South-west (c) South-east (d) East

Q. 85 Find the missing number in the following series?

3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?

(a) 71 (b) 61 (c) 79 (d) 69

Q. 86 If '×' means '–', '÷' means '+', '–' means '÷' and '+' means '×', then 24 – 4 ÷ 6 × 3 + 4 =?

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

Q. 87 Which of the following Venn- diagram correctly illustrates the relation ship among the classes:

Tennis fans, Cricket players, Students

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

SECTION – E (MENTAL ABILITY 81–90)




Q. 88 If A + B = 2C and C + D = 2A, then

(a) A + C = B + D (b) A + C = 2D + D (c) A + D = B + C (d) A + C = 2B + C

Q. 89 How many dots are there on the dice face opposite the one with three dots?

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

Q. 90 Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

(a) 28 (b) 32 (c) 36 (d) 40


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C-SAT Sample Paper Class X