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Chapter 1 :

1. Which of the following individuals is considered to be the “Father of Microbiology?” a. Anton von Leeuwenhoek b. Louis Pasteur c. Robert Koch d. Rudolf Virchow 2. The microbes that usually live on or in a person are collectively referred to as: a. germs. b. indigenous microflora. c. nonpathogens. d. opportunistic pathogens. 3. Microbes that live on dead and decaying organic material are known as: a. indigenous microflora. b. parasites. c. pathogens. d. saprophytes. 4. The study of algae is called: a. algaeology. b. botany. c. mycology. d. phycology.

5. The field of parasitology involves the study of which of the following types of organisms? a. arthropods, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and viruses b. arthropods, helminths, and certain protozoa c. bacteria, fungi, and protozoa d. bacteria, fungi, and viruses 6. Rudolf Virchow is given credit for proposing which of the following theories? a. abiogenesis b. biogenesis c. germ theory of disease d. spontaneous generation

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7. Which of the following microbes are considered obligate intracellular pathogens? a. chlamydias, rickettsias, M. leprae, and T. pallidum b. M. leprae and T. pallidum c. M. tuberculosis and viruses d. rickettsias, chlamydias, and viruses

8. Which of the following statements is true? a. Koch developed a rabies vaccine. b. Microbes are ubiquitous. c. Most microbes are harmful to humans. d. Pasteur conducted experiments that proved the theory of abiogenesis. 9. Which of the following are even smaller than viruses? a. chlamydias b. prions and viroids c. rickettsias d. cyanobacteria 10. Which of the following individuals introduced the terms “aerobes” and “anaerobes”? a. Anton von Leeuwenhoek b. Louis Pasteur c. Robert Koch d. Rudolf Virchow

True/False Questions

_____ 1. All infectious diseases are caused by pathogens.

_____ 2. Pathogens greatly outnumber nonpathogens.

_____ 3. Using microorganisms to clean up the environment is known as bioremediation.

_____ 4. Microorganisms are essential in the field of genetic engineering.

_____ 5. Microorganisms probably appeared on earth about 3.5 million years ago.

_____ 6. Anton van Leeuwenhoek’s experiments helped to prove that microorganisms

cause disease.

_____ 7. Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch made significant contributions to the “Germ

Theory of Disease.”

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_____ 8. Pasteurization is a process that kills all microorganisms present in the liquid being

pasteurized.

_____ 9. Microorganisms contribute more oxygen to our atmosphere than plants do.

_____ 10. Infectious diseases that are transmitted from animals to humans are known as

zoonoses.

1. True

2. False (the reverse is true)

3. True

4. True

5. False (3.5 billion years ago)

6. False (Leeuwenhoek did not make the link between diseases and the microorganisms he

observed; scientists like Pasteur and Koch made such connections)

7. True

8. False (pasteurization is a process designed to kill pathogens; it does not kill all of the

microorganisms that might be present in the liquid being pasteurized)

9. True

10. True

Chapter 2 :

1. A millimeter is equivalent to how many nanometers? a. 1,000 b. 10,000 c. 100,000 d. 1,000,000 2. Assume that a pinhead is 1 mm in diameter. How many spherical bacteria (cocci), lined up side by side, would fit across the pinhead? (Hint: Use information from Table 2-1.) a. 100 b. 1,000 c. 10,000 d. 100,000 3. What is the length of an average rod-shaped bacterium (bacillus)? a. 3 _m b. 3 nm c. 0.3 mm d. 0.03 mm

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4. What is the total magnification when using the high-power (high-dry) objective of a compound light microscope equipped with a _10 ocular lens? a. 40 b. 50 c. 100 d. 400 5. How many times better is the resolution of the transmission electron microscope than the resolution of the unaided human eye? a. 1,000 b. 10,000 c. 100,000 d. 1,000,000 6. How many times better is the resolution of the transmission electron microscope than the resolution of the compound light microscope? a. 100 b. 1,000 c. 10,000 d. 100,000 7. How many times better is the resolution of the transmission electron microscope than the resolution of the scanning electron microscope? a. 100 b. 1,000 c. 10,000 d. 100,000 8. The limiting factor of any compound light microscope (i.e., the thing that limits its resolution to 0.2 _m) is the: a. number of condenser lenses it has. b. number of magnifying lenses it has. c. number of ocular lenses it has. d. wavelength of visible light. 9. Which of the following individuals is given credit for developing the first compound microscope? a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek b. Hans Jansen c. Louis Pasteur d. Robert Hooke 10. A compound light microscope differs from a simple microscope in that the compound light microscope contains more than one:

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a. condenser lens. b. magnifying lens. c. objective lens. d. ocular lens.

_____ 1. Anton van Leeuwenhoek is given credit for developing the first compound light

microscope.

_____ 2. The wavelength of visible light limits the size of objects that can be seen with the

compound light microscope.

_____ 3. The resolving power of compound light microscopes can be improved by adding

additional magnifying lenses.

_____ 4. A brightfield microscope can be converted to a darkfield microscope by replacing

the condenser on a brightfield microscope with a darkfield condenser.

_____ 5. Transmission electron microscopes are used to study surface features.

_____ 6. Primary syphilis is usually diagnosed in the clinical microbiology laboratory by

the use of a scanning electron microscope.

_____ 7. A magnifying glass could be considered a simple microscope.

_____ 8. The total magnification achieved when the oil immersion lens is used is 1,000.

_____ 9. Fluorescence microscopy is often used in immunology laboratories.

_____ 10. The resolving power of electron microscopes is much better than that of

compound light microscopes because the wavelength of electrons is much longer

than that of visible light.

1. False (Leeuwenhoek made simple microscopes, not compound microscopes)

2. True

3. False (adding additional magnifying lenses to existing compound light microscopes

would not improve resolving power; it is referred to as “empty magnification”)

4. True

5. False (transmission electron microscopes are used to observe internal structures;

scanning electron microscopes are used to study surface features)

6. False (primary syphilis is usually diagnosed using darkfield microscopy)

7. True

8. True

9. True

10. False (it is because the wavelength of electrons is much shorter than that of visible light)

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Chapter 3 : 1. Molecules of extrachromosomal DNA are also known as: a. Golgi bodies. b. lysosomes. c. plasmids. d. plastids. 2. A bacterium possessing a tuft of flagella at one end of its cell would be called what kind of bacterium? a. amphitrichous b. lophotrichous c. monotrichous d. peritrichous 3. One way in which an archaean would differ from a bacterium is that the archaean would possess no: a. DNA in its chromosome. b. peptidoglycan in its cell walls. c. ribosomes in its cytoplasm. d. RNA in its ribosomes. 4. Some bacteria stain Gram-positive and others stain Gram-negative as a result of differences in the structure of their: a. capsule. b. cell membrane. c. cell wall. d. ribosomes. 5. Of the following, which one is not found in procaryotic cells? a. cell membrane b. chromosome c. mitochondria d. plasmids 6. The Three-Domain System of Classification is based on differences in which of the following molecules? a. mRNA b. peptidoglycan c. rRNA

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d. tRNA 7. Which of the following is in the correct sequence? a. Kingdom, Class, Division, Order, Family, Genus b. Kingdom, Division, Class, Order, Family, Genus c. Kingdom, Division, Order, Class, Family, Genus d. Kingdom, Order, Division, Class, Family, Genus 8. Which one of the following is never found in procaryotic cells? a. flagella b. capsule c. cilia d. ribosomes 9. The semipermeable structure controlling the transport of materials between the cell and its external environment is the: a. cell membrane. b. cell wall. c. cytoplasm. d. nuclear membrane. 10. In eucaryotic cells, what are the sites of photosynthesis? a. mitochondria b. plasmids c. plastids d. ribosomes

True/False Questions

_____ 1. The internal structure of procaryotic flagella is the same as the internal structure

of eucaryotic flagella.

_____ 2. The internal structure of eucaryotic cilia is the same as the internal structure of

eucaryotic flagella.

_____ 3. The production of endospores by bacteria is a reproductive mechanism.

_____ 4. Bacteria never have cilia and eucaryotic cells never have pili.

_____ 5. The 3-Domain System of classification is based on differences in the structure of

transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules.

_____ 6. One way that archaea differ from bacteria is that archaea possess more

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peptidoglycan in their cell walls.

_____ 7. Chitin is found in the cell walls of algae, but is not found in the cell walls of any

other types of microorganisms.

_____ 8. Tyndallization is a process that kills spores as well as vegetative cells.

_____ 9. Procaryotic cells do not contain endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies,

mitochondria, plastids, or membrane-bound vesicles.

_____ 10. In eucaryotic cells, ribosomal RNA (rRNA) molecules are manufactured in the

nucleolus.

1. False (eucaryotic flagella contain microtubules, whereas procaryotic flagella do not)

2. True

3. False (production of endospores is a survival mechanism)

4. True

5. False (the 3-Domain System is based on differences in the structure of ribosomal RNA

[rRNA])

6. False (the cell walls of archaea do not contain peptidoglycan)

7. False (chitin is found in the cell walls of fungi)

8. True

9. True

10. True

Chapter 4 :

1. Which one of the following steps occurs during the multiplication of animal viruses, but not during the multiplication of bacteriophages? a. assembly b. biosynthesis c. penetration d. uncoating 2. Which one of the following diseases or groups of diseases is not caused by prions? a. certain plant diseases b. chronic wasting disease of deer and elk c. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease of humans d. “mad cow disease” 3. Most procaryotic cells reproduce by:

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a. binary fission. b. budding. c. gamete production. d. spore formation. 4. The group of bacteria that lack rigid cell walls and take on irregular shapes is: a. chlamydias. b. mycobacteria. c. mycoplasmas. d. rickettsias. 5. At the end of the Gram staining procedure, Grampositive bacteria will be: a. blue to purple. b. green. c. orange. d. pink to red. 6. Which one of the following statements about rickettsias is false? a. Diseases caused by rickettsias are arthropod-borne. b. Rickets is caused by a Rickettsia species. c. Rickettsia species cause typhus and typhuslike diseases. d. Rickettsias have leaky membranes. 7. Which one of the following statements about Chlamydia and Chlamydophila spp. is false? a. They are obligate intracellular pathogens. b. They are considered to be “energy parasites.” c. The diseases they cause are all arthropod-borne. d. They are considered to be Gram-negative bacteria. 8. Which one of the following statements about cyanobacteria is false? a. Although cyanobacteria are photosynthetic, they do not produce oxygen as a result of photosynthesis. b. At one time, cyanobacteria were called bluegreen algae. c. Some cyanobacteria are capable of nitrogen fixation. d. Some cyanobacteria are important medically because they produce toxins 9. Which one of the following statements about

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archaea is false? a. Archaea are more closely related to eucaryotes than they are to bacteria. b. Both archaea and bacteria are procaryotic organisms. c. Some archaea live in extremely hot environments. d. The cell walls of archaea contain a thicker layer of peptidoglycan than the cell walls of bacteria. 10. An organism that does not require oxygen, grows better in the absence of oxygen, but can survive in atmospheres containing some molecular oxygen is known as a(n): a. aerotolerant anaerobe. b. capnophile. c. facultative anaerobe. d. microaerophile.

_____ 1. All diseases caused by Rickettsia spp. are arthropodborne.

_____ 2. Most viruses contain both DNA and RNA.

_____ 3. The cell walls of archaea contain a thicker layer of peptidoglycan than bacterial

cell walls.

_____ 4. On entering a bacterial cell, all bacteriophages immediately initiate the lytic

cycle.

_____ 5. Mycoplasmas cannot grow on artificial media.

_____ 6. Viruses are the smallest infectious agents.

_____ 7. Rickettsia spp. and Chlamydia spp. cannot be grown on artificial media.

_____ 8. Prions are infectious RNA molecules.

_____ 9. HIV is an enveloped, double-stranded RNA virus.

_____ 10. Organisms in the genus Vibrio are curved bacilli.

1. True

2. False (they contain either DNA or RNA)

3. False (archaean cell walls do not contain peptidoglycan)

4. False (temperate bacteriophages cause lysogeny)

5. False (yes they can)

6. False (viroids and prions are infectious agents that are smaller than viruses)

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7. True

8. False (prions are infectious proteins; viroids are infectious RNA molecules)

9. True

10. True

Chapter 5 : True/False Questions

_____ 1. Slime molds possess characteristics of both fungi and protozoa.

_____ 2. Protozoa in the category known as Mastigophora move by means of cilia.

_____ 3. A dimorphic fungus would exist as a mold inside the human body.

_____ 4. The organism that causes a “red tide” is an alga.

_____ 5. Volvox is a multicellular alga.

_____ 6. A stigma is an organelle that pumps water out of the cell.

_____ 7. Sexual spores are also known as conidia.

_____ 8. Classification of fungi is based on the type of conidia that they produce.

_____ 9. Protozoa that move by means of pseudopodia are in a category known as

Sarcodina.

_____ 10. Fungi can cause both infectious diseases and microbial intoxications.

1. True

2. False (they move by means of cilia)

3. False (a dimorphic fungus would exist as a yeast inside the human body)

4. True

5. True

6. False (a stigma or “eyespot” is a photosensing organelle)

7. False (asexual spores are also known as conidia)

8. False (classification of fungi is based on the type of sexual spores that they produce)

9. False (amebas move by means of pseudopodia; sporozoans do not move)

10. True

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Chapter 6 : 1. Which of the following are the building blocks of proteins? a. amino acids b. monosaccharides c. nucleotides d. peptides 2. Glucose, sucrose, and cellulose are examples of: a. carbohydrates. b. disaccharides. c. monosaccharides. d. polysaccharides. 3. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is not found in an RNA molecule? a. adenine b. guanine c. thymine d. uracil 4. Which of the following are purines? a. adenine and guanine b. adenine and thymine c. guanine and uracil d. guanine and cytosine 5. Which one of the following is not found at the site of protein synthesis? a. DNA b. mRNA c. rRNA d. tRNA 6. Which of the following statements about DNA is

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(are) true? a. DNA contains thymine but not uracil. b. DNA molecules contain deoxyribose. c. In a double-stranded DNA molecule, adenine on one strand will be connected to thymine on the complementary strand by two hydrogen bonds. d. All of the above statements are true. 7. The amino acids in a polypeptide chain are connected by: a. covalent bonds. b. glycosidic bonds. c. peptide bonds. d. both a and c.

8. Which of the following statements about nucleotides is (are) true? a. A nucleotide contains a nitrogenous base. b. A nucleotide contains a pentose. c. A nucleotide contains a phosphate group. d. All of the above statements are true. 9. A heptose contains how many carbon atoms? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 10. Virtually all enzymes are: a. carbohydrates. b. nucleic acids. c. proteins. d. substrates. _____ 1. The covalent bonds that hold monosaccharides together in a polysaccharide are

called glycosidic bonds.

_____ 2. A DNA nucleotide consists of the following three parts: a nitrogenous base,

ribose, and a phosphate group.

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_____ 3. The waxes in the cell walls of Mycobacterium tuberculosis cause this organism to

be acid-fast.

_____ 4. The basic structure of a cell membrane is a lipid bilayer.

_____ 5. DNA polymerase is the only enzyme required for DNA replication.

_____ 6. Genes that are expressed only when needed are called constitutive genes.

_____ 7. Polysaccharides, polypeptides, and nucleic acids are all examples of polymers.

_____ 8. During translation, amino acids are “activated” by attaching to an appropriate

rRNA molecule.

_____ 9. The peptide bonds that hold amino acids together in protein molecules are

examples of covalent bonds.

_____10. In double-stranded DNA molecules, the two strands are held together by

hydrogen bonds.

1. True

2. False (a DNA nucleotide consists of a nitrogenous base, deoxyribose, and a phosphate

group)

3. True

4. True

5. False (DNA polymerase is the most important enzyme involved in DNA replication, but

other enzymes are also involved)

6. False (genes that are expressed only when needed are called inducible genes; genes that

are expressed all of the time are called constitutive genes)

7. True

8. False (amino acids are “activated” by attaching to an appropriate tRNA molecule)

9. True

10. True