ETH 321 ETH321

ETH/321 ETHICAL AND LEGAL TOPICS IN BUSINESS

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ETH/321

ETHICAL AND LEGAL TOPICS IN BUSINESS

ETH 321 Week 1

Knowledge Check

Week 1 Knowledge Check

The material presented below is not meant to be a comprehensive list of all you need to know in the content area. Rather it is a starting point for building your knowledge and skills. Additional study materials are recommended in each area below to help you master the material.

Personalized Study Guide Results:

Score: 9/ 9

Concepts Mastery Questions

Purposes of law 100% • 1

• 2• 3

https://uopcourses.com/category/eth-321/

The role and structure of the American judiciary 100% • 4

• 5• 6

Forms of alternative dispute resolution 100% • 7

• 8• 9

Concept: Purposes of law

Mastery : 100% Questions : • 1

• 2• 3

Materials on the concept:

• Purposes of Law

• Introduction to Law

1.

What has been one of the focus areas of law in the United States over the past few decades?

• A.

Removing antidiscrimination laws

• B.

Moving away from the domain of education

• C.

Guaranteeing consistency and equality

• D.

Promoting the domination of tribal societies

2.

Identify the true statement about the role of law in the United States.

• A.

The law has no influence on commerce and business transactions.

• B.

The law is yet to introduce legal mechanisms to ensure equality in the workplace.

• C.

The law plays a role in fostering trust and reliability among merchants and consumers.

• D.

The focus of law has now significantly shifted to domination and power.

3.

Which of the following is one of the purposes of law today?

• A.

Acting as a change agent for commerce

• B.

Promoting domination

• C.

Embracing discrimination laws

• D.

Excluding commercial transactions from the purview of law

Concept: The role and structure of the American judiciary


• 5• 6


• Role and Structure of the Judiciary

• The American Judicial System, Jurisdiction, and Venue

• State Appellate Courts

• U.S. District Courts

4.

Identify the true statement about the American judiciary.

• A.

All courts interpret laws and take decisions independently.

• B.

Certain courts have the duty to evaluate the actions of other courts.

• C.

All courts are charged with the responsibility of judicial review.

• D.

Every court has the authority to hear all kinds of cases.

5.

What is the function of an appellate court?

• A.

To review petitions filed by losing parties

• B.

To review the actions of federal courts

• C.

To conduct trial proceedings for lawsuits

• D.

To conduct trials for issues involving violations of federal statutes

6.

Identify the courts that conduct primary trials for issues that involve federal matters such as federal regulations and statutes. The courts also hear a range of matters and provide decisions that are binding only on the parties involved.

• A.

Appellate courts

• B.

Circuit Courts of Appeal

• C.

U.S. District Courts

• D.

State trial courts

Concept: Forms of alternative dispute resolution


• 8• 9


• Alternative Dispute Resolution

• Arbitration

• Mediation

• Expert Evaluation

7.

What is true about arbitration as an alternative form of dispute resolution?

• A.

The arbitrator functions like a judge in a standard trial.

• B.

The arbitrator is not authorized to demand the testimony of witnesses in any dispute.

• C.

The arbitrator’s final decision must be approved by a higher court.

• D.

The arbitrator’s decision cannot be questioned under any circumstances.

8.

Sigma Inc. and Beta LLC. are two companies involved in a dispute. Both companies have agreed to appoint a third party, an attorney, to listen to their arguments and help them reach an agreement. The third party, however, will not render any kind of decision for the two parties involved. What type of

alternative form of dispute resolution is being used by Sigma Inc. and Beta LLC.?

• A.

Arbitration

• B.

Mediation

• C.

Expert evaluation

• D.

Trial

9.

In certain cases, the legal issues involve the intricacies of a specific industry or profession. In such cases, which type of alternative dispute resolution is used in which a neutral professional is hired to assess and evaluate facts and arguments. The professional is expected to come up with an appropriate solution or recommendation. The professional could also collect more information, if required, for the case.

• A.

Mediation

• B.

Negotiation

• C.

Standing

• D.

Expert evaluation

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ETH 321 Week 1

Role and Functions of Law Paper

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you discuss the roles of law and courts in today’s business environment.

• Compare and contrast the federal court structure with your state’s court structure.

• Discuss the concept of judicial review.

• Explain how laws or regulations affect your present job or industry.

• Properly cite at least two references from your reading.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

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ETH 321 Week 2

ADR Clause for Learning Team Charter Paper

Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which you do the following:

• Outline the various forms of an alternative dispute resolution (ADR).

• Develop an ADR clause that might be used by a Learning Team to resolve disagreements among members using one of the forms you discussed. This has to be an actual written clause.

• Identify all provisions and information necessary to enable the ADR to occur and function effectively.

The clause must be suitable for use by any Learning Team in any course of your program.

The clause must provide all information necessary to define which disputes are subject to an ADR.



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ETH 321 Week 2

Ethical Dilemma Paper

Access Films on Demand covering ethical topics by following these directions:

• Click on University Library.

• Click on View All Resources Alphabetically.

• Click on Films on Demand.

• Open the drop-down menu under Collections and select Business and Economics.

• Select Business Law located under Ethics and Business Law

Watch any video where an ethical decision has been made.

Write a 350-word executive summary outlining the ethical dilemma and outcome in the video, as well as possible alternative solutions.

Reference ethical theories from the reading as you describe possible alternative solutions.



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ETH 321 Week 2

Knowledge Check




Score: 12 / 12


Intentional business related torts 100% • 1

• 2• 3

Negligence torts 100% • 4

• 5• 6

Strict liability torts 100% • 7

• 8• 9

White collar crimes 100% • 10

• 11

• 12

Concept: Intentional business related torts


• 2• 3


• Defamation

• Intentional Business-Related Torts

• Absolute Privilege

• Privilege Defenses to Defamation

• Fraudulent Misrepresentation

1.

Identify the true statement about a claim of defamation.

• A.

A statement must have the ability to hurt the reputation of an individual in order to qualify as defamatory.

• B.

A statement does not have to be heard by a third party in order to qualify as defamatory.

• C.

An unkind statement made against a profession as a whole is also considered defamatory.

• D.

A statement should be based on pure opinion to qualify as defamatory.

2.

Who among the following is given absolute privilege or immunity against defamation?

• A.

Journalists while covering the news

• B.

Employers while recruiting new employees

• C.

Business owners during press conferences

• D.

Congress members during congressional debates

3.

Delta Inc. has filed a lawsuit against one of its new franchisees for providing false information about the amount of its profits it would give to Delta every month. Delta has also ascertained that the incorrect information caused pecuniary damages to Delta as well as damages to its reputation. What type of business tort is illustrated in the scenario?

• A.

Fraudulent misrepresentation

• B.

Slander

• C.

Battery

• D.

Tortious interference with existing contractual relationship

Concept: Negligence torts


• 5• 6


• Elements of Negligence

• Negligence

• Scope of “But For Test”

• Res Ipsa Loquiter

4.

What is likely to make a plaintiff’s case stronger in a negligence lawsuit?

• A.

Use of the assumption of risk

• B.

Absence of a safety statute

• C.

Occurrence of misfeasance

• D.

Absence of proximate cause

5.

In cases of negligence, what is one problem in applying the but for test?

• A.

It may result in holding a tortfeasor responsible for injuries that were not foreseeable.

• B.

It relieves a defendant of all liabilities, ruling that the defendant did not owe a duty of care to the plaintiff.

• C.

It may result in limiting the liability on a defendant in cases where the plaintiff, in some way, was also responsible for the damages.

• D.

It limits the liability on the defendant in cases where a superseding event caused more damages.

6.

Which doctrine allows a plaintiff to presume that a defendant caused certain damages without describing exactly how the defendant behaved?

• A.

Comparative negligence

• B.

Res ipsa loquiter

• C.

Assumption of the risk

• D.

Actus Reus

Concept: Strict liability torts


• 8• 9


• Torts and Products Liability

• Strict Liability Torts

• Abnormally Dangerous Activities

7.

What is true about strict liability?

• A.

It places emphasis on the intent of the tortfeasor.

• B.

It requires the plaintiff to prove duty of care and negligence.

• C.

It applies primarily to abnormally dangerous activities.

• D.

It does not apply to defective products.

8.

Venus Corp. is a building demolition company that produces large quantities of plastic explosives, which are stored in its warehouses. These warehouses are typically insulated and protected against damage. However, one day, a worker unintentionally causes an explosion in one of the warehouses, damaging buildings around it and causing injury to some individuals in the area. Which type of liability will a court most likely impose on Venus Corp.?

• A.

Strict liability

• B.

Assumption of the risk

• C.

Libel

• D.

Defamation liability

9.

Identify the basis upon which strict liability is imposed on a company for damages caused in the event of an incident.

• A.

The nature of the activity of the company

• B.

The intentions of the company

• C.

The net worth of the company

• D.

The amount of resources used by the company

Concept: White collar crimes


• 11

• 12


• White-Collar Crime

• Fraud

• Ponzi Schemes

• Criminal Law and Procedure in Business

10.

Omega Inc. has filed a lawsuit against one of its employees. This employee has been transferring monthly sums of company money into his personal account. He has been simultaneously altering the company’s financial records to indicate that the money is still in the company account. What kind of white collar crime is illustrated in the scenario?

• A.

Battery

• B.

Ponzi scheme

• C.

Embezzlement

• D.

Theft

11.

Identify the white collar crime that involves a fraudulent entity attracting investors, offering them high returns, and paying these returns, not from profits, but from investments made by subsequent investors.

• A.

Ponzi scheme

• B.

Embezzlement

• C.

Bribery

• D.

Battery

12.

Choose the correct statement about white collar crimes in the United States.

• A.

Conspiracy requires a criminal act to be carried out, not just agreed upon.

• B.

Insider trading activities can no longer by pursued by the government.

• C.

An obstruction of justice charge can stand independently.

• D.

Bribery is an offense that requires that a transaction has actually taken place, not just that money has been offered.

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ETH 321 Week 3

BUGusa, Inc. Case Scenario

Resources: Case Scenarios: Bugusa, Inc. multimedia link and University of Phoenix Material: Bugusa, Inc. Worksheet

Use the BUGusa, Inc. scenarios and your research to support your answers to the questions listed in the worksheet. Please draft your assignmet using the APA format classifying the types of torts in each scenario.


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ETH 321 Week 3

Corporate Executive Criminal Conviction Paper

Find an article in which a corporate executive was criminally prosecuted.

Write a 350- to 700-word paper detailing the unethical conduct, the crime committed, and the outcome of the case.



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ETH 321 Week 3

Knowledge Check




Score: 24/ 24


Requirements for the formation of valid contracts 100% • 1

• 2• 3

Enforceability of contracts 100% • 4

• 5• 6

Statute of frauds 100% • 7

• 8• 9

Remedies for contract breaches 100% • 10

• 11

• 12

Equitable remedies 100% • 13

• 14

• 15

Sole proprietorships and partnerships 100% • 16

• 17

• 18

Limited liability companies and limited liability partnerships 100% • 19

• 20

• 21

Corporations 100% • 22

• 23

• 24

Concept: Requirements for the formation of valid contracts


• 2• 3


• Revocation

• Events of Termination of the Power of Acceptance: Action of the Parties versus Operation of Law

• Agreement Part 2: Acceptance

• Contract Formation: Mutual Assent

• Legal Detriment

Show More

1.

In which case is an offer irrevocable?

• A.

When the offeree has not made any preparations before accepting the offer

• B.

When the offeree has partly acted upon the offer

• C.

When the offer is not in the form of an option contract

• D.

When the offeree’s response contradicts the offer even minimally

2.

What does the mailbox rule, in the context of common law contracts, state?

• A.

An offeror cannot revoke his or her offer under any circumstance.

• B.

An offeror must receive a written document of acceptance by the offeree in order for an offer to be considered accepted.

• C.

An offeree is said to have accepted an offer as soon as he or she dispatches the acceptance.

• D.

An offeree can use any method of acceptance, even if it has not been specified by the offeror.

3.

Which of the following meets the consideration requirement of contracts?

• A.

When a promiser pledges to perform a legal duty

• B.

When a promisee gives up a legal right

• C.

When a promiser gifts a property of high value to someone

• D.

When a promisee provides a gift for a favor done in the past

Concept: Enforceability of contracts


• 5• 6


• Enforceability

• Fraudulent Misrepresentation

• Undue Influence

• Duress

4.

When does fraudulent misrepresentation occur in the context of contracts?

• A.

When one party to a contract unintentionally fails to notice an error in the express terms of the contract

• B.

When one party to a contract knowingly provides only puffing and not facts in the contract

• C.

When one party to a contract knowingly distorts a material fact in the contract

• D.

When one party to a contract unintentionally conceals one of the facts in the terms of the contract

5.

Mr. Sanchez is a 70-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease. Jennifer, a full-time nurse, has been taking care of him for over four years. Mr. Sanchez depends on Jennifer and considers her to be a trustworthy caregiver. However, Jennifer informs Mr. Sanchez that she can no longer be his caregiver unless he promises to leave his estate to her in his will. Since Mr. Sanchez does not have anyone else to care for him, he accepts this agreement. Under which condition would a court of law allow Mr. Sanchez to void this agreement?

• A.


• B.

Slander

• C.

Unconscionability

• D.

Undue influence

6.

Which defense can be used when one party to an agreement threatens violence against another party to the agreement to persuade the latter to modify the agreement?

• A.


• B.

Duress

• C.

Unconscionability

• D.

Undue influence

Concept: Statute of frauds


• 8• 9


• Enforceability

• Statute of Frauds

7.

What is true about the statute of frauds for common law contracts?

• A.

It mandates that all forms of contract be in writing.

• B.

It creates specific formats in which parties are required to write contracts.

• C.

It is applicable to contracts that cannot be performed in less than one year.

• D.

It is not pertinent to contracts pertaining to the sale of land.

8.

According to the statute of frauds, what is one component that is consistently required for a contract to be valid?

• A.

A signature of the party against whom the contract is to be enforced

• B.

Written evidence of the contract

• C.

A prescribed format for the written contract

• D.

The signatures of at least three witnesses to the contract

9.

To which of the following common law contracts will the statue of frauds best apply?

• A.

A license contract of three weeks duration

• B.

A sale-of-goods contract involving an amount of $400

• C.

A lease transaction involving an amount of $2500

• D.

A supplier contract of six months’ duration

Concept: Remedies for contract breaches


• 11

• 12


• Remedies

• Liquidated Damages

• Compensatory Damages

• Consequential Damages

10.

Gadgetbug Corp. and Alba Inc. are two companies that have entered into a contract. According to the terms of this contract, if any one party breaches the

contract, it will pay the nonbreaching party a fixed amount of $50,000. What type of remedy for contract breaches is best illustrated in the scenario?

• A.

Compensatory damages

• B.

Consequential damages

• C.

Liquidation damages

• D.

Restitution

11.

In the context of remedies to breach of contract, what is true about compensatory damages?

• A.

They essentially cover foreseeable indirect losses.

• B.

They are estimated by the two parties who enter into a contract, even before a breach occurs.

• C.

They may include the potential profits payable to a nonbreaching party, if the contract had not been breached.

• D.

They intend to put a nonbreaching party in a much more advantageous position than it was in before the contract was breached.

12.

Identify the type of remedy for contract breaches in which a nonbreaching party also recovers damages for foreseeable indirect losses.

• A.

Compensatory damages

• B.


• C.

Restitution

• D.

Liquidated damages

Concept: Equitable remedies


• 14

• 15


• Equitable Remedies

• Injunctive Relief

• Reformation

• Specific Performance

13.

Identify the type of equitable remedy in which a court orders a party to refrain from taking a particular action.

• A.

Injunctive relief

• B.

Restitution

• C.

Reformation

• D.


14.

Adrian, who runs a café, has a contract with Mariam, who is a supplier. The contract states that Mariam will provide hundred cartons of cocoa powder to Adrian every week for a set price. However, after making the contract, Mariam realizes that there is an error in it. The price is much lower than had been agreed. Mariam decides to have the terms of contract changed. The court rules that the price term of the contract be revised. What type of remedy is illustrated in the scenario?

• A.

Restitution

• B.


• C.

Injunctive relief

• D.

Reformation

15.

What is true about specific performance as an equitable remedy for contract breaches?

• A.

It requires the breaching party to pay extra damages for not performing the terms of the contract.

• B.

It is the most commonly adopted remedy for most cases involving the sale of goods.

• C.

It requires the breaching party to take action to ensure that the promised performance is delivered.

• D.

It requires the breaching party to also pay damages for indirect losses that the nonbreaching party incurred because of lack of performance.

Concept: Sole proprietorships and partnerships


• 17

• 18


• Sole Proprietorships

• Choice of Business Entity, Sole Proprietorships, and Partnerships

• Partnerships

• Limited Partnerships

16.

What is true about the formation of a sole proprietorship?

• A.

It requires a very high fee during formation.

• B.

It is taxed as a separate entity.

• C.

It requires no annual filings.

• D.

It must operate exclusively at one location.

17.

Identify the true statement about general partnerships.

• A.

They are essentially created by filing a form with the government.

• B.

They are always formed by parties who have the intention to form a partnership.

• C.

They require the partners to assume liability for the debts of the partnership.

• D.

They require ownership rights to be sold through public markets.

18.

Anita and Sameera own a salon together. Anita manages the business and takes management decisions herself. On the other hand, Sameera has only invested capital in the business. According to the agreement, Anita assumes responsibility for all the debts and liabilities of the salon, but Sameera is liable only for the amount that she contributed to the business. What type of business form is illustrated in the scenario, assuming necessary documents are filed with the appropriate jurisdiction?

• A.

A limited liability partnership

• B.

A general partnership

• C.

A sole proprietorship

• D.

A corporation

Concept: Limited liability companies and limited liability partnerships


• 20

• 21


• Overview of LLCs and LLPs

• Limited Liability Companies (LLCs)

• Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs)

19.

Which statement is true in the context of limited liability companies (LLCs)?

• A.

The principals of LLCs do not receive any liability protection.

• B.

The principals of LLCs can opt for pass-through tax treatment.

• C.

The principals of LLCs are required to file extensive articles during the formation stage.

• D.

The principals of LLCs are not subject to any fiduciary duties of loyalty.

20.

What is a characteristic of a manager-managed limited liability company (LLC)?

• A.

All the members participate in business operations.

• B.

A person who is not an invested member is selected to manage the business.

• C.

Only an appointed member can look after business operations.

• D.

All the members have the authority to act on the LLC’s behalf.

21.

Which of the following business firms is most likely to be a limited liability partnership (LLP)?

• A.

Aries Pharmaceuticals can only be taxed as a separate legal entity.

• B.

Red Communications has two owners who assume complete responsibility for all the debts and obligations of the company.

• C.

Image Agency is owned and managed by only one individual.

• D.

Libra Electronics was formed when its owners filed a statement of qualification with the appropriate public official.

Concept: Corporations


• 23

• 24


• Corporations

• Corporations

• Categories of Corporations

• Privately Held versus Publicly Held

• Other Categories

22.

Which of the following statements is true about corporations?

• A.

Their formation is governed only by federal statutes.

• B.

Their obligations are separate from the personal obligations of their principals.

• C.

Their structure, functioning, and ownership issues are not governed by any law.

• D.

They cannot be sued and are not authorized to file suits.

23.

What is one of the characteristics of a typical privately held corporation?

• A.

No limit in terms of revenue

• B.

Lack of flexibility in internal management

• C.

Large numbers of shareholders

• D.

Several shareholders that are financial institutions

24.

Identify the true statement about corporations.

• A.

Public corporations do not have any owners.

• B.

Publicly held corporations are not subject to regulation or scrutiny by federal or state agencies.

• C.

Professional corporations frequently sell ownership interests to the general public.

• D.

Alien corporations are formed in the United States by principals from other countries.

ETH/321


ETH 321 Week 4

Business Entities, Laws, and Regulations Paper

Select two of the business scenarios below.

Write a 350- to 700-word paper discussing the business entity that represents the best choice for businesses you chose. Be sure to consider control, taxation, and liability issues.

• Restaurant or bar: Lou and Jose plan to open a sports bar and restaurant where customers socialize and watch sporting events on large-screen televisions that hang around the bar. They do not have much money, but they do have Miriam, a wealthy investor who does not have time to participate in the business, but wants to provide capital to start the business in return for a percentage of ownership.

• Extermination business: Frank is a wealthy investor who plans to open a chain of exterminating businesses across the United States.

• Professional practice: Akiva and Tara have just completed all educational and experiential requirements to be licensed as obstetricians. They want to open a birth clinic together. They will take out a large loan to finance start-up costs.



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ETH 321 Week 4

Elements of a Contract Paper

Resource: University of Phoenix Material: Elements of a Contract Scenario

Read the Elements of a Contract Scenario.

Write a 350- to 700-word paper answering the questions at the end of the scenario.



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ETH 321 Week 4

Knowledge Check




Score: 11 / 12


Functions of administrative law 100% • 1

• 2• 3

Powers of administrative agencies 100% • 4

• 5• 6

Trade secret protections 100% • 7

• 8• 9

Trademarks and copyright law 100% • 10

• 11

• 12

Concept: Functions of administrative law


• 2• 3


• Policymaking

• Primary Functions of Administrative Agencies

• Licensing and Permitting

1.

Identify the true statement about administrative agencies.

• A.

They are not authorized to perform legislative functions.

• B.

They are charged with the task of creating regulations that are legally enforceable.

• C.

They have only judicial and not executive powers.

• D.

Their functions do not encompass the enforcement of regulations made by Congress.

2.

Which of these demonstrates the adjudication function of administrative agencies?

• A.

Granting licenses to industries and professionals

• B.

Distributing the statutory benefits provided by Congress

• C.

Studying the broad policies made by Congress

• D.

Deciding cases that involve violations of agency rules

3.

What is true about the activities of administrative agencies?

• A.

They work independently of Congress.

• B.

They review judgments of trial courts.

• C.

They grant licenses and permits.

• D.

Their scope of functioning is limited to legislation.

Concept: Powers of administrative agencies


• 5• 6


• Agency Study and Research

• Rulemaking

• Enforcement, Licensing, and Inspection

• Scope of Administrative Agency Power

• Adjudication

4.

Identify the true statement about the rulemaking process followed by administrative agencies.

• A.

The rulemaking process is formal and requires a comprehensive hearing.

• B.

Agencies are prohibited from involving experts from outside the government in the rulemaking process.

• C.

Agencies are required to make public any material such as reports and studies that they used during rulemaking.

• D.

Agencies must publish the rule in the federal register only after holding public hearings.

5.

What is true about the powers of administrative agencies?

• A.

All actions of the administrative agencies are reviewable by the judiciary.

• B.

Administrative agencies cannot decide by themselves about when and whom to regulate.

• C.

Administrative agencies have the authority only to grant licenses and not revoke them.

• D.

Administrative agencies are authorized to conduct inspections of businesses and individuals.

6.

Which power of administrative agencies allows them to create quasi-court trial settings to hear disputes that arise in their jurisdictions?

• A.

Rulemaking

• B.

Adjudication

• C.

Inspection

• D.

Legislation

Concept: Trade secret protections


• 8• 9


• Trade Secret Protections

• Misappropriation

• Exclusive Rights for Unlimited Duration

• Criminal Sanctions

7.

When does misappropriation of a trade secret occur?

• A.

When someone acquires a trade secret illegally

• B.

When someone conducts research to discover a trade secret

• C.

When someone uses reverse engineering to figure out a trade secret

• D.

When the owner unintentionally shares the secret with others

8.

Identify the true statement about trade secret protection.

• A.

It expires after a very limited period of time.

• B.

It is lost if the owner does not take adequate measures to prevent misappropriation.

• C.

It considers reverse engineering as misappropriation and enables the owner to recover damages.

• D.

It can be availed for all kinds of trade practices, whether or not they have economic value.

9.

Identify the true statement about the Uniform Trade Secrets Act.

• A.

It provides recourse to owners of trade secrets even in cases where the secret was lost because of the owner’s negligence.

• B.

It does not contain any criminal sanctions.

• C.

It prohibits reverse engineering of trade secrets.

• D.

It does not provide trade secret protection for processes and methods.

Concept: Trademarks and copyright law


• 11

• 12


• Classifications of Trademarks

• Arbitrary or Fanciful

• Acquiring Rights for Trademark Protection

• Trademarks, Service Marks, and Trade Dress

• Copyright Law: Protections of Original Expressions

Show More

10.

What is true about arbitrary trademarks?

• A.

They are generally provided with a very low level of protection.

• B.

They do not have a strong logical connection with the products or services that they represent.

• C.

They directly describe the characteristics of products they represent.

• D.

They tend to be less distinctive than the other types of trademarks.

11.

What statement is true in the context of acquiring trademark rights?

• A.

Trademarks cannot be used in more than one geographic location.

• B.

Descriptive trademarks cannot get protection.

• C.

Trademark rights can only be acquired by registering the mark before it is used.

• D.

Trademark rights can be acquired by being the first to put the mark to use in commerce.

12.

Which of these can be protected under the Copyright Act?

• A.

Innovative ideas

• B.

Processes

• C.

Scientific principles

• D.

Recorded audio

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ETH 321 Week 5

Roles of State or Federal Administrative Agencies Presentation

Visit the website of any three state or federal administrative agencies: for example National Labor Relations Board (NLRB), Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), Federal Communications Commission (FCC), Social Security Administration (SSA), Federal Trade Commission (FTC), Food and Drug Administration (FDA), or Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).

Explain the role and function of each agency in a 6- to 9-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint®presentation with detailed speaker notes

Include one significant regulation that each agency enforces.

Format your presentation consistent with APA guidelines.


ETH/321


ETH 321 Week 5

Slick White Paper and Concealed Contaminates Simulation

Complete the “Slick White Paper and Concealed Contaminates Simulation.”

Note. You will have already taken the Ethical Lens Inventory™ in one of your first courses at University of Phoenix. Your results are available through EthicsGame where the “Slick White Paper and Concealed Contaminates Simulation” is housed.

ETH/321


ETH 321 Week 5

Knowledge Check




Score: 9 / 9


Challenges in business ethics and social responsibility 100% • 1

• 2• 3

Corporate social responsibility 100% • 4

• 5• 6

Complications associated with whistleblowing 100% • 7

• 8• 9

Concept: Challenges in business ethics and social responsibility


• 2• 3


• Values Management and Challenges to Business Ethics

1.

What is one of the challenges in business ethics?

• A.

Business ethics is completely independent of the law.

• B.

Business ethics does not assert the obvious.

• C.

Business ethics issues are unrelated to the everyday occurrences in an organization.

• D.

Business ethics cannot be taught to employees.

2.

What can help managers to overcome the challenge of teaching business ethics to employees?

• A.

Attempting to change employees’ values

• B.

Instructing employees to follow only legal guidelines

• C.

Allowing employees to use their own personal moral standards while making decisions

• D.

Focusing on the management of employee values and conflicts

3.

How can an organization faced with the challenges of business ethics, overcome these challenges?

• A.

By ensuring that its code of ethics has honesty mentioned in it.

• B.

By developing a business ethics program that focuses on making its employees unlearn their personal values.

• C.

By recognizing that ethics cannot be incorporated into its management.

• D.

By acknowledging that legal regulations are the only way to prevent its employees from committing unethical acts.

Concept: Corporate social responsibility


• 5• 6


• The Narrow View: Invisible Hand

• The Broad View: Management’s Hand

• The Moderate View: Government’s Hand

4.

Stephan is a proponent of the narrow view of corporate social responsibility (CSR). He believes that people should behave in a socially responsible manner on their own time. What other opinion is Stephan likely to have?

• A.

Corporations have a duty to invest some of their resources on improving society.

• B.

Corporations should exclusively follow the instructions set by the government when carrying out CSR functions.

• C.

CSR functions should receive utmost importance by employees in a corporation.

• D.

Corporations should only focus on increasing the wealth of their shareholders.

5.

Which view of corporate social responsibility (CSR) suggests that the emphasis of corporations should be on CSR and not on achieving profitability? This view also suggests that the existence of corporations is based on the premise that they will serve society.

• A.

The invisible hand view

• B.

The management’s hand view

• C.

The shareholder’s hand view

• D.

The government’s hand view

6.

What is true about the moderate view of corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

• A.

It suggests that governments have a better view on CSR and the needs of society.

• B.

It suggests that the CSR functions of corporations should not be regulated by government agencies.

• C.

It suggests that corporations should focus entirely on CSR and not on making profits.

• D.

It was proposed by Adam Smith.

Concept: Complications associated with whistleblowing


• 8• 9


• Sarbanes-Oxley and the Corporate Whistleblower

7.

In the context of business ethics, what is one of the provisions granted by the 2002 Sarbanes-Oxley Act?

• A.

Surveillance of terrorist-related activities

• B.

Employment-at-will

• C.

Protection of corporate whistleblowers

• D.

Punishment of employees who report their organizations’ unethical practices

8.

In which case is the discharge of an employee considered to be wrongful in the context of the Wrongful Discharge from Employment Act?

• A.

When the discharge occurred because the employee failed to deliver performance

• B.

When the discharge occurred because the employee refused to violate a public policy

• C.

When the discharge occurred because the employee violated organizational norms

• D.

When the discharge occurred because the employee misrepresented his or her qualifications

9.

Which inconsistency is likely to complicate the risk for whistleblowers in organizations?

• A.

The troubling situation at work involves a statute that does not carry protection for whistleblowers.

• B.

The troubling situation at work is one they are expected to participate in.

• C.

The troubling situation at work may be one they are not expected to ignore.

• D.

The troubling situation at work is not only unethical but also illegal.

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