ITILFULL

1. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?

a) What is the vision?

b) Did we get there?

c) Is there budget?

d) Where are we now?

2. What is the RACI model used for?

a) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity

b) Defining requirements for a new service or process

c) Analyzing the business impact of an incident

d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service Management

3. What is the main reason for establishing a baseline?

a) To standardize operation

b) For knowing the cost of services provided

c) For roles and responsibility to be clear

d) For later comparison

4. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Operation?

a) Through testing, to ensure that services are designed to meet business needs

b) To deliver and support IT services

c) To manage the technology used to deliver services

d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes

5. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about patterns of demand generated by the customer’s business?

a) They are driven by patterns of business activity

b) It is impossible to predict how they behave

c) It is impossible to influence demand patterns

d) They are driven by the delivery schedule generated by capacity management

6. Which of the following is NOT one of the ITIL core publications?

a) Service Optimization

b) Service Transition

c) Service Design

d) Service Strategy

7. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

1. Only one person can be responsible for an activity

2. Only one person can be accountable for an activity

a) All of the above

b) 1 only

c) 2 only

d) None of the above

8. Which is the correct sequence of events in the selection of a technology tool?

a) Select Product, Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product

b) Selection Criteria, Requirements, Evaluate Product, Select Product

c) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Select Product, Evaluate Product

d) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product, Select Product

9. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as defined in Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?

1. Process Metrics

2. Supplier Metrics

3. Service Metrics

4. Technology Metrics

5. Business Metrics

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 2, 4 and 5

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2 and 4

10. The priority of an Incident refers to?

a) The relative importance of the Incident based on impact and urgency

b) The speed with which the Incident needs to be resolved

c) The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the Incident so that it is resolved in time

d) The escalation path that will be followed to ensure resolution of the incident

11. The goal of Service Asset and Configuration Management is to?

a) Account for all financial assets of the organization

b) Provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure, correlating IT services and different IT components needed to deliver the services

c) Build service models to justify the ITIL implementations

d) Implement ITIL across the organization

12. Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following?

1. Incident Management

2. Problem Management

3. Access Management

4. ?

5. ?

a) Event management and Request Fulfillment

b) Event Management and Service Desk

c) Facilities Management and Event Management

d) Change Management and Service Level Management

13. Which of the following identifies two Service Portfolio components within the Service Lifecycle?

a) Requirements Portfolio and Service Catalogue

b) Service Knowledge Management System and Service Catalogue

c) Service Knowledge Management System and Requirements Portfolio

d) Requirements Portfolio and Configuration Management System

14. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Design phase of the Lifecycle?

1. Hardware and Software design

2. Environmental design

3. Process design

4. Data design

a) 1, 3 and 4 only

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) All of the above

d) 2, 3 and 4 only

15. Business drivers and requirements for a new service should be considered during?

a) Review of the router operating system patches

b) Review of the current capabilities of IT service delivery

c) The Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a change

d) Decommissioning legacy servers

16. The BEST definition of an event is?

a) An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded and an agreed Service Level has already been impacted

b) An occurrence that is significant for the management of the IT infrastructure or delivery of services

c) A known system defect that generates multiple incident reports

d) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service or improvement program

17. What does the Service V model represent?

a) A strategy for the successful completion of all Service Management projects

b) The path to Service Delivery and Service Support for efficient and effective utilization of resources

c) Levels of Configuration and testing required to deliver a Service Capability

d) The business perspective as perceived by the customer and the user of services

18. Technical Management is NOT responsible for?

a) Maintenance of the technical infrastructure

b) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support the IT infrastructure

c) Defining the Operational Level Agreements for the technical teams

d) Diagnosis of, and recovery from, technical failures

19. The following options are considered within which process?

1. Big bang vs. Phased

2. Push and Pull

3. Automated vs. Manual

a) Incident Management

b) Release and Deployment Management

c) Service Asset and Configuration Management

d) Service Catalogue Management

20. Which of the following activities is Service Level Management responsible for?

a) Design the configuration management system from a business perspective

b) Create technology metrics to align with customer needs

c) Create a customer facing service catalogue

d) Train service desk on how to deal with customer complaints about service

21. When analyzing an outcome for creation of value for customers, what attributes of the service should be considered?

a) Objectives, Metric, Desired outcome

b) Business Objectives, IT objectives, Process metrics

c) Desired outcome, Supplier metrics, IT objectives

d) People, Products, Technology

22. Setting policies and objectives is the primary concern of which of the following elements of the Service Lifecycle?

a) Service Strategy

b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement

c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation

d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement

23. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Event Management?

a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control action

b) The ability to implement monitoring tools

c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff

d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of infrastructure devices

24. Consider the following statements:

1. CSI provides guidance on how to improve process efficiency and effectiveness

2. CSI provides guidance on how to improve services

3. CSI provides guidance on the improvement of all phases of the service lifecycle

4. CSI provides guidance on the measurement of processes and services

Which of the above statements is CORRECT?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

25. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about Functions?

1. They provide structure and stability to organizations

2. They are self-contained units with their own capabilities and resources

3. They rely on processes for cross-functional coordination and control

4. They are costlier to implement compared to processes

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) All of the above

d) None of the above 26. If an organization is able to become more proactive in its ITSM processes, what is likely to happen to support costs?

a) They are likely to increase gradually

b) They are likely to increase dramatically

c) They are likely to gradually reduce

d) They are likely to reduce initially and then gradually return to current level

27. Which of the following statements about Supplier Management is INCORRECT?

a) Supplier Management negotiates internal and external agreements to support the delivery of services

b) Supplier Management ensures that suppliers meet business expectations

c) Supplier Management maintains information in a Supplier and Contracts Database

d) Supplier Management should be involved in all stages of the service lifecycle, from Strategy through Design and Transition to Operations and Improvement

28. Which of the following BEST describes a Local Service Desk structure?

a) A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical support to its users

b) A Service Desk where analysts only speak one language

c) A Service Desk that is situated in the same location as the users it serves

d) A Service Desk that could be in any physical location but uses telecommunications and IT systems to make it appear that they are in the same location

29. What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)?

a) To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made during particularly volatile business periods

b) To assist the Change Manager in implementing emergency changes

c) To assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide whether the change should be approved

d) To assist the Change Manager in speeding up the emergency change process so that no unacceptable delays occur.

30. Which of the following is a good use of a baseline?

a) The desired end state of a project

b) A marker or starting point for later comparison

c) The current desktop models in use

d) The type of testing to be done for a release

31. The main objective of Availability Management is?

a) To monitor and report availability of services and components

b) To ensure that all targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met

c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components

d) To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the business

32. Operations Control refers to?

a) The managers of the Technical and Applications Management functions

b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of IT operational events and activities

c) The tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT Infrastructure and Applications

d) The situation where the Service Desk is required to monitor the status of the infrastructure when Operators are not available

33. Which off the following is a characteristic of every process?

1. It is measurable

2. It is timely

3. It delivers a specific result

4. It responds to a specific event

5. It delivers its primary result to a customer or stakeholder

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

d) All of the above

34. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?

a) A user calls the Service Desk to order a toner cartridge

b) A user calls the Service Desk because they would like to change the functionality of an application

c) A Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to an application

d) A user logs onto an internal website to download a licensed copy of software from a list of approved options

35. A Service Level Package is best described as?

a) A definite level of utility and warranty associated with a core service package

b) A description of customer requirements used to negotiate a Service Level Agreement

c) A description of the value that the customer wants and for which they are willing to pay

d) A document showing the Service Levels achieved during an agreed reporting period

36. Incident Management has a value to the business by?

a) Helping to control infrastructure cost of adding new technology

b) Enabling users to resolve Problems

c) Helping to align people and process for the delivery of service

d) Contributing to the reduction of impact

37. A Service owner is responsible for which of the following?

a) Recommending improvements

b) Designing and documenting a Service

c) Carrying out the Service Operations activities needed to support a Service

d) Producing a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of all Services

38. The four stages of the Deming Cycle are?

a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Report

b) Plan, Check, Re-Act, Implement

c) Plan, Do, Act, Audit

d) Plan, Do, Check, Act

39. What is the CORRECT order of the first four activities in the 7 Step Improvement Process?

a) Define what you should measure, define what you can measure, gather data and process data

b) Gather data, process data, analyze data and present data

c) What is the vision, where are we now, what do we want to be, how do we get there?

d) Gather data, process data, define what you should measure and define what you can measure

40. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for all processes?

a) They define activities, roles, responsibilities, functions and metrics

b) They create value for stakeholders

c) They are carried out by a Service Provider in support of a Customer

d) They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes Free ITIL Dumps Exam Questions Version-3 Paper 2

1. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?

a) An Operations Lifecycle

b) An IT Management Lifecycle

c) A Service Lifecycle

d) An Infrastructure Lifecycle

2. Which aspect of Service Design is missing from the list below?

1. The design of services

2. The design of Service Management systems and tools

3. The design of technology architecture and management systems

4. The design of the processes required

5. ?

a) The design of Functions

b) The design of Service Level Agreements

c) The design of applications

d) The design of measurement systems, methods and metrics

3. Which of the following Roles is responsible for identifying opportunities for improvement?

1. Service Owner

2. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Manager

3. Process Owner

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) All of the above

d) 2 and 3 only

4. Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the following elements of the Service Lifecycle?

a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement

b) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation

c) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement

d) Continual Service Improvement

5. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to carrying out Service Operations?

a) The internal IT view is most important as Service Operations has to monitor and manage the infrastructure

b) Service Operations should maintain a balance between an internal IT view and an external business view

c) The external business view is most important as Service Operations is the place where value is realized and the customer obtains the benefit of the services

d) IT Operations does not take an internal or external view as they execute processes defined by Service Design

6. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are CORRECT?

1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT and its users for all operational issues

2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process

a) 2 only

b) 1 only

c) All of the above


7. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in creating value?

a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production management

b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services

c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support

d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery

8. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of the following?

1. Service Portfolio Management

2. Demand Management

3. Financial Management

a) Service Operations

b) Service Strategy

c) Service Transition

d) Continual Service Improvement

9. Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of Communication during Service Operation?

a) Communication is defined as part of all processes and is executed in Service Operation

b) Communication is a separate process that needs to be defined and executed with Service Operation

c) Good communication is essential for successful Service Operation, just as it is for any other phase of the Lifecycle

d) Communication is more important in Service Operation than in any other stage of the Service Lifecycle

10. A Process owner is responsible for which of the following?

a) Purchasing tools to support the Process

b) Ensuring that targets specified in an SLA are met

c) Carrying out activities defined in the Process

d) Monitoring and improving the Process

11. Demand Management is primarily used to?

a) Increase customer value

b) Eliminate excess capacity needs

c) Increase the value of IT

d) Align business with IT cost

12. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of organizing Continual Service Improvement (CSI) using the RACI model?

a) Facilitates clear communication and workflow practice across all parties involved in the CSI program

b) Clarifies the roles and responsibilities of individual in the CSI program which could otherwise be overlapping and confusing

c) Identifies where internal Service Level Agreements (SLAs) can be established to implement CSI

d) Provides a clear focus for matching the CSI processes to financial planning

13. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment Management process?

1. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans

2. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and support staff

3. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services

4. To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the business

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) All of the above

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

14. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service Portfolio Management?

a) How should our resources and capabilities be allocated?

b) What opportunities are there in the market?

c) Why should a customer buy these services?

d) What are the pricing or chargeback models?

15. Which of the following statements are NOT included in Access Management?

1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services

2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users

3. Defining security policies for system access

4. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to

a) 3 and 4 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 2 only 16. Application Management is NOT responsible for?

a) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support Applications

b) Managing applications through their lifecycle

c) Assisting in the decision to build or buy new software

d) Developing operational functionality required by the business

17. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented within which of the following?

a) The Glossary of Terms

b) A Service Level Agreement

c) An Incident Management record

d) A Configuration Item (CI)

18. What is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Process?

a) Dealing with Service Requests from the users

b) Making sure all requests within an IT Organization is fulfilled

c) Ensuring fulfillment of Change Requests

d) Making sure the Service Level Agreement is met

19. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?

1. Data mining and workflow tools

2. Measurement and reporting systems

3. Release and Deployment technology

4. Process Design

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) All of the above

20. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about ‘good practice’?

a) It can be used to drive an organization forward

b) It is something that is in wide industry use

c) It is always documented in international standards

d) It is always based on ITIL


1. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger

2. A characteristic of the “Process” is that it is performance driven and able to be measured

Which of the above statements are CORRECT?

a) 1 only

b) All of the above

c) None of the above

d) 2 only

22. “Warranty of a service” means which of the following?

a) The service is fit for purpose

b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the service

c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time

d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security

23. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is most accurately described as?

a) To understand the performance characteristics of assets and Configuration Items (CIs) in order to maximize their contribution to service levels

b) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective

c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they were designed to achieve

d) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure and maintain accurate configuration records

24. A Service Catalogue should contain which of the following?

a) The version information of all software

b) The organizational structure of the company

c) Asset information

d) Details of all operational services

25. Facilities Management refers to?

a) The Management of IT services that are viewed as “utilities”, such as printers or network access

b) The Management of an outsourcing contract

c) The Management of the physical IT environment, such as a Data Center

d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations staff to maintain the infrastructure

26. When planning and implementing a Continual Service Improvement (CSI) initiative, which of the following benefits is LEAST useful in supporting a business case?

a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate capacity and performance modeling processes

b) Reduce support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident and problem management processes

c) Improve employee morale and therefore create better relationships between IT and business units

d) Reduce Problem resolution by 50% and minimize critical system outages

27. Which of the following would NOT be stored in the Definitive Media Library (DML)?

a) Master copies of software

b) Backups of application data

c) Software licenses

d) Master copies of controlled documentation

28. The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately described as?

a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and implemented in a controlled manner

b) Ensuring that changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and effectively

c) Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of failure

d) Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made

29. Functions are best described as?

a) Without their own body of knowledge

b) Closed loop systems

c) Self-Contained units of organizations

d) Focusing on transformation to a goal

30. What is the best definition of an Incident Model?

a) The template used to define the Incident logging form used to report Incidents

b) A type of Incident involving a standard (or model) type of Configuration Item (CI)

c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of Incident

d) An Incident that is easy to solve

31. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and Outsourcing delivery model options?

a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on external organization(s) resources

b) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies on internal resources

c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships

d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on application service provisioning

32. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve services?

a) To validate, direct, justify and intervene

b) To validate, measure, monitor and change

c) To validate, plan, act and improve

d) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people

33. A benefit of using Service Design tools is?

a) To help ensure that standards and conventions are followed

b) To help ensure that events are detected as quickly as possible

c) To help enable different applications to work together

d) To help implement architectures that support the business strategy

34. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Four P’s of Service Design?

a) A four step process for the design of effective Service Management

b) A definition of the people and products required for successful design

c) A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing design specifications

d) The four major areas that need to be considered in the design of effective Service Management


1. Service Transition provides guidance on moving new and changed services into production

2. Service Transition provides guidance on testing

3. Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an external service provider


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 only

c) All of the above

d) 1 and 3 only

36. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?

a) Assess the current business situation

b) Understand high-level business requirements

c) Agree on priorities for improvement

d) Create and verify a plan

37. An Incident occurs when:

1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours

2. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours

3. A redundant network segment fails, and the user is not aware of any disruption to service

4. A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an application


a) All of the above

b) 1 and 4 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) None of the abovE

38. Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?

a) Supplier Management

b) Service Level Management

c) Service Portfolio Management

d) Contract Management

39. The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be described as?

a) The Seven P’s of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)

b) A service improvement methodology based on the Deming Cycle

c) A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvements

d) A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the data, processing the data and using it to take corrective action

40. The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?

a) Senior business managers and all IT staff

b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Manager

c) All customers, users and IT staff

d) Information Security Management staff only

1. Which of the following best means Combination of Internal & External Sourcing?

A. Internal Sourcing-.

B. External Sourcing

C. Co-Sourcing

D. Managed Services

2. Major Incidents require?

A. Separate procedures

B. Less urgency

C. Longer timescales

D. Less documentation

3. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

A. Knowledge

B. Information

C. Wisdom

D. Data

4. The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a number of errors. The Development department has corrected these errors in a new version. Which process is responsible for ensuring this updated version is tested?

A. Configuration Management

B. Incident Management

C. Problem Management

D. Release Management

5. The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle can be used to plan and implement Service Management Processes:

How many times should each stage of the cycle be visited?

A. There should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement

B. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act

C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement

D. There should be a single %n. then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to Implement Continual improvement


1. “Processes” should be implemented in such a way that the “Role” and “Function” in an organization are defined

2. The RACI model Is beneficial to design Function”


A. 1 Only

B. Both of the above

C. Neither of the above

D. 2 only

7. Which of the following is the process rather than a department?

A. Application Management

B. Operations Management

C. Service Desk

D. Availability Management

8. Which of the following statements fully describes the aim of Release and Deployment Management?

A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders’ requirements and deliver the Intended objectives

B. To ensure that each release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service components that are compatible with each other

C. To ensure that all release and deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified, and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate

D. To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to the new or changed service

9. Which of the following may be defined in a process?

1. Roles

2. Activities

3. Functions

4. Guidelines

5. Standards

6. Governance Framework

A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

B. All of the above

C. 1. 2, 5 and 6 only

D. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only

10. A Service Provider is?

A. An organization supplying services to one or more external customers

B. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers or external customers

C. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers

D. An organization supplying IT services

11. Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?

A. Capacity Management

B. Change Management

C. Configuration Management

D. Financial Management for IT services

12. The Design Manager Is responsible for the overall coordination and deployment of quality solution designs for services and processes. Which of the following are NOT responsibilities included In this role?

A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages

B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organization

C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced

D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the Service Design and supporting processes

13. Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability components?

A. IT Service Continuity Management

B. Service Level Management



14. Which of the following statements is true about Access Management?

A. The Process responsible for allowing Users to make use of IT Services, data, or other Assets.

B. Access Management helps to protect the Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability of Assets by ensuring that only authorized Users are able to access or modify the Assets.

C. Access Management is sometimes referred to as Rights Management or Identity Management.

D. All of above

15. What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed for the customer?

A. The average utilization level of the Service Desk

B. The level of availability realized and the time not available per period

C. The percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target

D. The successful and reverted Changes during a specific period

16. Availability Management is responsible for availability of?

A. Services and Resources

B. Services and Business Processes

C. Resources and Business Processes

D. Services, Resources and Business Processes

17. What is the difference between a process and a project?

A. A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a finite lifespan.

B. A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a finite lifespan.

C. A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project does not stop when the objective is met.

D. In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the result is important

18. Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service improvement (CSI) Model?

A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the Solution; continually improve

B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived; How do we keep the momentum going?

C. identifies the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; improve the solution

D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

19. What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?

A. The degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered

B. The degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer

C. The degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by maintenance contracts

D. The degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) are complied with

20. A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk representative determines that the PC is defective and indicates that according to the services catalogue, the PC will be replaced within three hours. Which ITIL process is responsible for having this user's PC replaced within three hours?

A. Availability Management



D. Service Level Management

21. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)

B. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS

C. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS

D. The CMS is partof the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

22. Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change Management. What information is this?

A. Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs)

B. RFCs resulting from Known Errors

C. RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change Management

D. RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change Management

23. Which form of outsourcing provides domain based business expertise?

A. Application Service Provision

B. Business Process Outsourcing

C. Knowledge Process Outsourcing

D. Co-Sourcing

24. Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service?

A. Service Catalogue

B. Service Improvement Program

C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D. Service Quality Plan (SQP)

25. Changes are divided into categories.

What criterion defines a category for a change?

A. The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial, significant, etc.

B. The speed with which the change is made

C. The sequence in which the change is made

D. The Request for Change number that the change is assigned

26. In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are taken, for example using an emergency power provision.

Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of measure?


B. Capacity management

C. Change Management

D. Incident Management

27. What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called?

A. Replacement Request

B. Request for Change

C. Request for Release

D. Service Request

28. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an interruption of a Configuration Item?

A. Availability Manager

B. Incident Manager

C. Problem Manager

D. Service Level Manager

29. Which of the following steps from the continual improvement Model is missing?

1. What Is the vision?

2. Where are we now?

3. Where do we want to be?

4. How do we get there?

5. Did we get there?

6.?

A. What is the ROI

B. How much did it cost.

C. How do we keep the momentum going.

D. What is the VOI?

30. Which of the following best describes the goal of Information Security Management Process?

A. To align IT security with business security and ensure that information security is effectively managed in all service and Service Management activities’.

B. To ensure that that the information security risks are appropriately managed and enterprise information resources are used responsibly.

C. To provide a focus for all aspects of IT security and manage all IT security activities.

D. To provide the strategic direction for security activities and ensures objectives are achieved

31. Which of the following statements about Supplier and Contract Database (SCD) are correct?

1. A database or structured Document used to manage Supplier Contracts throughout their Lifecycle.

2. The SCD contains key Attributes of all Contracts with Suppliers

3. Its never part of the Service Knowledge Management System.

4. Maintaining it is responsibility of Supplier management process

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1, 2 & 3

C. 1, 2 & 4

D. All of above

32. Which of the following will complete the Four P's of Service Design?

1. Perspectives

2. Positioning

3. Plan

4. ???

A. People

B. Product

C. Patterns

D. Partners

33. What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean?

A. Average uptime of a service

B. Average downtime of a service

C. Average time between two consecutive incidents

D. Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period

34. Which of the following statements is true about the term Event?

A. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT service.

B. The term Event is also used to mean an Alert or notification created by any IT Service, configuration Item or Monitoring tool.

C. Events typically require IT Operations personnel to take actions, and often lead to Incidents being logged

D. All of above

35. Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive Media Library (DML)?

A. Copies of all software versions that are needed

B. Copies of all live software programs

C. Authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure

D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing

36. Application Portfolio

1. A database or structured Document used to manage Applications throughout their Lifecycle.

2. The Application Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications.

3. The Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented as part of the Service Portfolio, or as part of the Configuration Management System.

Which of the above statements is correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 & 3only

C. All of above

D. 1 & 2 only

37. Which of the following best describes Fault Tolerance?

A. The ability of an IT Service or Configuration Item to continue to operate correctly after Failure of a Component part.

B. The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their contract. Often this contract will include agreed levels of availability, reliability and/or maintainability for a supporting service or component.

C. A measure of how quickly and effectively a service, component or CI can be restored to normal working after a failure.

D. A measure of how long a service, component or CI can perform its agreed function without interruption

38. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Capacity Plan?

A. Capacity Forecasts

B. Recommendations

C. Components and resource forecasts

D. Countermeasures for risks

39. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level Management process?

A. By checking contracts with suppliers

B. By measuring customer satisfaction

C. By defining service levels

D. By reporting on all incidents

40. What is the first activity when implementing a release?

A. Designing and building a release

B. Testing a release

C. Compiling the release schedule

D. Communicating and preparing the release

QUESTION NO: 1

Which activity is not the responsibility of IT service continuity management?

A. Drawing up back-out scenarios

B. Analyzing risks

C. Testing back-out arrangements

D. Executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2

Which ITIL process has responsibility in preventing unauthorized access to data?

A. IT service continuity management

B. Availability management

C. Release management

D. Security management

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3

Which ITIL process or which ITIL department has responsibilities that include

distributing information to users?

A. Change management

B. Service desk

C. Customer relationship management


Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4

Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service?

A. Service Quality Plan (SQP)

B. Service improvement program (SIP)

C. Service catalogue

D. Service Level Agreement (SLA)

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5

In the change management process, which role is ultimately responsible for the entire

process?

A. Change Advisory Board

B. IT Manager

C. Change Manager

D. Change Coordinator

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6

In TestKing.com, the purchasing department has relocated internally, not just the people,

but also their IT resources. A service Desk employee has been commissioned to relocate

this department's workstations. In which ITIL process is this employee now playing a

role?




D. Problem Management

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 7

Which of the following is an example of proactive problem management?

A. A report regarding the problem management process

B. An urgent change

C. A change request

D. A trend analysis

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 8

Which data, for a new configuration item (CI), is recorded in the configuration

management database (CMDB)?

A. The relationship to other configuration items

B. The request for change number for the configuration item

C. Repairs to the configuration item

D. The impact of the configuration item

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9

Which activity is not the responsibility of IT service continuity management?

A. Testing back-out arrangements

B. Drawing up back-out scenarios

C. Analyzing risks


Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10

Which ITIL process provides change proposals in order to eliminate structural errors?

A. Availability management

B. Problem Management

C. IT service continuity management

D. Security Management

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 11

Which activity is not a Service Desk activity?

A. Relating an incident to a know Error

B. Registering incidents

C. Applying temporary fixes

D. Solving a Problem

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 12

Which of the following describes the basic concept of integrity in the Security

Management process?

A. The capacity to verify the correctness of the data

B. The correctness of the data

C. Access to the data at any moment

D. Protection of the data against unauthorized access and use

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 13

Which ITIL process responsible for annually allocating the costs of underpinning

contracts?


B. Availability Management

C. Financial Management for IT services


Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 14

How does Problem Management contribute to a higher solution percentage of first-line

support?

A. By preventing incidents

B. By analyzing open incidents

C. By evaluating incidents with the customer

D. By making a knowledge database available

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 15

Which activity is not a service Desk activity?

A. Relating an incident to a known error

B. Solving a problem

C. Registering incidents

D. Applying temporary fixes

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 16

Which statement best describes the role of the service Desk?

A. The service Desk functions as the first contact for the customer

B. The primary task of the Service Desk is to investigate problems

C. The service Desk ensures that the telephone is always manned

D. The service Desk ensures that the agreed IT service is available

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 17

When an organization decides to control the flow of incidents information within the IT

organization, which ITIL process would it be putting in place?

A. Change management

B. Availability management

C. Incident Management


Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 18

How is a change that must be made quickly called?

A. A fast change

B. An urgent change

C. An unplanned change

D. A standard c

QUESTION NO: 19

A powerful failure has knocked out the entire IT infrastructure. Fortunately, there is an

ITSC Plan available. When should power failure be considered a disaster to enact the

ITSC Plan?

A. Immediately, as the IT service can no longer be used

B. When the time within which the failure should be solved, has exceeded.

C. When the continuity Manager expects the failure to last longer than the maximum

period of time mentioned in the service Level agreement

D. When the incident Manager thinks this is necessary

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 20

Which of the following statements about the service catalogue is correct?

It describes only those services that are also included in the Service Level Agreement

(SLA)

It describes all services that can be supplied by the IT management organization

It is necessary in order to draw up an SLA

It can be used instead of an SLA

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 21

Which ITIL process is responsible for determining the hardware necessary in order to

support an application?


B. Configuration Management


D. Availability management

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 22

Which subject should be one of the standard items on the agenda of a meeting of the

Change Advisor Board (CAB)?

A. The whishes of customers to implement changes

B. Ongoing or concluded changes

C. Reports from Service Level Management

D. The registration of changes

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 23

Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL?

A. That it is finally possible to charge for IT services

B. That the organization around the IT services can be set up faster

C. That the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently

D. That the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT services

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 24

What is the basis of the ITIL approach to Service Management?

A. Interrelated activities

B. Officals

C. Departments

D. IT resources

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 25

Who decides the category of a change ?

A. The service desk

B. The change manager

C. The problem manager

D. The customer

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 26

Changes are divided into categories. What criteria defines a category for a change?

A. The sequence in which the change is made

B. The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial, significant etc

C. The speed with which the change is made


Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 27

Which activity in the problem management process is responsible for generating requests

for change (RFCs)?

A. Error Control

B. Monitoring

C. Proactive Problem Management

D. Problem Analysis

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 28

TestKing.com calls the service Desk and Reports that the system is slow. He asks

whether he can be given another PC like this colleague's, which is much faster. Which

term is applicable to this situation?

A. Problem

B. Request For Change

C. Incident

D. Classification

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 29

Which status is a problem assigned once its cause has been identified?

A. Request for Change (RFC)

B. Known Error

C. Work-around

D. incident

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 30

Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident?

A. Problem Manager

B. Service Desk

C. Service Level Manager

D. Problem Management staff

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 31

In the Service Level Management Process, what happens during the activity called

"monitoring"?

A. Guarding agreements with the customer

B. Acquiring customers

C. Guarding negotiations with the customer

D. Identifying the needs of the customer

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 32

Which of the following questions can not be answered directly from the Configuration

Management Database (CMDB)?

A. Which Requests for change have been submitted for a specific server?

B. What incidents or problems have there been for this PC?

C. Which Configuration items does a specific service consist of?

D. Which members of staff of department x have moved to department Y?

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 33

Where are the statuses of changes recorded?

A. In the known error database

B. In the change database

C. In the configuration management database (CMDB)

D. In the definitive software library (DSL)

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 34

Which ITIL process is responsible for setting up the cost allocation system?


B. Financial Management for IT Services

C. Capacity Management


Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 35

Users have complained about email service. An evaluation of the service has been

performed. Which activity takes place after the evaluation of a service?

A. Adjusting of the service

B. Defining service levels

C. Monitoring of service levels

D. Compilation of service level reports

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 36


A. That it is finally possible to charge for IT services

B. That the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT services

C. That the organization around the IT services can be set up faster

D. That the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 37

.What is the difference between a process and a project?

A. A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas as project does not

stop when the objective is met

B. A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a finite lifespan

C. In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the result is important

D. A project is continuous and has no end date, where a process has a finite lifespan

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 38

Software is checked for viruses before it goes into the Definite Software Library (DSL).

What ITIL process is responsible for ensuring that only virus-free software is put into the

DSL?

A. Release Management

B. Capacity Management


D. Application Management

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 39

For which of the following activities of configuration management are audits regularly

implemented?

A. Status monitoring

B. Identification

C. Planning

D. Verification

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 40

When must a Post Implementation Review take place?

A. If another incident of the same type occurs again after a change has been made

B. At the request of the person who submitted the change request

C. After every Change

D. In case of emergency changes

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 41

What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean?


B. Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period

C. Average downtime of a service

D. Average time between two consecutive incidents

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 42

For what is capacity Management responsible?

A. Resource Management

B. Security

C. Maintainability

D. Serviceability

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 43

An analysis has been made regarding the expansion of the customer information

database. The result indicates that the mainframe disk capacity must be increased, to

accommodate the expected growth of the database in the foreseeable future. Which

process is responsible for sharing this information on time, to make sure that the available

disk space is sufficient?

A. Change Management


C. Security Management


Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 44

When is a known error identified?

A. When the problem is known

B. When the problem has been resolved

C. When the incident has been sent to Problem Management

D. When the cause of the problem is known

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 45

What is the term used for a situation derived from a series of incidents with the same

characteristics?

A. A problem

B. A change request

C. A service call

D. A known error

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 46

When the cause of one or more incidents is not known, additional resources are assigned

to identify the cause. Which ITIL process is responsible for this?



C. Service Level Management


Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 47

Which ITIL process provides an insight, through the modeling activity, into trends that

could cause performance problems in the future?

A. Service Level Management


C. Capacity Management


Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 48

Which ITIL process is responsible for analyzing risks and counter measures?

A. Problem Management


C. ITService Continuity Management

D. Service Desk

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 49

Which of the following parties involved in an incident determines whether that incident

can be closed?

A. User

B. Purchaser of the services

C. Employee of the service Desk

D. Service Manager

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 50

What activity takes place immediately after recording and registering an incident?

A. Solving and restoring

B. Analysis and diagnosis

C. Matching

D. Classification

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 51

What is the use of additional technical expertise in the incident management process

called?

A. Resolution and recovery of the incident

B. Functional escalation

C. Problem analysis

D. Incident classification

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 52

What is the term used for a fully described and approved change that does not have to be

evaluated by Change Management each time?

A. Urgent Change

B. Service request

C. Request of change

D. Standard Change

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 53

TestKing.com plans on implementing a new network operating system. Before the actual

implementation takes place, the plan of approach for achieving the implementation is

discussed. Under whose leadership is this discussion held?

A. The Network Manager

B. The Change Manager

C. The Service Level Manager

D. The service Manager

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 54

Of which ITIL process are reliability, serviceability and maintainability components?


B. ITService Continuity Management



Answer: A

QESTION NO: 55

Which ITIL process aims to prevent incidents resulting from changes to the IT

infrastructure?

A. Incident Management



D. Change Management

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 56

Which of the following is a department rather than a process?


B. Problem Management

C. Service Desk

D. Change Management

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 57

Reports of different types arrive at a Service Desk. Which of the following reports is an

incident?

A. A request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package

B. A report that the printer is not working

C. Information about the departure time of the train to London

D. A question about where the manual is

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 58

Where is the planning of changes kept up to date?

A. The CMDB (Configuration Management Database)

B. SIP (Service Improvement Program)

C. The CAB (Change Advisory Board)

D. The FSC (Forward Schedule of Changes)

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 59

What is a baseline in the IT infrastructure?

A. The most important infrastructure (such as a network) to which all kinds of

workstations and services can be linked

B. A standard configuration (such as a standard workstation)

C. A document that states how the infrastructure must be dealt with in an organization

(vision)

D. A minimum value for TestKing.com service (must at least satisfy)

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 60

A process is a logically coherent series of activities for a pre-defined goal. What is the

process owner responsible for?

A. Implementing the process

B. Setting up the process

C. The result of the process

D. Describing the process

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 61

How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Server Level Management

process?

A. By reporting on all incidents


C. By checking contracts with suppliers

D. By defining server levels

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 62

Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive Software

Library?

A. Copies of all live software programs

B. Software awaiting user acceptance testing


D. Copies of all software versions that are needed

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 63

How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level Management

process?

A. By reporting on all incidents

B. By defining service levels

C. By checking contracts with suppliers

D. By measuring customer satisfaction

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 64

Which ITIL process ensures that the information that has been made available satisfies

the specified information security requirements?


B. IT service Continuity Management



Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 65

What is the first step when registering an incident?

A. Record the incident data

B. Determine the priority

C. Perform matching

D. Assign an incident number

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 66

Where are agreements regarding Security Management recorded?

A. In a Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

B. In a Capacity Plan

C. In a service Level Agreement (SLA)

D. In a Definitive Software Library (DSL)

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 67

What is the primary task of Error Control?

A. Providing information to the users

B. Checking problems and incidents

C. Classifying and defining the priorities of problems

D. Correcting known errors

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 68

Which ITIL process aims to trace business-critical services for which supplementary

emergency measures must be taken?

A. Problem Management

B. IT Service Continuously Management

C. Availability Management

D. Capacity Management

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 69

Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service?


B. Service Quality Plan (SQP)

C. Service Improvement Program (SIP)

D. Service Level Agreement (SLA)

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 70

Security Management includes a number of sub-processes. Which activity of security

management leads to a security sub-clause in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) ?

A. Control

B. Implement

C. Plan

D. Maintenance

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 71

What is the first activity when implementing a release?

A. Compiling the release schedule


C. Designing and building a release


Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 72

Which ITIL process is responsible for creating the cost agreements for extra support of

the service desk?


B. Financial Management for IT Services



Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 73

What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called?

A. Request for Release

B. Request for change

C. Service Request

D. Replacement request

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 74

Which ITIL process is responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors?

A. Security Management




Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 75

In Change Management, a number of activities take place between the acceptance of a

request for change and the completion of the change. Which activity is performed after

acceptance of a Request for Change?

A. Determining the urgency of the change

B. Scheduling the Request for change

C. Implementing the change

D. Building and testing the change

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 76

According to the Deming quality circle a number of steps must be performed repeatedly

in order to ensure good performance Which of the following answers specifies the correct

sequence for these steps?

A. ACT -check -Do -Plan

B. Plan -Do -Check -Act

C. Do -Plan -Check -Act

D. Check -Plan -Act -Do

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 77

What is meant by the urgency of an incident?

A. The time needed by IT services to resolve the incident

B. The degree to which the incident gives rise to a deviation from the normal service

level

C. The relative importance of the incidents when handling them

D. The degree two which the solution of an incident tolerates delay

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 78

Information and Communication Technologies (ICT) includes both Asset Management

And Configuration Management. What is the difference between Asset Management and

Configuration Management?

A. Asset Management monitors aspects such as depreciation and configuration

management monitors aspects such as the relationships between the configuration items

B. Configuration Management makes an inventory of the configuration items and asset

management registers them

C. Configuration Management is a component of Asset Management, so there are no

differences between item

D. Asset Management focuses exclusively on the book value and configuration

management on the status of configuration items

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 79

What is the criterion used by Change Management in determining the category for a

Request for change?

A. Urgency

B. Content

C. Impact

D. Priority

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 80

The deming quality circle is a model for control based on quality. Which step in this

model must be taken first?

A. Planning

B. Measurement

C. Adjustment

D. Implementation

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 81

In TestKing.com a specific component of the IT infrastructure has been modified. This

could have consequences for other components. What ITIL process should be set up in

order to provide good insight into these consequences?





Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 82

Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change

Management. What information is this?

A. RFCs from the users that problem management passes on to change management

B. RFCs resulting from known errors

C. Known errors from problem management, on the basis of which change management

can generate requests for Change (RFCs)

D. RFCs from the Service Desk That Problem Management passes on to Change

Management

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 83

Which aspects are described in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A. The technology developments that can affect the service offered

B. The quality expressed in quality and costs, of the services offered

C. The company strategy

D. The costs and expected revenue of the service offered

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 84

What does the term 'detail level' mean in the context of the configuration management

database (CMDB)?

A. The location of the configuration item

B. The relationship between the different configuration items

C. The quantity of the stored configuration items

D. The depth of the database structure

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 85

One of Problem Management's tasks is to proactively prevent incidents. Which of the

following is a Problem Management activity that can be categorized as being proactive?

A. Delivering second-line support, should problems occur

B. Employing more Problem Managers

C. Making agreements with the customer using Service Level Agreements

D. Analyzing reported incidents in order to mane recommendations

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 86


A. That the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently

B. That the organization around the IT services can be set up faster

C. That the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT Services

D. That it is finally possible to charge for IT services

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 87

Which activity is not the responsibility of IT service continuity Management?

A. Testing back-out arrangements

B. Analyzing risks

C. Drawing up back-out scenarios


Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 88

What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean?

A. Average downtime of a service

B. Average uptime of a service

C. Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period

D. Average time between two consecutive incidents

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 89

Which ITIL process carries out a risk analysis on the possible threats to and

vulnerabilities of the IT infrastructure?

A. IT service continuity management


C. Problem management

D. Configuration management

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 90

The Service Desk receives different types of calls. Which of the following is an incident ?

A. A request to install a new bookkeeping package

B. A notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer

C. Information about the rollout of a specific application

D. A system message that a printer is not working

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 91

Software is checked for viruses before it goes into the Definite Software Library (DSL).

What ITIL process is responsible for ensuring that only virus-free software is put into the

DSL?


B. Application Management

C. Release Management


Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 92

Release Management has distributed a defective Release. As a result, monthly invoicing

has come to a standstill. This has very radical consequences for the business and has been

reported as an incident. According to ITIL best practices, what should happen next?

A. Service Level Management will start a service improvement program (SIP)

B. Release Management will implement the back-out plan

C. Change Management will start a Post Implementation Review (PIR)

D. Problem Management will submit a Request for Change (RFC)

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 93

Which ITIL process is responsible for handling an application for a new workstation

according to a standard working method?


B. Service Desk



Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 94

Which activity in the ITIL process "Financial Management for IT services" is responsible

for billing the services that were provided to the customer?

A. Reporting

B. Accounting

C. Charging

D. Budgeting

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 95

The Capacity Manager asks the user of an application whether a certain activity can be

performed at night so that the CPU is not overloaded during the day. What part of the

capacity Management process does this refer to?


B. Modeling

C. Demand Management

D. Application Sizing

Answer: C

.

QUESTION NO: 1.

The successful diagnosis of a problem results in a Known Error. On the basis of this

Known Error a Request for Change may be raised.

When can the Known Error be closed?

A. When a review of the change has led to a satisfactory result.

B. When incidents related to the Known Error do not occur any more.

C. When the proposal for change is lodged with Change Management.

D. When the Request for Change is authorized by the Change Advisory Board.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2.

When an organization decides to control the flow of incident information within the

IT organization, which ITIL process would it be putting in place?





Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3.

When must a Post Implementation Review take place?

A. after every Change

B. at the request of the person who submitted the Change request

C. in case of emergency changes

D. if another incident of the same type occurs again after a Change has been made

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4.

Which activity is not the responsibility of IT Service Continuity Management?

A. analyzing risks

B. testing back-out arrangements

C. drawing up back-out scenarios

D. executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5.

Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by

maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?





Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6.

According to the Deming quality circle a number of steps must be performed

repeatedly in order to ensure good performance.

Which of the following answers specifies the correct sequence for these steps?

A. Act -Check -Do -Plan

B. Check -Plan -Act -Do

C. Do -Plan -Check -Act

D. Plan -Do -Check -Act

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 7.

The Deming quality circle is a model for control based on quality.

Which step in this model must be taken first?

A. adjustment

B. measurement

C. planning

D. implementation

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 8.

A process is a logically coherent series of activities for a pre-defined goal.

What is the process owner responsible for?

A. setting up the process

B. implementing the process

C. describing the process

D. the result of the process

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 9.

What is the difference between a process and a project?

A. A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a finite lifespan.

B. A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a finite lifespan.

C. A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project does not stop

when the objective is met.

D. In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the result is

important.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 10.

What is the basis of the ITIL approach to Service Management?

A. departments

B. IT resources

C. officials

D. interrelated activities

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 11.


A. that the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT services

B. that the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently

C. that the organization around the IT services can be set up faster

D. that it is finally possible to charge for IT services

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 12.

Which activity takes place immediately after recording and registering an incident?

A. analysis and diagnosis

B. classification

C. matching

D. solving and restoring

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 13.

In an organization, the purchasing department has relocated internally -not just the

people, but also their IT resources. A Service Desk employee has been commissioned

to relocate this department's workstations.

In which ITIL process is this employee now playing a role?




D. Configuration Management

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 14.

Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change

Management.

What information is this?

A. Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change Management

can generate Requests for Change (RFCs)


C. RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change Management

D. RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change

Management

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 15.

In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are taken,

for example using an emergency power provision.

Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of measure?





Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 16.

Which statement best describes the role of the Service Desk?

A. The Service Desk functions as the first contact for the customer.

B. The primary task of the Service Desk is to investigate problems.

C. The Service Desk ensures that the agreed IT service is available.

D. The Service Desk ensures that the telephone is always manned.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 17.

Which ITIL process or which ITIL department has responsibilities that include

distributing information to users?


B. Customer Relationship Management


D. Service Desk

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 18.

Which activity is not a Service Desk activity?

A. registering Incidents

B. solving a Problem

C. relating an incident to a Known Error

D. applying temporary fixes

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 19.

Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident?

A. Problem Manager

B. Problem Management staff

C. Service Desk

D. Service Level Manager

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 20.

The Service Desk receives different types of calls.

Which of the following is an incident?

A. information about the rollout of a specific application

B. a notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer

C. a system message that a printer is not working

D. a request to install a new bookkeeping package

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 21.

Which of the following is a department rather than a process?




D. Service Desk

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 22.

One of Problem Management's tasks is to proactively prevent incidents.

Which of the following is a Problem Management activity that can be categorized as

being proactive?

A. analyzing reported incidents in order to make recommendations

B. delivering second-line support, should problems occur

C. making agreements with the customer using Service Level Agreements

D. employing more Problem Managers

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 23.

One of the objectives of Problem Management is to minimize the impact of

problems on IT services.

Which activity needs to be carried out by Problem Management in order to achieve

this?

A. ensuring the availability of the IT infrastructure

B. giving second-line support when problems occur

C. maintaining relations with suppliers

D. managing Known Errors

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 24.

Which status is a problem assigned once its cause has been identified?

A. Incident

B. Known Error

C. Work-around

D. Request for Change (RFC)

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 25.

Which activity in the Problem Management process is responsible for generating

Requests for Change (RFCs)?

A. Problem Analysis

B. Error Control

C. Monitoring

D. Proactive Problem Management

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 26.

When the cause of one or more incidents is not known, additional resources are

assigned to identify the cause.Which ITIL process is responsible for this?





Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 27.

Which ITIL process provides change proposals in order to eliminate structural

errors?



C. Security Management


Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 28.

When is a Known Error identified?

A. When the cause of the problem is known.

B. When the incident has been sent to Problem Management.

C. When the problem is known.

D. When the problem has been resolved.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 29.

Which of the following tasks is part of proactive Problem Management?

A. making a change to resolve a problem

B. registering frequently occurring errors

C. analyzing trends

D. managing Known Errors

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 30.

Which ITIL process is responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors?





Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 31.

Which of the following is an example of proactive Problem Management?

A. a report regarding the Problem Management process

B. a trend analysis

C. an urgent change

D. a change request

Answer: B

Explanation:

1. 1. A customer-based Service Level Agreement structure includes:

A An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use

B SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in business

language

C An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that use

thatService

D An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the services

they use

D

2. 2. Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan?

1 Options

2 Management summary

3 Business workload forecasts

4 Backout plans

A 2, 3 and 4

B All of them

C 2 and 3 only

D 1, 2 and3

D

3. 3. An IT department is seeking to set its prices to match those of external

suppliers selling the same services. Which one of the following is the best

description of this approach?

A The going rate that is agreed with Customers

B Market rate

C Cost-plus

D Profitable

B

4. 4. Which of the following is not an element of Availability Management?

A. Verification

B. Security

C. Reliability

D. Maintainability

A

5. 5. The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should:

A Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to avoid

spending a lot of money

B Be as high level as possible

C Match the organisation’s requirement for information to be held

D Vary according to cost A

6. 6. To enable a new Service Desk management tool to be implemented, the

capacity of the servers has to be extended. Who is responsible for managing the

request for additional capacity?

A Service Level Manager

B Capacity Manager

C Change Manager

D Financial Manager C

7. 7. Which one of the following is NOT necessarily a direct benefit of

implementing a formal Incident Management process?

A Improved user satisfaction

B Incident volume reduction

C Elimination of lost incidents

D Less disruption to both IT support staff and users

B

8. 8. Configuration Management plans should be integrated with those of:

A Change & Release Management

B Service Level Management

C IT Service Financial & Continuity Management.

D Change & Capacity Management A

9. 9. Possible problems with Change Management include:

A Lack of ownership of impacted services

B Increased visibility and communication of changes

C Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs

D The ability to absorb a larger volume of change

A

10. 10. Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational

Management stage of the Continuity Management Life-cycle?

A Develop Procedures and Initial Testing

B Education and Awareness

C Review, Audit and Assurance

D Ongoing Training and Testing

A

11. 11. Which of the following are likely to be members of the CAB?

1 Problem Manager

2 Customer representatives

3 Change Manager

4 Senior IT technical managers

A 2 and 3 only

B All of them

C 1, 2 &4

D 1, 3 &4

B

12. 12. Consider the following activities:

1 The analysis of raw data

2 The identification of trends

3 The definition of Service Management processes

4 The implementation of preventive measures

Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service

Management software tool?

A 1, 2 & 4

B 2 & 3

C All of them

D None of them

A

13. 13. The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an

organisation resulting from disruption to critical business processes is:

A Root Cause Analysis

B Business Impact Analysis

C Service Outage Analysis

D Component Failure Impact Analysis

B

14. 14. Intermediate Recovery is initially concerned with which of the following

time periods?

A 4 to 24 hours

B More than 72 hours

C 24 to 72 hours

D 4 to 8 hours

C

15. 15. What is SOA within Availability Management?

A System Optimisation Approach

B Systematic Operational Adjustment

C Serviceability of Applications

D Service Outage Analysis

D

16. 16. Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best

defined?

A The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and components

operable

B The ability to restore services or components back to normal operation

C The percentage of the agreed service hours for which the service is available

D The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for parts

of the IT infrastructure

D

17. 17. Which one of the following statements is NOT FALSE?

A Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against tax

B Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value

C Cost centres are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)

D Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activity

D

18. 18. Which one of the following is NOT a major CI type?

A Documentation

B Software

C Purchase order

D Accommodation

C

19. 19. Where would the information relating to software release components be

stored?

A DSL

B CMDB

C AMDB

D CDB

B

20. 20. The following activities are involved in implementing a Service

Management function:

1 Tool selection

2 Tool specification

3 Process design

4 Functional requirements analysis

In which order should the above activities be taken?

A 4 2 1 3

B 4 3 2 1

C 2 1 4 3

D 2 1 3 4

B

21. 21. Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level

Management?

A To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business

requirements

B To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with

Customers their minimum requirements for service availability and ensuring

performance does not exceed these targets.

C To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and

continuouslyimprove on this through ensuring all services operate at maximum

availability.

D To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost A

22. 22. The process to implement SLAs comprises of the following activities in

sequence:

A Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review underpinning contracts and OLAs,

draft SLRs, negotiate, agree SLAs

B Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue

services,

C Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services,

negotiate, agree SLAs

D Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and

OLAs,negotiate service levels, agree SLAs

D

23. 23. Which of the following statements is true?

A An urgent release is always a delta release

B A full release may contain package and delta releases

C package release may contain full and delta releases

D A full release may contain several delta releases

C

24. 24. Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?

A To reduce costs and performance levels to a minimum

B To ensure that there is always sufficient capacity available to meet all

customerdemands

C To ensure that business demands are affordable and achievable

D To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels

D

25. 25. A remote site has recently had its network upgraded. The users are now

complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems with

capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?

A Network Management

B The Service Desk

C Capacity Management

D Problem Management B

26. 26. Consider the following:

1 Incident diagnostic scripts

2 A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents

3 A Configuration Management Database covering the infrastructure supported

4 A Forward Schedule of Change

Which of the above should be available to the Service Desk?

A All four

B 1&2

C 3&4

D 1, 2 &3

A

27. 27. Which of these is NOT a recognised Service Desk structure?

A Remedial Service Desk

B Virtual Service Desk

C Local Service Desk

D Central Service Desk

A

28. 28. The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:

A Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals

B A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be

understood by everyone

C Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity.

D Legally worded as they must be contractually binding

C

29. 29. Consider the following list:

1 Modelling

2 Risk Analysis

3 Application Sizing

4 DSL maintenance

Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity

Management?

A 1 & 2

B 1 & 3

C 3 & 4

D 2 & 4

B

30. 30. At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem?

A When it is urgent

B When it is a Major Incident

C If the person reporting the incident is very senior

D Never D

31. 31. There are strong links between Service Level Management and:

1 Incident Management

2 Availability Management

3 Configuration Management

4 IT Service Continuity Management

5 Change Management

A 1, 3 & 5

B 2 & 4

C 2, 3 & 5

D All of them

D

32. 32. Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident

Management process in place?

A Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there

is noreliable information available

B No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little

importance to proactive Problem Management

C No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems

D Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate

Incident Management information

C

33. 33. The scope of a Release can best be defined by:

A The RFCs that it satisfies

B The number of updates to the OHS

C Service Level metrics

D The DSL configuration

A

34. 34. For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?

A Chairing the CAB

B Establishing the root cause of a Capacity Incident which has led to an RFC

beingraised

C Devising the backout plan for a significant Change

D Ensuring a Release has reached the target CIs

A

35. 35. The Service Desk can act as the focal point for:

1 Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users

2 Recording Change Requests from users

3 Handling complaints and queries

A 1 Only

B 2 Only

C 1 & 3

D 1, 2 & 3

C

36. 36. Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and

depth of the information to be held in a CMDB?

A You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of

CIs

B You shouldn’t collect detailed information about CIs that are not under

Change Control

C You shouldn’t worry too much about Change Control; the main objective is

to get the database loaded

D You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff

B

37. 37. Within a CMDB, which relationships are most likely to exist between

Incidents and Problems?

1 One Incident to one Problem

2 One Incident to many Problems

3 Many Incidents to one Problem

A 1 & 2only

B 2 & 3 only

C 1 & 3 only

D All of them

C

38. 38. Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value

added by Problem Management to the Service Desk?

A The number of Problems raised

B The number of Known Errors identified

C The number of Problems correctly categorised

D The number of RFCs raised

B

39. 39. Which of these is a DIRECT benefit of having a Service Desk?

A Customer Service Level Requirements are established

B Changes taking place are properly coordinated

C All the information in the CMDB is kept up to date.

D Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with user’s

calls

D

40. 40. An ‘unabsorbed’ cost is best described as:

A A capital cost

B A type of charging policy

C An uplift to allocated costs

D A revenue stream

C

41. 1. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?

a) An Operations Lifecycle

b) An IT Management Lifecycle

c) A Service Lifecycle

d) An Infrastructure Lifecycle

C

42. 2. Which aspect of Service Design is missing from the list below?

1. The design of services

2. The design of Service Management systems and tools

3. The design of technology architecture and management systems

4. The design of the processes required

5. ?

a) The design of Functions

b) The design of Service Level Agreements

c) The design of applications

d) The design of measurement systems, methods and metrics

D

43. 3. Which of the following Roles is responsible for identifying opportunities for

improvement?

1. Service Owner

2. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Manager

3. Process Owner

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) All of the above

d) 2 and 3 only

C

44. 4. Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the following

elements of the Service Lifecycle?

a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and

Continual Service Improvement

b) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation

c) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement

d) Continual Service Improvement D

45. 5. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to carrying out

Service Operations?

a) The internal IT view is most important as Service Operations has to monitor

and manage the infrastructure

b) Service Operations should maintain a balance between an internal IT view

and an external business view

c) The external business view is most important as Service Operations is the

place where value is realized and the customer obtains the benefit of the

services

d) IT Operations does not take an internal or external view as they execute

processes defined by Service Design

B

46. 6. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are CORRECT?

1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication

between IT and its users for all operational issues

2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process

a) 2 only

b) 1 only

c) All of the above


D

47. 7. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in creating value?

a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production

management

b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services

c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support

d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery

B

48. 8. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of the

following?

1. Service Portfolio Management

2. Demand Management

3. Financial Management

a) Service Operations

b) Service Strategy

c) Service Transition

d) Continual Service Improvement B

49. 9. Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of

Communication during Service Operation?

a) Communication is defined as part of all processes and is executed in Service

Operation

b) Communication is a separate process that needs to be defined and executed

with Service Operation

c) Good communication is essential for successful Service Operation, just as it

is for any other phase of the Lifecycle

d) Communication is more important in Service Operation than in any other

stage of the Service Lifecycle

C

50. 10. A Process owner is responsible for which of the following?

a) Purchasing tools to support the Process

b) Ensuring that targets specified in an SLA are met

c) Carrying out activities defined in the Process

d) Monitoring and improving the Process

D

51. 11. Demand Management is primarily used to?

a) Increase customer value

b) Eliminate excess capacity needs

c) Increase the value of IT

d) Align business with IT cost B

52. 12. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of organizing Continual

Service Improvement (CSI) using the RACI model?

a) Facilitates clear communication and workflow practice across all parties

involved in the CSI program

b) Clarifies the roles and responsibilities of individual in the CSI program

which could otherwise be overlapping and confusing

c) Identifies where internal Service Level Agreements (SLAs) can be

established to implement CSI

d) Provides a clear focus for matching the CSI processes to financial planning

D

53. 13. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment

Management process?

1. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans

2. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and support

staff

3. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services

4. To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the

business

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) All of the above

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

A

54. 14. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service Portfolio

Management?

a) How should our resources and capabilities be allocated?

b) What opportunities are there in the market?

c) Why should a customer buy these services?

d) What are the pricing or chargeback models?

B

55. 15. Which of the following statements are NOT included in Access

Management?

1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services

2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users

3. Defining security policies for system access

4. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to

a) 3 and 4 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 2 only

A

56. 16. Application Management is NOT responsible for?

a) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and

support Applications

b) Managing applications through their lifecycle

c) Assisting in the decision to build or buy new software

d) Developing operational functionality required by the busine

D

57. 17. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented within

which of the following?

a) The Glossary of Terms

b) A Service Level Agreement

c) An Incident Management record

d) A Configuration Item (CI) B

58. 18. What is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Process?

a) Dealing with Service Requests from the users

b) Making sure all requests within an IT Organization is fulfilled

c) Ensuring fulfillment of Change Requests

d) Making sure the Service Level Agreement is met A

59. 19. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the

Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?

1. Data mining and workflow tools

2. Measurement and reporting systems

3. Release and Deployment technology

4. Process Design

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) All of the above

A

60. 20. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about ‘good practice’?

a) It can be used to drive an organization forward

b) It is something that is in wide industry use

c) It is always documented in international standards

d) It is always based on ITIL

B

61. 21. Consider the following statements:

1. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger

2. A characteristic of the “Process” is that it is performance driven and able to

be measured.


a) 1 only

b) All of the above

c) None of the above

d) 2 only

B

62. 22. “Warranty of a service” means which of the following?

a) The service is fit for purpose

b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with

the service

c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of

time

d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity

and security

D

63. 23. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is most

accurately described as?

a) To understand the performance characteristics of assets and Configuration

Items (CIs) in order to maximize their contribution to service levels

b) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective

c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they were

designed to achieve

d) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure and

maintain accurate configuration records

D

64. 24. A Service Catalogue should contain which of the following?

a) The version information of all software

b) The organizational structure of the company

c) Asset information

d) Details of all operational services

D

65. 25. Facilities Management refers to?

a) The Management of IT services that are viewed as “utilities”, such as

printers or network access

b) The Management of an outsourcing contract

c) The Management of the physical IT environment, such as a Data Center

d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations

staff to maintain the infrastructure

C

66. 26. When planning and implementing a Continual Service Improvement (CSI)

initiative, which of the following benefits is LEAST useful in supporting a

business case?

a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate capacity and

performance modeling processes

b) Reduce support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident and

problem management processes

c) Improve employee morale and therefore create better relationships between

IT and business units

d) Reduce Problem resolution by 50% and minimize critical system outages

C

67. 27. Which of the following would NOT be stored in the Definitive Media

Library (DML)?

a) Master copies of software

b) Backups of application data

c) Software licenses

d) Master copies of controlled documentation

B

68. 28. The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately

described as?

a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and implemented in

a controlled manner

b) Ensuring that changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and

effectively

c) Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of

failure

d) Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made

A

69. 29. Functions are best described as?

a) Without their own body of knowledge

b) Closed loop systems

c) Self-Contained units of organizations

d) Focusing on transformation to a goal C

70. 30. What is the best definition of an Incident Model?

a) The template used to define the Incident logging form used to report

Incidents

b) A type of Incident involving a standard (or model) type of Configuration

Item (CI)

c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of

Incident

d) An Incident that is easy to solve

C

71. 31. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and

Outsourcing delivery model options?

a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on external

organization(s) resources

b) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies on

internal resources

c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships

d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on

application service provisioning

A

72. 32. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve

services?

a) To validate, direct, justify and intervene

b) To validate, measure, monitor and change

c) To validate, plan, act and improve

d) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people

A

73. 33. A benefit of using Service Design tools is?

a) To help ensure that standards and conventions are followed

b) To help ensure that events are detected as quickly as possible

c) To help enable different applications to work together

d) To help implement architectures that support the business strategy

A

74. 34. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Four P’s of

Service Design?

a) A four step process for the design of effective Service Management

b) A definition of the people and products required for successful design

c) A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing design specifications

d) The four major areas that need to be considered in the design of effective

Service Management D


1. Service Transition provides guidance on moving new and changed services

into production

2. Service Transition provides guidance on testing

3. Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an

external service provider


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 only

c) All of the above

d) 1 and 3 only

C

76. 36. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI)

model?

a) Assess the current business situation

b) Understand high-level business requirements

c) Agree on priorities for improvement

d) Create and verify a plan

B

77. 37. An Incident occurs when:

1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours

2. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service

hours

3. A redundant network segment fails, and the user is not aware of any

disruption to service

4. A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an application


a) All of the above

b) 1 and 4 only

c) 2 and 3 only


A

78. 38. Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular

basis?

a) Supplier Management

b) Service Level Management

c) Service Portfolio Management

d) Contract Management B

79. 39. The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be described as?

a) The Seven P’s of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)

b) A service improvement methodology based on the Deming Cycle

c) A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvements

d) A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the data, processing

the data and using it to take corrective action

D

80. 40. The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of

people?

a) Senior business managers and all IT staff

b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Manager

c) All customers, users and IT staff

d) Information Security Management staff only

C

81. 1. Which of the following best means Combination of Internal & External

Sourcing?

A. Internal Sourcing-.

B. External Sourcing

C. Co-Sourcing

D. Managed Services

C

82. 2. Major Incidents require?

A. Separate procedures

B. Less urgency

C. Longer timescales

D. Less documentation

A

83. 3. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

A. Knowledge

B. Information

C. Wisdom

D. Data

C

84. 4. The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a

number of errors. The Development department has corrected these errors in a

new version. Which process is responsible for ensuring this updated version is

tested?




D. Release Management D

85. 5. The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle can be used to plan and implement Service

Management Processes: How many times should each stage of the cycle be

visited?

A. There should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should be

carried out multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement

B. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act

C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to Implement Continual

Improvement

D. There should be a single %n. then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be

repeated multiple times to Implement Continual improvement B


1. “Processes” should be implemented in such a way that the “Role” and

“Function” in an organization are defined

2. The RACI model Is beneficial to design Function”


A. 1 Only

B. Both of the above

C. Neither of the above

D. 2 only

D

87. 7. Which of the following is the process rather than a department?


B. Operations Management

C. Service Desk

D. Availability Management D

88. 8. Which of the following statements fully describes the aim of Release and

Deployment Management?

A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by

Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders’ requirements and

deliver the Intended objectives

B. To ensure that each release package specified by Service Design consists of

a set of related assets and service components that are compatible with each

other

C. To ensure that all release and deployment packages can be tracked, installed,

tested, verified, and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate

D. To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to the new or

changed service

A

89. 9. Which of the following may be defined in a process?

1. Roles

2. Activities

3. Functions

4. Guidelines

5. Standards

6. Governance Framework

A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

B. All of the above

C. 1. 2, 5 and 6 only

D. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only

D

90. 10. A Service Provider is?

A. An organization supplying services to one or more external customers

B. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers or

external customers

C. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers

D. An organization supplying IT services

B

91. 11. Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services

by maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?





C

92. 12. The Design Manager is responsible for the overall coordination and

deployment of quality solution designs for services and processes. Which of the

following are NOT responsibilities included in this role?

A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages

B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services,

technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the

agreed current and future IT requirements of the organization

C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the

Service Design process and the service designs that are produced

D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the Service Design and

supporting processes

B

93. 13. Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability

components?


B. Service Level Management


D. Availability Management B

94. 14. Which of the following statements is true about Access Management?

A. The Process responsible for allowing Users to make use of IT Services, data,

or other Assets.

B. Access Management helps to protect the Confidentiality, Integrity and

Availability of Assets by ensuring that only authorized Users are able to access

or modify the Assets.

C. Access Management is sometimes referred to as Rights Management or

Identity Management.

D. All of above

D

95. 15. What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report

designed for the customer?

A. The average utilization level of the Service Desk

B. The level of availability realized and the time not available per period

C. The percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target

D. The successful and reverted Changes during a specific period

D

96. 16. Availability Management is responsible for availability of?

A. Services and Resources

B. Services and Business Processes

C. Resources and Business Processes

D. Services, Resources and Business Processes

A

97. 17. What is the difference between a process and a project?

A. A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a finite

lifespan.

B. A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a finite

lifespan.

C. A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project

does not stop when the objective is met.

D. In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the result is

important A

98. 18. Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service

improvement (CSI) Model?

A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate

the Solution; continually improve

B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we

arrived; How do we keep the momentum going?

C. identifies the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the

outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented;

improve the solution

D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do

we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

D

99. 19. What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?

A. The degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered

B. The degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer

C. The degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by

maintenance contracts

D. The degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement

(SLA) are complied with

C

100. 20. A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk

representative determines that the PC is defective and indicates that according

to the services catalogue, the PC will be replaced within three hours. Which

ITIL process is responsible for having this user’s PC replaced within three

hours?




D. Service Level Management B

101. 21. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error

Data Base (KEDB)

B. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS

C. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS

D. The CMS is partof the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

C

102. 22. Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management

and Change Management. What information is this?

A. Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change

Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs)


C. RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change

Management

D. RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change

Management B

103. 23. Which form of outsourcing provides domain based business

expertise?

A. Application Service Provision

B. Business Process Outsourcing

C. Knowledge Process Outsourcing

D. Co-Sourcing

C

104. 24. Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT

service?


B. Service Improvement Program

C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D. Service Quality Plan (SQP) B

105. 25. Changes are divided into categories. What criterion defines a

category for a change?

A. The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial, significant, etc.

B. The speed with which the change is made

C. The sequence in which the change is made


A

106. 26. In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary

measures are taken, for example using an emergency power provision. Which

of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of measure?




D. Incident Management A

107. 27. What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure

called?

A. Replacement Request

B. Request for Change

C. Request for Release

D. Service Request B

108. 28. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the

duration of an interruption of a Configuration Item?

A. Availability Manager

B. Incident Manager

C. Problem Manager

D. Service Level Manager A

109. 29. Which of the following steps from the continual improvement Model

is missing?

1. What Is the vision?

2. Where are we now?

3. Where do we want to be?

4. How do we get there?

5. Did we get there?

6.?

A. What is the ROI

B. How much did it cost.

C. How do we keep the momentum going.

D. What is the VOI?

C

110. 30. Which of the following best describes the goal of Information

Security Management Process?

A. To align IT security with business security and ensure that information

security is effectively managed in all service and Service Management

activities’.

B. To ensure that that the information security risks are appropriately managed

and enterprise information resources are used responsibly.

C. To provide a focus for all aspects of IT security and manage all IT security

activities.

D. To provide the strategic direction for security activities and ensures

objectives are achieved

A

111. 31. Which of the following statements about Supplier and Contract

Database (SCD) are correct?

1. A database or structured Document used to manage Supplier Contracts

throughout their Lifecycle.

2. The SCD contains key Attributes of all Contracts with Suppliers

3. Its never part of the Service Knowledge Management System.

4. Maintaining it is responsibility of Supplier management process

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1, 2 & 3

C. 1, 2 & 4

D. All of above

C

112. 32. Which of the following will complete the Four P’s of Service

Design?

1. Perspectives

2. Positioning

3. Plan

4. ???

A. People

B. Product

C. Patterns

D. Partners

C

113. 33. What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean?


B. Average downtime of a service

C. Average time between two consecutive incidents

D. Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period

B

114. 34. Which of the following statements is true about the term Event?

A. A change of state which has significance for the management of a

Configuration Item or IT service.

B. The term Event is also used to mean an Alert or notification created by any

IT Service, configuration Item or Monitoring tool.

C. Events typically require IT Operations personnel to take actions, and often

lead to Incidents being logged

D. All of above

D

115. 35. Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the

Definitive Media Library (DML)?

A. Copies of all software versions that are needed

B. Copies of all live software programs


D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing

C

116. 36. Application Portfolio

1. A database or structured Document used to manage Applications throughout

their Lifecycle.

2. The Application Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications.

3. The Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented as part of the Service

Portfolio, or as part of the Configuration Management System.

Which of the above statements is correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 & 3only

C. All of above

D. 1 & 2 only

C

117. 37. Which of the following best describes Fault Tolerance?

A. The ability of an IT Service or Configuration Item to continue to operate

correctly after Failure of a Component part.

B. The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their contract. Often

this contract will include agreed levels of availability, reliability and/or

maintainability for a supporting service or component.

C. A measure of how quickly and effectively a service, component or CI can be

restored to normal working after a failure.

D. A measure of how long a service, component or CI can perform its agreed

function without interruption

A

118. 38. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Capacity

Plan?

A. Capacity Forecasts

B. Recommendations

C. Components and resource forecasts

D. Countermeasures for risks

D

119. 39. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service

Level Management process?

A. By checking contracts with suppliers


C. By defining service levels

D. By reporting on all incidents

B

120. 40. What is the first activity when implementing a release?

A. Designing and building a release


C. Compiling the release schedule


C

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