Subject: Computer Systems and Applications Sample questions VI TYBCOM... · Page 1 of 7 Subject: Computer Systems and Applications Sem : VI Sample questions 1. 15-August-2020 was

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Subject: Computer Systems and Applications

Sem : VI

Sample questions

1. 15-August-2020 was Saturday. Answer of =WEEKDAY(“15-August-2020”) will be .

(a) Saturday (b) Sat (c) 7 (d) 6

2. Answer of =YEAR(“15-Aug-20”) will be ________.

(a) 20 (b) 2020 (c) 1920 (d) 2200

3. To find number of characters in a string we use

(a) COUNT( ) (b) LEN( ) (c) LENGTH( ) (d) SUM( )

4. To search a value in the leftmost column of a given range, we use .

(a) VLOOKUP( ) (b) HLOOKUP( ) (c) SEARCH( ) (d) LOCATE( )

5. Charts are available under Ribbon/Menu.

(a) Home (b) Insert (c) Data (d) View

6. Select odd man out from the following graph types.

(a) Line (b) Bar (c) Column (d) Pie

7. Which of the following is not a valid chart type in Excel.

(a) Line (b) Bar (c) Pie (d) Graph

8. Chart title can be added using corresponding command in _______________option of

Chart Tools in Excel.

(a) View (b) Design (c) Layout (d) Format

9. _________ chart is used to represent changes in a single variable.

(a) Line (b) Bar (c) Column (d) Pie

10. Number of changing cells for a Scenario is limited to

(a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 1 (d) 2

11. Number of changing cells for a Goal Seek is limited to

(a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 1 (d) 2

12. Solver Option is available under Ribbon/Menu.

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(a) Developer (b) Data (c) Insert (d) Home

13. Record Macro option is available under Ribbon/Menu.

(a) Developer (b) Data (c) Insert (d) Home

14. If cells A1 to A5 contain 87 , 65, 45, 30, 73 respectively then =COUNTIF( A1:A5 , “<50”)

will give _____.

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

15. If cells A1 to A5 contain 87 , 65, 45, 30, 73 respectively then =SUMIF( A1:A5 , “<50”)

will give _____.

(a) 87 (b) 30 (c) 45 (d) 75

16. If cell A5 contain 65 then =IF( A5 >50 , A5+5, A5-5) will give _____.

(a) 50 (b) 55 (c) 45 (d) 75

17. Result of logical formula is _____.

(a) Text value (b) True or False (c) Number (d) Remark

18. A template has the file name extension ___________.

(a) .xltx (b) .xlsx (c) .xlsm (d) .xtxt

19. When referring to a cell in another worksheet in same workbook, the sheet reference is

___________.

(a) absolute (b) relative (c) mixed (d) combined

20. Logical function NOT returns the value FALSE if it’s argument is ___________.

(a) FALSE (b) TRUE (c) POSITIVE (d) NEGATIVE

21 ________ revenue is earned by executing a transaction.

(a) Sales (b) Transaction fee (c) Advertising (d) none of these

22 When encryption and decryption is done using different keys it is called as

(a) Symmetric (b) substitution (c) asymmetric (d) none of these

23 In SSL _________ key is used for encryption

(a) Public (b) Private (c) Session (d) none of these

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24 E-Tailer revenue model is revenue

(a) Sales (b) Subscription (c) P2P (d) Advertising

25. Converting cipher text to readable text is called as

(a) symmetric conversion (b) encryption (c) decryption (d) none of these

26 Protocol used in M-Commerce is

(a) SET (b) WML (c) WAP (d) http

27 ________ is a best example of Online Stored Value System.

(a) Google (b) Yahoo (c) PayPal (d) None of these

28 Caption holds the text to be displayed next to the

(a) Tool box b) Check box (c) Text box (d) All of these.

29 Tool box is used to place controls in the (a) frame (b) form (c) Properties window (d) All of these.

30 To run a VB program, the function key used is

(a) F6 (b) F3 (c) F2 (d) F4

31 Error that occur in syntax spelling and punctuation is called

(a) Run-Time error (b) compilation error (c) logical error (d) all of these

32 Every project in VB with include at least

(a) Two forms (b) one form (c) No forms (d) More than two forms

33 DIM is used in VB to declare a

(a) Variable (b) numeric constant (c) string constant (d) all of them

34 For comparison in VB the operators used are

(a) logical operators (b) relational operators

(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of (a) and (b)

35 Bit Torrent.Com is an example of

(a) B2B (b) B2C (c) C2C (d) P2P

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36 The sub routine procedure in VB ends with

(a) End Sub (b) End (c) Exit (d) all of these

37 A computer to computer exchange of business transaction is called

(a) E- Business (b) Super Market (c) EDI (d) E- Market

38 The full form of VBP is

(a) Visual Binary Project (b) Visual Basic Project

(c) Virtual Basic Project (d) Visual Basic Parameters

39 In Public key encryption __________ key is used for Encryption

(a) Sender’s Public (b) Sender’s Private

(c) Receiver’s Public (d) Receiver’s Privates

40 When the message and data is available only to those who are authorized to view them It is known as

(a) Privacy (b) Authority (c) Confidentiality (d) Integrity

41 _________ is the virtual representation of physical market

(a) EDI (b) Electronic market (c) E – commerce (d) Internet Commerce

42 The technology behind M –commerce is based on

(a) WAN (b) WAP (c) HTTPS (d) POP

43 SET is developed by association led by

(a) Master Card and Visa (b) Master Card (c) Visa (d) Rupay

44 Paypal is an example of

(a) Digital Cash (b) online Stored Value

(c) Credit card (d) none of these.

45 Normally in M-commerce language used create web pages is

(a) HTML (b) WML (c) VB (d) XML

46 ________ can read the cipher text.

(a) Receiver (b) Sender (c) Anyone (d) no one

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47 Olx.com is an example of _________

(a) B2B (b) B2C (c) C2C (d) P2P

48 Flipkart is an example of __________

(a) B2B (b) B2C (c) C2C (d) P2P

49 In _________ encryption is performed with session key.

(a) SSL (b) Public Key (c) Private key (d) SET

50 To handle the credit card on transections on internet ________ is developed by Visa and Master card

(a) SSL (b) SET (c) SAT (d) None of these

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1. Product---------------is the primary function of the exporter. (a) Planning (b) Development (c) Marketing (d) Packaging

2. _______________gives an identity to the exporter and its brands sold in foreign markets. (a) Branding (b) Marking (c) Labeling (d) Packaging

3. _____________ among the following is not an element of branding. (a) Brand name (b) Logo (c) Brand color (d) Country of origin mark

4. Export quotation is_______________ (a) an offer made by importer to exporter in reply to exporter’s query (b) commercial invoice (c) an offer made by exporter to importer in reply to importer’s query (d) Importer’s Bill

5. EU requires labeling requirement in________ language/s. (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four

6. _____________ refers to symbols printed on export packages. (a) Marking (b) Packaging (c) Branding (d) Designing

MCQ SAMPLES – T. Y. B.COM EXPORT MARKETING

SEMESTER VI

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7. Product promotion in export business is mainly done through ________. (a) Advertising (b) Publicity (c) Salesmanship (d) Participation in trade-fairs and exhibitions

8. Product price is not directly affected by________ . (a) Costs (b) Product nature (c) Competitor’s prices (d) Quota restrictions

9. High value products use _____________exporting channel. (a) Direct (b) Indirect (c) Intermediary (d) Medium

10. ------------------------------ risk occurs on account of insolvency of buyers. (a) Political (b) Commercial (c) Cargo (d) Legal 11. ……………………………………. is a paid form of non-personal presentation of export

goods by the exporter. (a) Packaging (b) Publicity (c) Advertising (d) Sales Promotion

12. ……………………. is a group of exporters who form trading association for mutual distribution benefits.

(a) Canalizing agency (b) Consortium (c) State Corporation (d) Manufacturing exporters

13. Covers financial risks in export business.

(a) Insurance (b) Transportation (c) Communication (d) Warehousing

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14. ………………………………is a promotion element that uses short term tactic to persuade the importers to make purchases.

(a) Trade fairs and exhibitions (b) Sponsorships (c) Sales-promotion (d) Salesmanship

15. …………………………… refers to the amount of space available for storing materials on a ship or on a plane.

(a) Storage (b) Logistics (c) Stowage (d) None of the above

16. Formula : FOB Price = (a) FOB Cost + Profit – DBK (b) All the expenses until goods loaded on ship + Freight + Profit –

Incentive (c) All the costs until goods loaded on board the ship + Freight +

Insurance – Incentive (d) FOB Expenses + Customs @ port of destination – DBK

17. The main objective of export pricing is----------------------- (a) Maximizing the profits (b) Applying for Government incentives (c) Ease in documentation (d) Facilitates distribution

18. Packaging helps in-------------------------------------- (a) Protection against damages

(b) Preservation of quality (c) Promotion of product (d) All of the above 19. Under CIF quotation, which among the following is not a responsibility of the exporter?

(a) Expenses upto goods loaded on board the ship (b) Marine Insurance (c) Customs at port of Destination (d) Freight Expenses

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20. Product mix is__________ . (a) a specific category of product line (b) a range of companies’ offerings (c) a part of product depth (d) a restricted line of companies’ offerings

20. ………………………… is an example of consumer oriented sales promotion technique.

(a) Free Sample (b) Trade Discounts (c) Performance Incentives (d) None of the above

21. _______ LC cannot be modified or cancelled without the consent of the exporter. (a) Revocable (b) Irrevocable

(c) Stand-by (d) Back-to-back 21. Let export order is received from the Customs___________ .

(a) Preventive Officer (b) Examiner (c) Superintendent (d) Custom officer

22. The CHA has to obtain from the Port Trust Authorities. (a) Commercial invoice (b) Let Export order (c) Let Ship order (d) Carting order

23. ________ is an important document required for realization of export proceeds. (a) GR Form (b) ARE-1 Form (c) Shipping Bill (d) Packing List

24. The export proceeds realization in India should take place within days. (a) 91 (b) 201 (c) 360 (d) 421

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25. IDBI provides . (a) Pre-shipment finance (b) Post-shipment finance (c) Financing bank schemes (d) All of the above 27. Under_____ method, the documents are released to the importer against

payment of bills. (a) Documents against Acceptance (b) Letter of Credit (c) Documents against Payment

d. None of the above

28. Commercial risks include . (a) risks due to war (b) insolvency of the buyer (c) risks due cancellation of import licence (d)

29. A major part of export finance is provided by banks. (a) Commercial (b) Agricultural (c) Industrial (d) Co-operative 30. ECGC is owned and governed by .

(a) Government of India (b) Cooperatives (c) Traders (d) Corporation

31…………………… is a negotiable instrument that provides payment to the exporter. (a) Bills of exchange (b) Bills of shipping (c) Bills of invoice (d) Bills in trade

32. ……………………… is the safest method of payment in international trade. (a) Documents against Acceptance (b) Deferred credit (c) Letter of credit (d) None of the above

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33. ………………………. provides medium term and long term export finance to small units.

(a) EXIM Bank (b) SIDBI (c) ECGC (d) None of the above

34. The main purpose of packing credit is to meet capital needs of exporters. (a) Fixed (b) Working (c) Regular (d) Interim 35. .…………………………… provides finance to entrepreneurs for setting up tourism related activities.

(a) SIDBI (b) ECGC (c) EPCG (d) EPC

36. There are high risks in______ payment method. (a) Advance payment (b) LC (c) Open account (d) Bills of exchange 37. Finance is also referred to as packing credit. (a) Pre-shipment (b) Post-shipment (c) Long-term (d) None of the above 38. Participation in helps in demonstrating the product to the prospective customers.

(a) Sports Events (b) Trade Fairs (c) Dramas (d) None of the above

39 …………………………. characteristics influence the choice of distribution channels in

export marketing.

(a) Customer (b) Global (c) Employee Morale

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(d) None of the above 40. ________ distribution channel reduces per unit cost of the product in export

business. (a) Direct (b) Indirect

(c) Variance distribution (d) Channel distribution

41. -------------------------------insurance is covered by Marine Insurance Act, 1963. (a) Marine (b) Life (c) Medical (d) Health

42. Participation in helps in demonstrating the product to the prospective customers. a. Sports Events b. Trade Fairs c. Exhibitions d. None of the above

43 ………………………………finances Indian joint ventures in foreign countries. a. EXIM (b) NABARD (c) SIDBI (d) ECGC

44 LC cannot be modified or cancelled without the consent of the

exporter. a. Revocable (b) Irrevocable (c) Stand-by (d) Back-to-back

45 Packing credit is generally provided for a period of days. (a) 90 (b) 180 (c) 380 (d). None of the above

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46. Which among the following is not a type of Letter of Credit ? a. Advance payment b) Revocable c) Confirmed d) Transferable LC

47. Generally, there are parties involved in letter of credit.

(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 2

( d) None of the above 48. ISO 9000 is a ………………………. standard . a. Quality b. ISI c. Six-sigma d. None of the above 49. Bill of lading is issued by company. a) Transport

(b) Shipping (c) Warehousing (d) Outsourcing

50. ----------------------refers to export trade for which export proceeds are received in form of other products in exchange of forex. a. Countertrade (b) Entrepot (c) Position trade (d) Swing trade

ALL THE VERY BEST

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Financial accounting

FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR SEM VI SR.NO. QUESTION A B C D

1

……. Is known as the exchange rate at the balance

sheet date Average rate Closing rate Opening rate none of the above

2

A company may be wound up by NCLT when _____

resolution is passed.Special Ordinary The State Government None of the above

3

According to AS 14, Transfree Company means the

Company

into which a Company

is amalgamated which is newly formed

which is amalgamated

into another company none of the above

4 Accounting for amalgamation is governed by AS 13 AS 14 AS 1 AS 11

5 Amalgamation includes _____ reconstruction. internal firms and company external Amalgamation of firms

6

Amount of Govt. dues that arose within 12 months

before the date of winding up is treated as Preferential creditor Unsecured creditor

Over-riding preferential

creditor Secured creditor

7

As per AS–11 the exchange difference arising on date

of settlement of monetary item should be _____ in

the period to which it relate.

accounted Debtors Account Trading Account Creditors a/c

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7 the period to which it relate.

8 AS–14 covers only amalgamation of _____. companies firms firms and company LLP

9 Balance in bank a/c is a _____ _____. Current liablity monetory item Non-monetary item Long term liability

10

Currency other than the reporting currency of an

enterprise Foreign Currency Indian Rupees U.S. Dollars GB Pounds

11 Deficiency or surplus A/c is given in list _____. B H C None of the above

12

Dissolution expenses paid by purchasing company are

debited to _____ in merger.

Preference

Shareholders AccountProfit & Loss Account G.R. A/c Equity share holders a/c

13

Every limited liability partnership should have at least

…. Number of the designated partners who are

resident in India. one two three seven

14 Exchange loss on import purchase is debited to P&L a/c Purchases Creditor a/c Bank a/c

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15Fixed assets, inventories are the examples of ___ non-monetary items monetary items liquid assets current assets

16 Following can become a partner in the LLP

Individuals resident

outside India

Company incorporated

in India

LLP incorporated

outside India any of the above

17 Following is not an example of a non monetary item Cash Receivables Fixed assets none of the above

18

Following is treated as over-riding preferential

creditor

Retirement benefits of

employees

Retirement benefits to

workers

Salary due to

employees exceeding `

20,000

Remuneration to

investigator

19Foreign currency is a currency _____.

used in recording

foreign transactions

in presenting foreign

financial statements

other than the

reporting currencyany currency

20

Foreign currency is the currency other than the _____

currency of a firm.settlement reporting monetary Indian

21 Government dues are _____ creditors. Secured Contributory Preference creditors None of the above

22

If the business of an existing company S Limited is

taken over by an existing company T Limited, it is

called internal reconstruction external reconstruction absorption amalgamation

If X Ltd. is taken over by Y Ltd. it is called as Amalgamation External reconstruction Absorption Internal reconstruction

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23If X Ltd. is taken over by Y Ltd. it is called as Amalgamation External reconstruction Absorption Internal reconstruction

24

In _____ underwriting all the shares are

underwritten.Partial underwriting Firm Underwriting Full None of the above

25Investment in equity shares is a _____ _____ _____. monetary current asset Non-monetary non current asset

26 List 'E' in statement of affairs gives the list of Debenture holders Unsecured creditors Preferential creditors Secured creditors

27 LLP should have minimum ………...partners One Two Seven Twenty

28Official liquidator is appointed by the _____ _____. Central Government The State Government

The Registrar of

CompaniesICAI

29

On amalgamation, General reserve A/c appearing on

the Liabilities side in the balance sheet of the vendor

company

is closed by credit to

Purchasing Company

A/c


Realization


Equity shareholders

is closed by debit to

Realization

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30

Payment to _____ does not form part of purchase

consideration.debentureholders purchase security premium None of the above

31

Payment to debenture holders of vendor company is

….. In purchase consideration Excluded Included added seperately None of the above

32Pref. creditors are Taxes Dues to government

Wages & Salaries

payableAll of the above

33 Preferential creditors are given in list _____. H B C None of the above

34Preliminary expenses are transferred to _____ Equity share holders Realisation a/c Debenture holders Preference share holders

35

Premium payable to preferance share holders of

vendor company os debited to Realisation a/c Securities premium a/c New company a/c Bank a/c

36

Profit on Realisation is transferred to _____ _____

A/c.

Preference share

holdersDebenture holders equity shareholders A/c New company a/c

37

Purchase consideration as per AS–14 is the amount

payable to _____.

shareholders and

debentureholders

shareholders and

creditorsshareholders Creditors

38

Statutory reserve of vendor company is debited to

……………in books of purchasing company

Amalgamation

adjustment a/c P&L a/c

Liquidator of vendor

company a/c Bank a/c

The applications which bear the stamp ofUnmarked applications Marked applications Sealed applications None of the above

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39

The applications which bear the stamp of

underwriters are called asUnmarked applications Marked applications Sealed applications None of the above

40

The receivable amount in foreign currency on the

date of Balance Sheet is converted at _____ spot rate closing rate settlement rate weighted average rate

41

The time limit for collection of minimum subscription

is15 days 21 days 7 days 5 days

42

The transactions in foreign currency recorded in the

books of accounts at _____ on date on which

transactions takes place.

Average rate exchange rate spot rate Closing rate

43

Total shares for which guarantee is given by each

underwriter individually is known as _____.Net liability value Gross liability

Issue price of shares

underwrittenNone of the above

44 Transferee company as per AS 14 is _____. Vendor company Purchasing company Liquidated company None of the above

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45

Underwriting commission is calculated on _____ price

of shares.Full underwriting Partial Underwriting Issue price None of the above

46Underwriting commission one is debited to

Underwriting

commission A/cUnderwriter’s A/c Share Allotment A/c None of the above

47

Unmarked applications areApplications stamped

by the underwriters

Applications from public

directly received by the

company

Applications given to

the brokersNone of the above

48 Unmarked applications mean

Applications issued by

the company Firm underwriting

Applications bearing

the stamp of

underwriter

Applications from the

public received directly by

the company without

bearing any stamp of

underwriter

49

When all the shares are underwritten by the

underwriters, it is known as Partial underwriting Complete underwriting Firm underwriting none of the above

50

When purchase consideration on net payment basis is

equal to net assets taken over from vendor company ,

it results in….. Goodwill Surplus Capital reserve None of the above

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50 it results in….. Goodwill Surplus Capital reserve None of the above

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1

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

MHRM

Semester 6: T.Y.B.Com

1. Job description gives details of ------------------

a. Job to be done b. Duties to be done c. Responsibilities to be done d. Efficiency is required

2. Process of estimating future requirements a. Promotion b. Recruitment c. Selection d. Job Analysis

3. SHRM stands for Strategic -------------- a. Human Resource

Management b. Human Resource Maximization

c. Human Reactive Management


4. Finding out suitable candidates from the applications received a. placement b. selection c. recruitment d. analysis

5. Job title, summary is the component of a. Job Description b. Job Specification c. Job Enrichment d. Job Rotation

6. Video conferencing is part of __________________ a. Group Discussions b. Interviews c. Online Interviews d. Conference

7. Bonafides of a candidate is checked through____________ a. Contacts b. Reference Checks c. Interview d. Documents

8. E - selection is very ______________ a. Time consuming b. Costly c. Economical d. Convenient

9. Internal source of recruitment _______________ a. Recalls b. Promotions c. Transfers d. All of these

10. The first step in process of recruitment is ________________ a. Job Design b. Job Selection c. Job enrichment d. Job Analysis

11. Summary of human qualities required to perform a job is ____ a. Job Specification b. Job Analysis c. Job Summary d. Job Title

12. External source of recruitment a. Recalls b. Promotions c. Transfers d. Walk-Interviews

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13. Training & development is a _____________function a. Short Term b. Continuous c. Temporary d. Periodic

14. ____________ is the modern method of performance appraisal. a. Coaching b. Counselling c. Checklist Method d. 360-degree Appraisal

15. Methods of training in which employees are transferred from job to job a. In-basket training b. Role-play c. Coaching d. Job Rotation

16. Skill India programme is initiated for creating ____________ a. More Jobs b. Growth of firms c. Expansion d. Employability

17. HRD is aiming at improving the ________of employees. a. Progress b. Prosperity c. Competency d. Qualities

18. The process of evaluating the work performance of employees. a. Performance Appraisal b. Feedback c. Management Development d. Evaluation

19. Systematic process by which employees are motivated for career success. a. Career Development b. Offering Incentives c. Career Planning d. Career Mapping

20. Ensuring that qualified people are available to assume key managerial positions .

a. Career Development b. Career Planning c. Succession Planning d. Promotion

21. Participative counselling is also known as ____________. a. Directive Counselling b. Co-operative Counselling c. Indirective Counselling d. Reassurance Counselling

22. According to _________ employees are lazy & reluctant to work. a. Theory Y b. Theory X c. Theory Z d. Trait Theory

23. _______________is an art of inspiring others to achieve objectives. a. Motivation b. Planning c. Dedication d. Leadership

24. Non- financial incentive of motivation. a. Bonus b. Salary c. Awards d. Incentives

25. Valence , expectancy, instrumentality are mentioned by ___________. a. McGregor b. Vroom c. Maslow d. Pink

26. _______needs are basic needs. a. Social b. Salary c. Safety d. Physiological

27. The degree of self- confidence is indicated through____________. a. EQ b. IQ c. SQ d. Morale

28. The concept of EQ was popularised by __________ a. McGregor b. Daniel Goleman c. Maslow d. Vroom

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29. A feeling of injustice at workplace is expressed by an employee as________.

a. Discontent b. Grievance c. Anger d. Attrition

30. Teleworking makes use of ___________ a. Fax b. Internet c. Phone d. All of these

31. Performance appraisal is required for ------------------. a. managers b. officers c. lower level employees d. all employees.

32. Succession planning ensures __________ a. business stability b. business support c. business expansion d. diversification

33. Staff reduction due to attrition is ___________. a. mandatory b. voluntary c. desirable d. avoidable

34. The grievances of the worker are referred to _____ at the final stage. a. grievance committee b. supervisor c. head of the department d. voluntary arbitration

35. The basic element of emotional quotient includes __________ a. self- management b. efficiency c. effectiveness d. innovation

36. Improving quality & specialisation of a work is known as-------- . a. Job Description b. Job Analysis c. Job Simplification d. Job Rotation

37. Giving details about a job is ___________. a. Job Description b. Job Specification c. Job Enrichment d. Job Rotation

38. Leaders should guide and ---------------- the subordinates. a. punish b. control c. criticise d. motivate

39. Motivation is the ___________ of management process. a. essence b. cultural values c. ethics d. drawback

40. Proper background for recruitment & selection is created with ---------------. a. job analysis b. selection c. placement d. job-design

41. Job enlargement increases the _____________ of a job a. duties b. scope c. use d. responsibilities

42. Technique of e selection ------- a. keyword search b. campus interview c. group interview d. in-depth interview

43. video conferencing is part of __________________ a. group discussion b. interviews c. online interviews d. on-line interview

44. Vertical progression of a job---------- a. job enrichment b. job enlargement c. job description d. job design

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45. Prevents entry of new people in the organisation a. aptitude test b. internal recruitment c. campus interview d. interviews

46. Strategic HRM reduces_______________ a. employee turnover b. cost of operations c. functions d. objectives

47. plans for achieving business goals----- a. strategy b. mission c. vision d. objectives

48. SHRM enhances_____________ a. stress to employees b. customer satisfaction c. employee turnover d. reactive decisions

49. Training with discussions to develop awareness among employees a. sensitivity training b. vestibule training c. in- basket training d. management games

50. ____________training is costly & time consuming a. induction training b. sensitivity training c. vestibule training d. case study method

PSYCHOLOGY OF HUMAN BEHAVIOUR AT WORK

SEMESTER 6 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. A work __________________ interacts primarily to share

information and make decision to help members perform in areas of responsibility.

a. Team b. group c. roles d. models

2. In a work ________________, individual effort results in performance that is greater than the sum of individual parts.

a. Team b. group c. trust d. performance

3. Group members who meet to discuss ways of improving quality, efficiency and the work environment is called

__________________ team.

a.cross- functional b. self-managed c. virtual d. problem solving

4. ____________________ team do not have the authority to unilaterally implement their recommendations for improvement.

a. Problem solving b. cross-functional c. self-managed d.

virtual

5. Group members from the same hierarchical level but different work

areas who come together to accomplish a task are called

_____________________ team

a. Virtual b. self-managed c. cross-functional d. problem

solving

6. A _____________________ of resources directly reduces the ability of a team to perform effectively.

a. structure b. scarcity c. abundance d. complete

7. Effective teams exhibit _____________________ amongst their

members

a. role b. diversityc. trust d. self-management

8. Teams that rate _____________________ on levels of conscientiousness tend to perform better.

a. low b. higher c. moderate d. equal

9. Teams do _____________________ when they have one or more

highly disagreeable member.

a. Good b. Better c. worse d. moderate

10. Teams with _______________________experienced\skilled

members perform better.

a. less b. average c.more d. adequate

11. The most effective teams have _______________ members.

a. 4 to 8 b. 2 to 5 c. 5 to 9 d. 3 to 6

12. Effective teams that show high level of ________________ are

better able to adapt to conflict among members.

a. Social loafing b. preference c. reflexivity d. diversity

13.___________is a process that begins when one party perceives

another party has or is about to negatively affect something the first party cares about.

a. Conflict b. Stress c. Negotiation d. Communication

14.The __________view of conflict believed at all conflict is harmful and must be avoided.

a. traditional b. interactionist c. resolution focused d. relationship

15.The belief that conflict is not only a positive force in a group but also

an absolute necessity for a group to perform effectively was

proposed by _____________view of conflict.

a. interactionist b. traditional c. managed conflict d. process

16.There are ___________ stages in the conflict process.

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 3

17. The potential for conflict increases when either too little or

____________ communication takes place.

a. occasional b. too much c. one way d. two way

18.___________ and specialization of group activities can stimulate conflict.

a. Size b. up gradation c. Technology d. Division

19.Personality, ____________, and values are potential sources of

conflict.

a. emotion b. philosophy c. attitudes d. interest

20.__________conflict means emotional involvement in a conflict that

creates anxiety, tenseness, frustration and hostility.

a. functional b. felt c. perceived d. process

21._________are the decisions to act in a given way.

a. Intentions b. Behaviour c. Cognition d. Outcomes

22.______________intention means a desire to satisfy one’s interests,

regardless of the impact on the other party to the conflict.

a. Competing b. Avoiding c. Compromising d. Accommodating

23. The desire to withdraw from or suppress a conflict is

_____________intention.

a. avoiding b. collaborating c. accommodating d. competing

24.In ____________, there is no clear winner or loser and each party to conflict is willing to give up something.

a. compromising b. avoiding c. accommodating d. collaborating

25._____________means the use of resolution and stimulation techniques to achieve the desired level of conflict.

a. Stress management b. Politics c. Conflict management d. Intentions

26. Affect can be experienced in the form of_________or moods.

(a) beliefs (b) emotions (c) attitude (d) thoughts

27. Affect covers a broad range of ___________people experience.

(a) feelings (b) beliefs (c)attitude (d)moods

28. Emotions are___________feelings that are directed at someone or

something.

(a)intense (b)less intense (c) range of (d)negative

29. Emotions are caused by _________event.

(a)general (b)negative (c)specific (d) positive

30. Emotions are____________in nature.

(a) cognitive (b)action oriented (c)neutral (d) negative

31.Emotions are usually accompanied by

distinct_____________expressions.

(a)verbal (b) positive (c) facial (d) physical

32. Moods are feelings that tend to be ___________intense than

emotions.

(a)more (b)less (c)very (d)not 33. Moods are__________ in nature.

(a) cognitive (b)action oriented (c)neutral (d)negative

34. Many researchers agree on_____________universal emotions (a)four b)six (c)three(d)five

35. ___________factors can influence interpretations of emotions

(a) environmental (b)cultural (c)social (d)natural 36. Emotions can’t be________________.

(a)positive (b)specific (c)neutral (d)negative

37. _____________provide important information about how we understand the world around us.

(a)moods(b)emotions (c)feelings (d)attitudes

38. People tend to be in their _________moods late in the week. (a)best (b)worst(c)positive (d)negative

39. Faster, cheaper, and more mobile computers is an example of change in ___________ a) Social Trends b) World politics c) Competition

d) Technology

40. Emergence and growth of social networking sites represent a change in __________.

a) Social Trends b) World politics c) Competition d) Technology

41. The collapse of the financial sector and global recession are examples of __________.

a) Social Trends b) Workforce changes c) Economic shocks)

Technological changes

42. Liberalization of attitudes towards gay employees are examples of

__________.

a) Social Trends b) Political changes c) Economic shocks) Technological changes

43.__________ is a dynamic condition in which an individual is confronted with an opportunity, demand, or resource related to what the

individual desires and for which the outcome is perceived as to be both

uncertain and important.

a) Stress b) Motive c) Attitude d) Change

44. Stressors associated with workload, pressure to complete tasks and

time urgency are ___________stressors.

a) Hindrance b) Challenge c) Attitude d) Continuous

45. Stressors that keep you from reaching your goals are ___________ stressors.

a) Hindrance b) Challenge c) Attitude d) Continuous

46. Stress is associated with demands and __________. a) Hindrances b) Challenges c) Resources d) Goals

47.____________are responsibilities, pressures, obligations and uncertainties individuals face in the work place.

a) Hindrances b) Challenges c) Resources d) Demands

48._________ are things within an individual’s control that he or she can use to resolve the demands.

a) Hindrances b) Challenges c) Resources d) Goals

49.__________ is the biggest reason people have trouble coping with organizational changes.

a) Stress b) Resource c) Attitude d) Uncertainty

50. Changes in the business cycle create ___________ uncertainties. a) Social b) Political c) Economic d) Technological

Business Economics

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SEM VI- BUSINESS ECONOMICS SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. The classical theory of international trade is based on (a) Money cost differences (b) Law of returns (c) elasticity of demand (d) Labour cost of production 2. Ricardo’s theory is static because (a) It is based on constant returns to scale. (b) It assumes a change in technology (c) There are qualitative changes in production (d) There is a transport cost 3. Ricardian theory assumes that (a) Labour differs in efficiency within the country (b) Labour is homogenous and of same efficiency in all the countries. (c) Labour is heterogenous within a country. (d) Labour is homogenous within a country 4. According to Modern theory, relative factor prices in two countries are determined by (a) Differences in factor endowment (b) Productive efficiency of Labour (c) Comparative cost condition (d) Money cost differences 5. The H – O theory works on the following assumption (a) There is imperfect competition in commodity and factor markets (b) There is perfect competition in commodity and factor markets (c) There is perfect competition in commodity markets and imperfect competition in factor markets. (d) There is imperfect competition in commodity markets and perfect competition in factor markets. 6. Abundance of a factor makes it __________ in terms of its price. (a) Cheaper (b) dearer (c) indifferent (d) similar 7. Factor intensity can be measured by (a) Absolute units of the factors used in the production (b) Factor ratios of the factors used in the production (c) Value of export (d) Value of imports. 8. Income terms of trade tells increased capacity to (a) export only (b) import only (c) Net export (d) investment 9. Single factoral terms of trade were developed by (a) Prof. Taussig (b) Crustav Cassel (c) David Ricardo (d) Jacob Viner

Business Economics

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10. It is the __________ terms of trade which are used for all official purposes while measuring terms of trade and changes therein. (a) Gross barter (b) Income (c) Utility (d) Net barter 11. Reciprocal demand is expressed in terms of (a) production possibility curve (b) supply curve (c) offer curve (d) demand curve 12. The theory of reciprocal demand assumes (a) effective demand (b) full employment demand (c) less than full employment demand (d) price demand 13. International trade results in __________ production due to specialization (a) constant (b) increased (c) decreased (d) no change in 14. Choose the wrong statement from below. Free trade policy ________ (a) Promotes efficiency (b) promotes growth (c) Increase prices (d) promotes economic welfare 15. Which of the following is not a measure of protection (a) Anti – dumping Act (b) Quota (c) Tariff (d) Subsidy for import 16. Pleasures of protection stand against (a) Export promotion (b) Import promotion (c) Import substitution (d) Dumping 17. Which of the following is not an objective of commercial trade policy (a) To maintain a favourable balance of payment and terms of trade (b) To maintain a desired rate of exchange by regulating imports & exports. (c) To restrict export (d) To expand production of goods and service to meet foreign demand & enjoy economies of scale 18. Tarrifs (a) are imposed to make import costlier (b) are imposed only on imports (c) are the taxes imposed on commodities that are traded within a country (d) are known as excise duty

Business Economics

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19. Tariffs have (a) No effect on consumption (b) Positive consumption effect (c) Negative consumption effect (d) First negative then positive effect 20. Import licensing is a (a) tariff barrier (b) Non- tariff barrier (c) helps in increasing speculative activities in the international trades (d) leads to reduce domestic prices 21. Which of the following is non - tariff barrier (a) Anti - dumping tariffs (b) Compound tariffs (c) Intellectual property laws (d) Mixed tariffs 22. Which of the following is the objective of economic integration (a) Reduction of market size (b) employment generation (c) reducing competition (d) reducing choice of goods and services 23. A Bloc which removes the tariff barriers between the member countries is (a) A Preferential Trade Area (PTA) (b) Free Trade Area (c) Customs Union (d) Monetary Union 24. ASEAN was established as a result of (a) Bangkok declaration, 1987 (b) Doha declaration, 2008 (c) Treaty of Rome, 1957 (d) General Agreement on Tariff & Trade, 1947 25. The European Union is a group of _____ countries that operate as an economic & political union (a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (d) 28 26. The difficulties encountered in recording accurate transactions in the balance of payments are

recorded under _________. (a) Overall Balance (b) Financial Account (c) Statistical Discrepancy (d) Trade Account 27. A balance is achieved in the balance of payment when the overall balance is _________

(a) One (b) Zero (c) Hundred (d) Twelve

Business Economics

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28. Which of the following is not included in the current account?

(a) Foreign investments (b) Unilateral payments and receipts (c)Export and import of goods (d) Export and import of services 29. __________ is a systematic record of all economic transactions of a particular country with the rest of

the world.

(a)Union Budget (b) Balance of Payments (c) Capital Account Balance (d) Current Account Balance 30. Revaluation results in-

(a) cheaper exports (b) costlier imports (c) domestic price rise (d) costlier exports 31. Under _________ the Government tries to have complete control over all dealings in foreign

exchange.

(a) import substitution (b) expenditure reducing (c) export promotion (d) exchange control 32. Which of the following is not a cause for deficit in the balance of payments?

(a) Increase in capital inflows (b) Increase in imports (c) Fall in exports (d) Increase in capital outflows 33. Which of the following agreements deals with foreign investment?

(a) TRIMs (b) TRIPs (c) GATS (d) AoA 34. The decision to phase out import quotas on textiles and clothing was agreed in the __________

Round of trade negotiations.

(a) Doha (b) Geneva (c) Tokyo (d) Uruguay 35. Which of the following principles of the WTO forbids discrimination between a member country's own

nationals and nationals of other members?

(a) National Treatment Clause (b) Right to Equality (c) Free Trade (d) TRIPs 36. The rate at which purchase / sale of foreign currency takes place at a future date is called________

(a) Spot Rate (b) Discount Rate (c) Forward Rate (d) Interest Rate 37. Who is the custodian of foreign exchange reserves of a country?

(a) Exporters (b) Government (c) Central Bank (d) Investors

Business Economics

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38. Which of the following activities are undertaken to protect against the risk of exchange rate

fluctuations?

(a) Arbitrage (b) Speculation (c) Hedging (d) Trading

39. When the forward exchange rate is higher than the spot exchange rate, the exchange rate is said to

be at ___________

(a) Discount (b) Premium (c) Par (d) Stable 40. The supply of foreign exchange is primarily dependent on-

(a) volume of exports (b) volume of imports (c) size of the country (d) price of imports 41. Other things remaining constant, an increase in the real interest rate of a country 'X', will lead to

______ in the country 'X'

(a) Increase in demand for foreign currency (b) Increase in supply of foreign currency (c) Fall in supply of foreign currency (d) No change in either demand or supply of foreign currency 42. Which of the following depicts the relationship between the demand for foreign exchange and the

exchange rate?

(a) Direct (b) Fluctuating (c) Inverse (d) No relation 43. When supply of foreign currency increases with no change in demand, domestic currency will-

(a) depreciate (b) appreciate (c) remain unchanged (d) fluctuate rapidly 44. The Purchasing Power Parity Theory was developed by-

(a) Hal Varian (b) J.M Keynes (c) Gustav Cassel (d) Paul Samuelson 45. The Purchasing Power Parity Theory assumes that basket of goods under consideration between the

two countries must be __________

(a) Unique (b) Identical (c) Exportable (d) Different 46. As per the absolute version of the PPP Theory, the primary factor that determines the exchange rate

between two countries is the ____________ of the two currencies.

(a) relative purchasing power (b) relative interest rates (c) relative profit rates (d) relative consumption expenditures 47. Which of the following is the primary objective of the RBI's intervention in the foreign exchange

market?

(a) To maintain domestic price stability (b) To maintain exchange rate stability (c) To maintain interest rate stability (d) To reduce income inequalities

Business Economics

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48. Under the __________, the exchange rate between two currencies is determined by the gold contents

of the respective currencies.

(a) Flexible exchange rate system (b) Dirty Float exchange rate (c) Mint Par of exchange (d) Crawling Peg system 49. Overvaluation of the exchange rate leads to ____________.

(a) higher rates of employment (b) higher rates of income (c) higher rates of consumption (d) higher rates of unemployment 50. FEMA stands for- (a) Foreign Exchange Marketing Act (b) Foreign Exchange Measurement Act (c) Free Exchange Marketing Act (d) Foreign Exchange Management Act

Page 1 of 9

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Class: T.Y.B. Com `Subject : Indirect Taxation

Semester – VI

1. Which tax is levied on inter - state supply of goods and/or services?

a. IGST

b. CGST

c. SGST

d. Both (b) and (c)

2. Which of the following activities is a supply of services?

a. Transfer of right in goods / undivided share in goods without transfer of title in

goods

b. Transfer of title in goods

c. Transfer of title in goods under an agreement which stipulates that property shall

pass at a future date

d. All of the above

3. GST is not levied on which of the following:

a. Motor Spirit

b. High speed diesel

c. Natural Gas

d. All of the above

4. What is the rate applicable under CGST to a registered person being a manufacturer

opting to pay taxes under composition scheme?

a. 2.5 %

b. 1 %

c. 0.5%

d. No composition for manufacturer

5. Can a registered person opt for composition scheme only for one out of 3 business

places having same Permanent Account Number?

a. Yes

b. No

c. Yes, subject to prior approval of the Central government

d. Yes, subject to prior approval of the concerned State government

Page 2 of 9

6. Transportation of passengers by ____________are exempt from GST.

a. Railways in first class

b. Railways in air - conditioned coach

c. Metro

d. All of the above

7. Services by hotel inn, guest house, club or campsite for residential /lodging purposes

having declared tariff of a unit of accommodation below

a. Rs,10,000/-

b. Rs.1,000/-

c. Rs.2,000 /-

d. Rs.3,000/-

8. Services to a single residential unit is exempted if

a. It is pure labour service only

b. It is works contract only

c. It is a part of residential complex only

d. It is on ground floor without further super structure

9. Which of the following is exempted?

a. Services by way of loading, unloading, packing, storage or warehousing of rice

b. Services by way of loading and unloading of jute

c. Services by way of packing and storage of rubber


10. What is the time of supply of goods , in case of forward charge mechanism?

a. Date of invoice

b. Due date of invoice

c. Date of payment

d. Earlier of (a) and (b)

11. An invoice in case of goods must be issued

a. at the time of removal of goods

b. on transfer of risks and rewards

c. on receipt of payment

d. At any convenient time

12. The invoice should be issued within how many days from date of completion of

service?

a. 30

b. 45

c. 60

d. 90

Page 3 of 9

13. Ms. Alia of Mumbai goes to Bangalore for a plastic surgery to be performed by Dr.

Albert of Delhi. The surgery was performed at Bangalore. What is the place of

supply?

a. Mumbai

b. Bangalore

c. Delhi

d. Any of the above

14. The default rule of place of supply of services made to a registered person shall be

a. Location of the registered recipient

b. Location of the service provider

c. Location where the service is provided

d. Any of the above

15. Mr. Shah of Mumbai purchases a prepaid recharge card of Rs. 199 from a selling

agent at Kolkata. What is the place of supply?

a. Mumbai

b. Kolkata

c. Any of the above


16. The place of supply of goods imported into India shall be

a. Location of the importer

b. Location of the exporter

c. Location of the agent of the exporter


17. The value of supply should include which of the following?

a. Incidental expenses including commission and packing charged by the supplier to

the recipient of supply

b. Interest, late fee, penalty or penalty for delayed payment of any consideration

c. Subsidies except subsidies provided by Central and State government

d. All of the above

18. The value of supply of goods and services shall be the

a. Transaction Value

b. Retail Sale Price

c. Wholesale Sale Price

d. Any of the above

Page 4 of 9

19. Which of the following shall not be included in the value of supply?

a. GST

b. Interest

c. Late Fees

d. Commission

20. Persons shall be deemed to be “ related persons “ if any persons directly or indirectly

owns, controls or holds ________ or more of the outstanding voting stock or shares of

both of them.

a. 25%

b. 26%

c. 51%

d. 0%

21. ________________ is a taxable person who occasionally undertakes transactions

involving supply of goods and services but has no fixed place of business residence in

India.

a. Casual Taxable Person

b. Non - Resident Taxable Person

c. Input Service Distributor

d. Either (a) or (b)

22. ____________________ is the application form for registration for Non- Resident

taxable person

a. GST REG- 4

b. GST REG-5

c. GST REG - 01

d. GST REG -09

23. Every person who is liable to be registered under GST law ,shall apply for registration

within __________ from the date on which he becomes liable for registration.

a. 30 days

b. 15 days

c. 2 months

d. 45 days

24. Agriculturist means __________who undertakes cultivation of land by own labour or

by the labour of family:

a. Individual

b. Hindu Undivided Family

c. Any person

d. Either (a) or (b)

Page 5 of 9

25. What is the maximum time limit to claim the input tax credit?

a. Till the date of filing annual return

b. Due date of September month which is following the financial year

c. Earliest of (a) or (b)

d. Later of (a) or (b)

26. ITC can be taken on goods if goods not received by registered person but

a. By his agent on his direction

b. By the job work on his instruction

c. By any other person on his direction

d. Any of the above

27. Whether credit on capital goods can be taken immediately on receipt of the goods?

a. Yes

b. No

c. After usage of capital goods

d. After capitalizing in books of accounts

28. Is input tax fully restricted in case of switchover from taxable to exempt supplies

a. Yes

b. No

c. Proportionally restricted


29. ITC includes tax payable ____________also.

a. VAT

b. Reverse charge

c. Excise

d. Customs laws

30. What is the date of applicability of TDS provisions?

a. 01/07/2017

b. 01/01/2018

c. 01/09/2018

d. 01/10/2018

31. What would be the tax rate applicable in case of composite supply?

a. Tax rate as applicable on principal supply

b. Tax rate as applicable on ancillary supply

c. Tax rate as applicable on respective supply


Page 6 of 9

32. In case of sponsorship services provided by Mr. A to M/s. ABC Ltd. , liability to pay

GST is on :

a. Mr .A

b. M/s. ABC Ltd.

c. Both


33. Can a person registered under composition scheme claim input tax credit?

a. Yes

b. No

c. Input tax credit on inward supply of goods only can be claimed

d. Input tax credit on inward supply of services only can be claimed

34. From the following information provided by Mrs. Kareena , a Hindi firm artist,

compute the total value of taxable supply for the month of February 2020:

Performing in a Hindi TV Serial - Rs. 2,50,000 ,

Acting as a brand ambassador for Dove - Rs. 3,50,000 ,

Performing for an award show Rs. 1,50,000,

Performing classical dance - Rs. 50,000

a. Rs.7,50,000/-

b. Rs. 6,00,000/-

c. Rs. 8,00,000/-

d. Rs.50,000/-

35. Determine the time of supply in case where recipient is liable to pay tax on goods

under reverse charge mechanism Date of invoice : 01/10/2019 , Date of receipt of

goods: 05/10/2019, Date of payment in books: 10/10/2019, Date of debit of payment

in bank account: 12/10/2019

a. 05/10/2019

b. 10/10/2019

c. 12/10/2019

d. 01/10/2019

36. Mr. Rishi of Raigad , Maharashtra sells 500 mobile phones to Mr. Ranbir of Rohtak.

What is the place of supply?

a. Raigad

b. Rohtak

c. Any of the above


Page 7 of 9

37. Determine the value of supply: List price of goods -Rs. 1,00,000/-, Tax levied by

Municipal authority on sale of such goods: Rs. 20,000/-, Packing charges- Rs.5,000/-.

Subsidy received from an NGO (not included above) Rs. 40,000/-.

a. Rs. 1,65,000/-

b. Rs.1,25,000/-

c. Rs. 1,45,000/-

d. Rs.65,000/-

38. Deposits towards tax, payment , interest, fee or any other amount are credited into the

_________ of a taxable person.

a. Electronic Credit Ledger

b. Electronic Tax Liability Ledger

c. Electronic Cash Ledger

d. All of the above

39. If application for registration is_________, the registration shall be effective from the

date of grant of registration.

a. Made within 30 days

b. Made within 60 days

c. Not made within 30 days

d. Not made within 60 days

40. Balance in electronic credit ledger under SGST can be used against which liability?

a. SGST liability only

b. SGST and IGST liability

c. SGST, IGST and CGST liability

d. None of these

41. What is the validity of the registration certificate issued to casual taxable person and

on – resident taxable person?

a. 0 days from the effective date of registration

b. Period specified in the application for registration

c. Earliest of (a) and (b) above

d. 180 days from the effective date of registration

42. What is the ceiling limit prescribed on the rate under IGST?

a. 14%

b. 40%

c. 26%

d. 30%

Page 8 of 9

43. Ms, Mihika of New Delhi boards a New Delhi-Mumbai flight to attend a business

meeting at Mumbai . She buys lunch in the flight. The food items are loaded into the

aircraft at New Delhi. The Airlines is registered at New Delhi as well as Mumbai.

What is the place of supply?

a. New Delhi

b. Mumbai

c. Any of the above

d. Exact place where food was consumed

44. Mr. Kisan a farmer grows mangoes in his farm and sells mangoes as well as makes

jams and crushes for selling. His total turnover from the above activities was Rs.

45,00,000/- during the financial year. Is he required to obtain registration?

a. Yes

b. No

c. Optional for him

d. Cannot be determined

45. Calculate the aggregate turnover from the following:

Taxable Supplies: Rs.24,00,000 ,

Exempt supplies Rs. 1,00,000 ,

Exports Rs.5,00,000

Outward supplies taxable under reverse charge mechanism Rs.2,00,000

a. Rs.32,00,000/-

b. Rs.25,00,000/-

c. Rs.30,00,000/-

d. Rs.29,00,000/-

46. If tobacco leaves procured from a agriculturist by a registered person , then

a. Reverse charge is applicable

b. Normal charge is applicable

c. Joint charge is applicable


Page 9 of 9

47. Compute the value of taxable supply of services of Vistara Airlines located in

Chennai for transportation of passengers by air from the following data :

Passengers embarking at Arunachal Pradesh : Rs. 5,00,000/-

Amount for journey terminated at Assam : Rs.4,00,000/-

From Chennai to Sydney (Business Class) : Rs. 54,00,000/-

a. Rs.9,00,000/-

b. Rs. 63,00,000/-

c. Rs, 54,00,000/-

d. Rs.5,00,000/-

48. Worldwide Ltd. Provides the following information for the month of July 2019

Compute the value of taxable supply

Running a boarding school (upto higher secondary) - Rs. 2,40,000/-

Fees from prospective employer for campus interview - Rs. 1,70,000/-

Conducting Modular employable skill course- approved by – Rs. 1,40,000/-

National council of Vocational training

a. Rs.5,50,000/-

b. Rs.3,10,000/-

c. Rs.4,10,000/-

d. Rs.1,70,000/-

49. Calculate the value of taxable supply

Supply of farm labour: Rs.1,00,000/-

Loading and Unloading of grapes : Rs. 60,000/-

Sale of grapes : Rs.4,00,000/-

a. Rs.5,60,000/-

b. Rs. 1,00,000/-

c. Nil

d. Rs.4,00,000/-

50. Mr. Bharat is a manufacturer of readymade garments. His factory is located in

Mumbai. His aggregate turnover during the financial year was Rs. 45,00,000/-. Is he

required to obtain registration?

a. Yes

b. No

c. Optional for him

d. Cannot be determined

Cost Accounting

1 | P a g e

TY B. Com Sem VI- Cost Accounting

Sample Questions

1. Cost Accounting is directed toward the needs of _________

i) Government ii) External users

iii) Internal users iv) Shareholders

2. What is essential to make the cost ledger 'self-balancing'?

i) Stores Ledger Control Account ii) General Ledger Adjustment Account

iii) Finished Goods Control Account iv) Work-in-Progress Ledger

3. The Finished Goods account contains the cost of all units

i) Unfinished at a given point in time ii) Completed at a given point in time

iii) Produced during a particular period iv) None of the above

4. The Work-in-Progress Control Account is not debited with

i) direct materials and direct labour ii) direct expenses

iii) production overheads (recovered) iv) selling and distribution overheads

5. An amount credited to Raw Material Inventory represents

i) indirect material was placed into production

ii) raw material was purchased on account

iii) direct material was issued for production

iv) direct labour was used for production

6. In which account is factory overheads debited to?

i) Work-in-progress ledger control account ii) Cost ledger control account

iii) Stores Ledger Control Account iv) Purchases account

7. Materials lost in stores due to accident is

i)a part of normal loss and hence part of cost

ii) capitalized

iii) a part of abnormal loss and hence excluded from cost

iv)transferred to the next period

8. The Manufacturing Overhead Control account

i) is increased by allocated manufacturing overhead

ii) is decreased by allocated manufacturing overhead

iii) is credited with amounts transferred to Work-in-Process

iv) is debited with actual overhead costs

9. For whom is the Contract job undertaken?

i) Contractee ii) Contractor

iii) Sub-contractor iv) Job-worker

Cost Accounting

2 | P a g e

10. Contract price Rs. 15,00,000; Work Certified 75%, work uncertified Rs. 1,20,000,

calculate the value of work certified.

i) Rs. 15,00,000 ii) Rs. 11,25,000

iii) Rs. 1,20,000 iv) Rs. 22,500

11. Notional Profit=

i) Payment received Less Work certified ii) Work certified Less expenses

iii) Work certified Less work uncertified iv) None of the above

12. If the work certified is 51% of the contract price, the transfer to P & L A/c will be

i) NIL

ii) 100% of Notional profits

iii) 1/3rd of Notional profits, reduced in the ratio of cash received to work certified

iv) 2/3rd of Notional profits, reduced in the ratio of cash received to work certified

13. Material at site

i) is debited to the Contract Account ii) is credited to the Contract Account

iii) is debited to the Contractee's Account iv) is ignored in the Contract Account

14. Work Certified is calculated at

i) Cost price ii) Market price

iii) Cost or market price whichever is less iv) Estimated price

15. Payment of cash to the contractor is made on what basis?

i) Work Certified ii) Work uncertified

iii) Work in progress iv) Retention Money

16. Contract costing is a basic method of

i) Batch costing ii) Specific order costing

iii) Process costing iv) Standard costing

17. Retention Money is equal to

i) Work certified Less Payment received by contractor

ii) Work certified Less Work uncertified

iii) Contract price Less Work certified

iv) None of the above

18. Jerry Enterprises incurred Rs. 12,000 indirect labour and Rs. 68,000 direct labour. Which

one of the following is one effect of recording this transaction?

i) Direct labour increases by Rs. 12,000

ii) Finished goods increases by Rs. 80,000

iii) Manufacturing costs increase by Rs. 68,000

iv) Manufacturing overhead increases by Rs. 12,000

Cost Accounting

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19. Cost of Actual Output =

i) Unit Cost X Units of Actual Output ii) Unit Cost X Units of Abnormal Loss

iii) Unit Cost X Units of Abnormal Gains iv) None of the above

20. 54,000 kgs of a material were input to a process in a period. The normal loss is 10% of

input. Output in the period was 51,100 kg. What was the abnormal gain/loss in the

period?

i) Abnormal loss of 2500 kg ii) Abnormal gain of 2500 kg

iii) Abnormal loss of 2900 kg iv) Abnormal gain of 2900 kg

21. In Process Stock Account, Transfer to next process =

i) Opening Stock+ Output of the process- Closing Stock

ii) Output of the process+ Opening Stock + Closing Stock

iii) Output of the process- Opening Stock - Closing Stock


22. By products and main products are differentiated by

i) number of units per processing period ii) weight or volume of outputs per period

iii) the amount of sales value per unit iv) None of the above

23. Which of the following does not use process costing?

i) Mines and quarries ii) textile industries

iii) soap industries iv) Air-craft manufacturing

24. 6500 litres of a chemical were manufactured in a period. There is a normal loss of 15% of

the material input into the process. An abnormal loss of 5% of material input occurred in

the period. How many litres of material were introduced into the process in the

beginning?

i) 8425 litres ii) 7855 litres

iii) 8125 litres iv) None of the above

25. What will be the impact of normal loss on the overall per unit cost?

i) Per unit cost will increase ii) Per unit will decrease

iii) Per unit cost will remain unchanged iv) Normal loss has no relation to unit cost

26. Unit Cost =

i) Normal Cost / Total Output ii) Normal Cost / Normal Output

iii) Total Cost / Normal Output iv) Total Cost / Total Output

27. Which of the following statements is false?

i) In process costing, cost is accumulated according to processes or departments

ii) In job costing, the basis of cost accumulation is job order or batch size

iii) In process costing, cost is accumulated on time basis

iv) In job costing, cost is computed at the end of the cost period

Cost Accounting

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28. Contribution =

i) Sales - Cost of production ii) Sales - Cost of sales

iii) Sales - Variable costs iv) Sales - Fixed costs

29. Required Sales (in units)

i) (Fixed Cost + Desired Profit) / Variable Cost per unit

ii) (Fixed Cost + Desired Profit) / Contribution per unit

iii) (Fixed Cost + Desired Profit) / PV Ratio


30. If contribution increases by Rs. 56 per unit, then operating profits will

i) increase by Rs. 28 per unit ii) decrease by Rs. 56 per unit

iii) also increase by Rs. 56 per unit iv) None of the above

31. Actual Sales = Rs. 8,50,000, BEP Sales = Rs. 5,50,000. Margin of Safety =?

i) ₹ 5,20,000 ii) ₹ 3,20,000

iii) ₹ 5,00,000 iv) ₹ 3,00,000

32. Selling price per unit= ₹10; Variable cost per unit= ₹6; Fixed cost= ₹10,000. Find out

BEP (in units)

i) 1000 units ii) 1200 units

iii) 2500 units iv) 2000 units

33. The Marginal Cost Statement _________

i) shows the gross profit

ii) is sent to the shareholders

iii) shows classification of costs as direct and indirect

iv) can be used to predict future profits at different levels of activity

34. Profit – volume ratio is improved by reducing

i) Variable cost ii) Fixed cost

iii) Both of them iv) None of them

35. Actual Sales =

i) (Fixed Cost + Profit) / Variable Cost per unit

ii) (Fixed Cost + Profit) / Break-even point

iii) (Fixed Cost + Profit) / PV Ratio


36. Margin of safety =

i) Profit/ PV ratio ii) (Profit/ Contribution per unit) X Selling price per unit

iii) Actual sales – BEP Sales iv) All of the above

Cost Accounting

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37. Standard Overhead Rate (per hour) =

i) Budgeted Overheads/ Budgeted Hours ii) Budgeted Hours/ Budgeted Overheads

iii) Variable Cost / Budgeted Hours iv) None of the above

38. Total Material Cost Variance =

i) Standard Quantity X Standard Price ii) Actual Cost – Standard Cost

iii) Standard Cost – Actual Cost iv) None of the above

39. The standard cost card contains quantities and costs for

i) Direct material only ii) Direct labour only

iii) Direct material, Direct labour and Overheads iv) None of the above

40. If material cost variance is ₹10,800 (favourable) and material usage variance is ₹7,500

(favourable), then material price variance is ______

i) ₹18,300 (favourable) ii) ₹18,300 (adverse)

iii) ₹3300 (favourable) iv) ₹3300 (adverse)

41. Which of the following is a purpose of standard costing?

i) to determine profit at different levels ii) to determine break even production level

iii)to allocate cost with more accuracy iv) to control costs

42. If labour cost variance is ₹12,500 (favourable) and labour rate variance is ₹5,300

(adverse), then labour efficiency variance is ______

i) ₹17,800 (favourable) ii) ₹17,800 (adverse)

iii) ₹7200 (favourable) iv) ₹7200 (adverse)

43. In target costing

i) the target cost is established first, then the target price.

ii) the target cost is an estimate of a product cost which is determined by subtracting

a desired profit margin from a competitive market price

iii) the focus of target costing is to undercut the competition

iv) target costs are generally higher than current costs

44. Which of the following is usually the longest stage in the product life cycle?

i) Introduction phase ii) Growth phase

ii) Maturity phase iv) Saturation phase

45. Most of a product's life-cycle costs are locked in by decisions made during the ______

business function of the value chain.

i) Design ii) Manufacturing

ii) Customer-service iv) Marketing

Cost Accounting

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46. A benchmark is ___________

i) a target fixed based on the best practice

ii) an estimate of a product cost based on future value

iii) costing based on the best use of asset over their lifetime


47. Which of the following is not a phase of benchmarking?

i) Planning ii) Data Gathering

ii) Analysis and Integration iv) Codification

48. Examples of activities at the batch level of costs include:

i) cutting, painting, and packaging

ii) material ordering, machine set up, and inspection

iii) designing, part-specification, and advertising

iv) heating, lighting, and security

49. Which of the following is not a product-level activity?

i)Product design ii) Engineering changes

iii) Inventory management iv) Equipment setups

50. What is the purpose of ABC?

i) To identify what product costs are incurred by a company

ii) To allocate and assign all product costs incurred to the appropriate products or

services

iii) To determine a cost object for which cost information is needed

iv) To allocate and assign indirect costs

Class-Tybcom Subject-Indirecttax(GST) Sem-IV

1.Whatarethetaxesleviedonintra-stateSupply?

(CGST,SGST,IGST,CGST&SGST)

2.Anyactivitiesortransactionsundertakenbystategovernmentshallbetreatedas________.

(Supplyofgoods,Supplyofservices,Supplyofgoods&services,Neithersupplyofgoodsnor

supplyofservices)

3.TheGSTrateongoodshavebeennotifiedonthebasisofCustomsTraiffAct,whichinturn,is

basedon_________.(HSN,RCM,IGST,GSTIN)

4.HSNStandsfor__________.

(HomeStateNumber,HomeShoppingNetwork,HarmonisedSystem ofNomenclature

HarmonisedSystem Number)

5.Transferofthetitleingoodsshallbeconsideredas_______.

(Supplyofgoods,Supplyofservices,Supplyofgoods&services,Neithersupplyofgoodsnor

supplyofservices)

6..________istheeligibilitylimitofaggregateturnoverforpurposesofcompensationscheme

forsupplieroperatingfrom JammuandKashmiri.

(Rs.25lacs,Rs.75lacs,1crore,1.5crore)

7.__________isexcludesfrom theterm "aggregateturnover".

(ExemptSupplies,NilrateoftaxSupplies,IntegratedTax,Export)

8.Supplierofinter-stateoutwardsuppliesofgoodsisconsideredas___________.

(EligibleSupplier,Non-eligibleSupplier,Non-supplier,Manufacturer)

9.TheStatetaxcanbeutilisedtowardpaymentof________underITC.

(Statetax,Unionterritorytax,Centraltax,BothStateandcentraltax)

10.Mrs.Riyaappliesforvoluntaryregistrationon1/5/2019andobtainsregistrationon

15/5/2019.Mrs.RiyaiseligibleforITConinputsheldinstockason_______.

(01/05/2019,15/05/2019,14/05/2019,30/05/2019)

11.OutputTaxexcludes_____.

(Cess,Inputtaxcredit,Compositionlevy,Taxpayableonreversechargebasis)

12._________ShallbeentitledtotakecreditforITC.

(Everyregisteredperson,Everyunregisteredperson,Everytaxableperson,EveryNon-taxable

person)

PgNo.1

13._____istheapplicationform forregistrationofaNon-ResidentTaxableperson.

(GSTREG-4,GSTREG-5,GSTREG-01,GSTREG-09,GSTREG-09)

14.________ShallberequiredtoberegisteredunderGSTirrespectiveoftheturnover.

(NontaxablePerson,E-CommerceOperator,Agriculturist,SuppliesofExemptGoods)

15.UniqueIdentityNumber(UIN)shallbeassignedandregistrationcertificateshallbeissued

within________daysfrom thedateofSubmissionofapplication.

(2workingdays,3workingdays,4workingdays,9workingdays)

16.ApersonhavingPANNumbermaytakeregistrationasa_____.

(Casualtaxableperson,Agriculturist,Reversecharge,NontaxablePerson)

17.ShalladealermakingexclusiveSupplyofPetrolandDieselhavetotakeregistrationunder

GSTAct? (Optional,Yes,No,NeitherYesnorOptional)

18.________iscalledaDeemedSupplierofservices.

(Jobworker,InputServiceDistributor,Agent,Subsidiarycompany)

19._______istaxableminimum turnoverlimitinGSTthatisapplicabletothestateofMizoram.

(Rs.10Lacs,Rs.20lacs,Rs.30lacs,Rs.40Lacs)

20.Underthe________ledgercredittotheledgerwillbeclaimedthroughinputtaxcredit.

(ElectronicCashLedger,ElectronicCreditLedger,ElectronicLiabilityLedger,Anyledgerofthe

above)

PgNo.2