Je electronics paper_i 2016 DMRC qestion paper

Question Booklet Series :– ç'u iqfLrdk fljht %& A

Booklet Code No. :- iqfLrdk dksM la[;k %&

9 3 6 1 2 4 ↑

Candidate must fill the above number correctly, in the OMR Sheet

Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. Questions: 120vuqer le; % 90 feuV~l Code- D6MX6ECSS02 (P–I) ç'uksa dh dqy la[;k : 120Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqØekad % ________________________ vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k : _______________________ Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : _____________________________________________________________ vH;FkÊ dk uke % Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH;FkÊ ds gLrkkj _____________________ dk fujhkd ds gLrkkj _____________________

IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process. 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be

in different series (combination of booklet code no. and series). You must write correct Booklet Code No. and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series and booklet code no. hence you must write correct question booklet series and booklet code no. Any mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet series and booklet code no. the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the candidate.

2. There shall be negative marking. 1/3 mark will be deducted for wrong answer. Each question carries equal mark. Also refer OMR Sheet for detailed instruction.

3. Ask invigilator to sign on your admit card. If the same is not got signed by you, your candidature shall be liable to be rejected.

4. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet.

5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED.

6. DO NOT scribble or do rough work or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. DO NOT wrinkle or fold or staple it.

7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall.

8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet. No other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work.

9. Return the complete Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not take this Question Booklet or any part thereof or OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a punishable offence.

10. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. Further question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes.

fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA

APTITUDE1. A car travels first half distance between two places

with a speed of 40 km/hr and the rest half distance with a speed of 60 km/hr. The average speed of the car is: (1) 37 km/hr (2) 44 km/hr (3) 48 km/hr (4) None of these

1. ,d dkj nks LFkkuksa ds e/; dh çFke vk/kh nwjh 40 fdeh-@?kaVs dh nj ls r; djrk gS ,oa ckdh vk/kh nwjh 60 fdeh-@?kaVs dh nj ls r; djrk gSA rks dkj dh vkSlr pky D;k gksxh%

(1) 37 fdeh-@?kaVk (2) 44 fdeh-@?kaVk (3) 48 fdeh-@?kaVk (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

2. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘RIDDLED’ be arranged? (1) 1680 (2) 840 (3) 2520 (4) 5040

2. fdrus fofHkUu rjhdksa ls “kCn ^RIDDLED* dks O;ofLFkr fd;k tk

ldrk gS\

(1) 1680 (2) 840 (3) 2520 (4) 5040

DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

3. AGMSY, CIOUA, EKQWC, _____, IOUAG, KQWCI. (1) GNTYE (2) GLRYE (3) GMSYE (4) GMTXE

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”u esa ,d Js.kh esa ,d in foyqIr gSA fn;s x, fodYiksa

esa ls lgh fodYi pqusa tks Js.kh dks iwjk djrk gSA

3. AGMSY, CIOUA, EKQWC, _____, IOUAG, KQWCI-

(1) GNTYE (2) GLRYE (3) GMSYE (4) GMTXE

4. A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the cube is: (1) √π : √6 (2) √6 : √π (3) √2 : √π (4) None of these

4. ,d xksyk ,oa ?ku dk lrgh ks=Qy cjkcj gSA xksys ds vk;ru ls

?ku ds vk;ru dk vuqikr gksxk%

(1) √π : √6 (2) √6 : √π (3) √2 : √π (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

DIRECTIONS: (Question nos. 5 to 7) There are 3 types of industries, paper, drug and toy industry. Six workers A, B, C, D, E and F work in these industries. Only two of them can work in one industry. No one can work in more than one industry. ‘A’ does not work in paper industry. ‘B’ and ‘E’ do not work in toy industry. ‘A’ and ‘B’ do not work in the same industry. ‘D’ does not work in drug industry. ‘A’ and ‘D’ do not work in toy industry. ‘E’ and ‘F’ are not in the same industry.

5. Which two workers work in the drug industry? (1) AE (2) EB (3) CF (4) None of these

funsZ”k% ¼ç”u la[;k 5 ls 7½ dkxt] vkS’kf/k ,oa f[kykSuk rhu çdkj ds

m|ksx gSaA N% etnwj A, B, C, D, E ,oa F bu m|ksxks esa dke djrs gSaA buesa ls dsoy nks O;fä ,d m|ksx esa dke dj ldrs gSaA dksbZ Hkh ,d ls

vf/kd m|ksx esa dk;Z ugha dj ldrkA A dkxt m|ksx esa dk;Z ugha djrkA B ,oa E f[kykSuk m|ksx esa dk;Z ugha djrsA A ,oa B ,d gh m|ksx esa dk;Z ugha djrsA D vkS’kf/k m|ksx esa dk;Z ugha djrkA A ,oa D f[kykSuk m|ksx esa

dk;Z ugha djrsA E ,oa F ,d gh m|ksx esa dk;Z ugha djrsA

5. dkSu&ls nks etnwj vkS’kf/k m|ksx esa dk;Z djrs gSa%

(1) AE (2) EB (3) CF (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

6. Which two work in the paper industry? (1) AE (2) EB (3) BD (4) None of these

6. dkSu&ls nks etnwj dkxt m|ksx esa dk;Z djrs gSa%

(1) AE (2) EB (3) BD (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

7. Paper, Drug and Toy are represented by which of the following respectively? (1) ACD (2) EFD (3) BAC (4) None of these

7. dkxt] vkS’kf/k ,oa f[kykSuk Øe”k% fdlds kjk çnf”kZr fd;k tkrk gS\

(1) ACD (2) EFD (3) BAC (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

(SET-02) PAPER – I [ 9 3 6 1 2 4 ] D6MX6ECS [ A–1 ]

8. Which of the following occurred first: (1) Jallianwallah Massacre (2) Dandi March (3) Champaran Satyagraha (4) Khilafat Movement

8. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk igys ?kfVr gqvk%

(1) tfy;kaokyk tulagkj

(2) MkaMh ekpZ

(3) pEikju lR;kxzg

(4) f[kykQr vkUnksyu

9. Which of the following represents the statement that some of the psychologists are philosophers. Some philosophers are writers. But no psychologist is a writer.

(1) B (2) A (3) D (4) C

9. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk bl dFku dks çnf”kZr djrk gS fd dqN

euksoSKkfud nk”kZfud gSaA dqN nk”kZfud ys[kd gSaA ysfdu dksbZ Hkh

euksoSKkfud ys[kd ugha gS%

(1) B (2) A (3) D (4) C

10. If x32–

53

3)729()243( =× then the value of x is.

(1) –2 (2) –1 (3) 1 (4) None of these

10. ;fn x32–

53

3)729()243( =× ] rks x dk eku gSA

(1) –2 (2) –1 (3) 1 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

11. The velocity of a shell leaving the gun is 300 m/sec. Two shots are fired, first with elevation of barrel at 30° and second with elevation 60°. The range achieved by the first will be: (1) More than the second (2) Less than the second (3) Same as the second (4) Half the second

11. cUnwd ls fudyh gqbZ xksyh dk osx 300 eh-@ls- gSA nks xksfy;ka nkxh tkrh gSA çFke cSjy dh Å¡pkbZ 30° ij djds nwljk 60° djdsA bl çdkj çFke ls ijkl çkIr gksxh

(1) nwljs ls vf/kd

(2) nwljs ls de

(3) nwljs ds cjkcj

(4) nwljs dk vk/kk

12. Count the number of rectangles in the following figure:

(1) 8 (2) 17 (3) 18 (4) None of these

12. fuEufyf[kr fp= esa vk;rksa dh la[;k dh x.kuk djsa%

(1) 8 (2) 17 (3) 18 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

13. The circumference of a semicircle of area 1925 sq. cm is equal to the breadth of a rectangle. If the length of the rectangle is equal to the perimeter of a square of side 48 cm. What is the perimeter of the rectangle? (1) 734 cm (2) 744 cm (3) 755 cm (4) None of these

13. 1925 oxZ lseh- ks=Qy okys ,d v/kZo`Ùk dh ijhf/k ,d vk;r ds

pkSM+kbZ ds cjkcj gSA ;fn vk;r dh yEckbZ ,d 48 lseh- Hkqtk okys oxZ ds ifjeki ds cjkcj gSA rks vk;r dk ifjeki D;k gS\

(1) 734 lseh- (2) 744 lseh- (3) 755 lseh- (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

14. A cloth merchant sold half of his cloth at 40% profit, half of remaining at 40% loss and rest was sold at cost price. In total transaction his gain or loss will be? (1) 20% gain (2) 25% gain (3) 10% gain (4) 15% loss

14. ,d diM+k O;kikjh vius vk/ks diM+s dks 40% ykHk ij csprk gS] ,oa

“ks’k dk vk/kk 40% dh gkfu ij ,oa ckdh ykxr ewY; ij csprk gSA

dqy lkSns ij mls fdruk ykHk ;k gkfu gksxk\

(1) 20% ykHk (2) 25% ykHk

(3) 10% ykHk (4) 15% gkfu

15. Khaira disease of paddy is due to soil deficiency of: (1) Zinc (2) Iron (3) Potassium (4) Boron

15. /kku esa [kSjk jksx Hkwfe esa fdldh deh ds dkj.k gS%

(1) tLrk (2) yksgk (3) iksVSf”k;e (4) cksjku


16. “The State shall endeavor to provide early childhood care and education of all children until they complete the age of six years”. This is a provision under: (1) Article 21A of the constitution of India relating to

fundamental right enumerated in part III. (2) Article 51A relating to Fundamental duties enumerated

in Part IV A of The Constitution of India (3) Article 45 relating to directive principles of state policy

enumerated in part IV of the constitution of India (4) Article 38 of the directive principles of State policy to

secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people

16. ßjkT;] lHkh cPpksa dks tc rd dh os N% o’kZ dh vk;q ugha çkIr dj

ysrs] muds çkjfEHkd cpiu dh ns[k&js[k ,oa f”kkk çnku djsxkÞA ;g

çko/kku fdlds vUrxZr gS%

(1) Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds Hkkx&III ds vuqPNsn 21A esa of.kZr ekSfyd vf/kdkj ls lEcfU/kr

(2) Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds Hkkx&IV A ds vuqPNsn 51A esa of.kZr

ekSfyd vf/kdkj ls lEcfU/kr

(3) Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds Hkkx&IV ds vuqPNsn 45 esa of.kZr jkT; ds uhfr funsZ”kd fl)karksa ls lEcfU/kr

(4) Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds vuqPNsn 38 esa of.kZr jkT; ds uhfr funsZ”kd fl)kUr tks fd turk dh HkykbZ ,oa mRFkku dks lqfuf”pr djus

ds fy,

17. If INDIA is codified as XYZXE and GLAD is codified PMEZ then LANDING is codified as: (1) MEPZXYP (2) PZMEXYZ (3) MEYZXYP (4) MEXYZPX

17. ;fn INDIA dks dwV Hkk’kk esa XYZXE fy[kk tkrk gS vkSj GLAD

dks mlh dwV Hkk’kk esa PMEZ fy[kk tkrk gS rks LANDING dks mlh

dwV Hkk’kk esa D;k fy[kk tk,xk%

(1) MEPZXYP (2) PZMEXYZ (3) MEYZXYP (4) MEXYZPX

DIRECTIONS: Anil is the son of Bina. Chitra, who is Bina’s sister has a son Deepak and a daughter Ela. Fateh is the maternal uncle of Deepak.

18. How is Ela related to Fateh: (1) Sister (2) Wife (3) Daughter (4) Niece

funsZ”k% vfuy chuk dk iq= gSA fp=k tks chuk dh cgu dk ,d iq= nhid

vkSj ,d iq=h byk gS Qrsg nhid dk ekek gSA

18. byk dk Qrsg ls D;k lEcU/k gS%

(1) cgu (2) ifRu (3) iq=h (4) Hkrhth

19. Find the wrong number in the following series. 10, 14, 28, 32, 64, 68, 132. (1) 14 (2) 32 (3) 132 (4) 68

19. fuEufyf[kr Js.kh esa xyr la[;k dks crkb;sA

10, 14, 28, 32, 64, 68, 132. (1) 14 (2) 32 (3) 132 (4) 68

20. Which has become the first airport of the world to fully operate on solar power? (1) Jaipur International Airport (2) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel International Airport (3) Cochin International Airport Ltd. (4) Raja Bhoj International Airport

20. lEiw.kZr% lkS;Z ÅtkZ ij çpkfyr gksus okyk fo”o dk igyk ,;jiksVZ

dkSu&lk gS\

(1) t;iqj vUrjkZ’Vªh; ,;jiksVZ

(2) ljnkj oYyHk HkkbZ iVsy vUrjkZ’Vªh; ,;jiksVZ

(3) dksfPp vUrjkZ’Vªh; ,;jiksVZ fyfeVsM

(4) jktk Hkkst vUrjkZ’Vªh; ,;jiksVZ

21. Which one of the following European countries borders Atlantic ocean? (1) Portugal (2) Austria (3) Finland (4) Romania

21. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ;wjksih; ns”k vVykfUVd egklkxj dh lhek

ls tqM+k gS%

(1) iqrZxky

(2) vkfLVª;k

(3) fQuyS.M

(4) jksekfu;k

22. From the following diagram find out correct answer for the given question.

Indians who are actors but not singers: (1) b (2) c (3) f (4) g

22. fuEufyf[kr js[kkfp= ls fn;s x, ç”u dk lgh mÙkj Kkr djsaA

Hkkjrh; tks vfHkusrk gSa ijUrq xk;d ugha gSa%

(1) b (2) c (3) f (4) g


23. New Horizons became the first space probe to reach closest to Pluto recently. This is a mission by: (1) ISRO (2) ESA (3) NASA (4) FKA & RKA

23. New Horizons IywVks ds fudV igq¡pus okyk igyk varfjk çksc

;ku cukA ;g fe”ku fdldk gS%

(1) ISRO (2) ESA (3) NASA (4) FKA ,oa RKA

DIRECTIONS: Select the suitable alternative to satisfy the relationship in the following question. funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”u esa muds lEcU/kksa dks lUrq’V djus okys lgh fodYi dks pqfu,A

24. Question figure ¼ç”u vkÑfr½ Answer figure ¼mÙkj vkÑfr½ +

+

+

+

+

+

+

+

+

+

+

+

+

+ 24. (1) (2) (3) (4)

DIRECTIONS: Select the suitable alternative to satisfy the relationship in the following question. funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”u esa muds lEcU/kksa dks lUrq’V djus okys lgh fodYi dks pqfu,A

25. Question figure ¼ç”u vkÑfr½ Answer figure ¼mÙkj vkÑfr½

25. (1) (2) (3) (4)

26. Aman and Babu can complete the work in 4 days. Aman alone starts working and leaves it after working for 3 days, completing only half of the work. In how many days, it can be completed if the remaining job is undertaken by Babu: (1) 4 days (2) 6 days (3) 5 days (4) None of these

26. veu ,oa ckcw ,d dk;Z dks 4 fnu esa iw.kZ djrs gSaA veu vdsys ml

dk;Z dks djuk çkjEHk djrk gS ,oa ml dk;Z ij 3 fnu dk;Z djds dsoy vk/kk iwjk djus ds ckn NksM+ nsrk gSA fdrus fnuksa esa “ks’k dk;Z

iwjk gksxk ;fn ;g ckcw kjk fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) 4 fnu esa (2) 6 fnu esa (3) 5 fnu esa (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

27. In three vessels, the ratio of water and milk is 6:7, 5:9 and 8:7 respectively. If the mixtures of the three vessels are mixed then what is the ratio of water and milk? (1) 3691:4499 (2) 2431:3781 (3) 4381:5469 (4) None of these

27. rhu ik=ksa esa ty ,oa nw/k dk vuqikr Øe”k% 6:7, 5:9 ,oa 8:7 gSA ;fn rhu ik=ksa ds feJ.k dks fefJr fd;k tkrk gS] rks ty ,oa nw/k

dk vuqikr D;k gksxk\

(1) 3691:4499 (2) 2431:3781 (3) 4381:5469 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

28. ‘Indian Standard Meridian’ passes through the states of: (1) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhatishgarh,

Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh (2) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal (3) Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat and

Madhya Pradesh (4) Tamilnadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and

West Bengal

28. ^bafM;u LVS.MMZ esfjfM;u* fdu jkT;ksa ls gksdj xqtjrk gS%

(1) mÙkj&çns”k] e/;&çns”k] NÙkhlx<+] vksfM”kk ,oa vkU/kz çns”k (2) mÙkj&çns”k] fcgkj] >kj[k.M] vksfM”kk ,oa if”pe&caxky

(3) mÙkj&çns”k] jktLFkku] egkjk’Vª] xqtjkr ,oa e/;&çns”k

(4) rfeyukMw] dukZVd] vkU/kz&çns”k] vksfM”kk ,oa if”pe&caxky

29. If interest payments are subtracted from gross fiscal deficit, the remainder will be: (1) Revenue deficit (2) Gross primary deficit (3) Capital deficit (4) Budgetary deficit

29. ;fn ldy jktLo ?kkVs ls C;kt dk Hkqxrku ?kVk;k tkrk gS rks “ks’kQy

gksxk%

(1) vk; ?kkVk (2) ldy ç/kku ?kkVk (3) iw¡th ?kkVk (4) ctV ?kkVk

30. Who was the famous poet who was deeply affected by Tagore’s Gitanjali? (1) Eliot (2) Auden (3) Yeats (4) Pound

30. dkSu&ls çfl) dfo gSa tks VSxksj dh xhrkatyh ls dkQh çHkkfor gSa%

(1) byh;V (2) vkWMsu

(3) ;hV~l (4) ikWm.M


31. A person mixes three varieties of wheat costing Rs. 20/- kg, Rs. 24/- kg and Rs. 30/- kg in the ratio of 1:5:2 and sells the mixture at a profit of 20%. Find the selling price of the mixture when it is sold at 33% profit: (1) Rs. 30/- kg (2) Rs. 33.25/- kg (3) Rs. 39.9/- kg (4) None of these

31. ,d O;fä 1:5:2 ds vuqikr esa xsgw¡ dh rhu çtkfr;k¡ xsgw¡ dh ykxr

#- 20/- fdxzk-] #- 24/- fdxzk- ,oa #- 30/- fdxzk- gS] dks fefJr djrk gS ,oa feJ.k dks 20% ykHk ij csprk gSA feJ.k dk foØ;

ewY; Kkr djsa ;fn ;g 33% ds ykHk ij cspk tkrk gS%

(1) #- 30/- fdxzk- (2) #- 33.25/- fdxzk- (3) #- 39.9/- fdxzk- (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

32. Match the trophies associated with the respective games: TROPHIES GAMES A. Agha Khan Cup 1. Cricket B. Duleep Trophy 2. Football C. Wellignton Trophy 3. Hockey D. Ezra Cup 4. Polo E. Subroto Cup 5. Rowing

(1) A4, B5, C3, D1, E2 (2) A3, B1, C4, D5, E2 (3) A2, B3, C4, D5, E1 (4) A3, B1, C5, D4, E2

32. VªkQh ftu [ksyksa ls lEcfU/kr gS] mUgs lqesfyr djsa%

VªkQh [ksy

A. vkxk [kku di 1. fØdsV

B. nqyhi VªkQh 2. QqVckWy

C. osfyaxVu VªkQh 3. gkWdh

D. bt+jk di 4. iksyks

E. lqczksrks di 5. jksfoax

(1) A4, B5, C3, D1, E2 (2) A3, B1, C4, D5, E2 (3) A2, B3, C4, D5, E1 (4) A3, B1, C5, D4, E2

33. A triangle has two of its angles in the ratio of 1:2. If the measure of one of its angles is 30 degrees. What is the measure of the largest angle of the triangle in degree? (1) 100 (2) 90 (3) 135 (4) Can not be determined

33. ,d f=Hkqt ds nks dks.k 1:2 ds vuqikr esa gSaA ;fn blds ,d dks.k dk

ekiu 30 fMxzh gSA rks f=Hkqt ds lcls cM+s dks.k dk ekiu fMxzh esa gS\

(1) 100 (2) 90 (3) 135 (4) fu/kkZfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk

34. The alloy containing copper, tin and zinc in the ratio of 87:10:3 is called: (1) Bronze (2) Brass (3) Solder (4) Gun metal

34. 87:10:3 vuqikr esa feJ/kkrq ftlesa rk¡ck] fVu ,oa tLrk jgrk gS]

mls dgrs gSa%

(1) dk¡L; (2) ihry (3) lksYMj (4) xu esVy

35. Which portion of the heart receives oxygenated blood: (1) Left auricle (2) Right auricle (3) Left ventricle (4) Right ventricle

35. ân; dk dkSu&lk fgLlk vkDlhtfur :f/kj çkIr djrk gS\

(1) oke mRdks"B (2) nfk.k mRkdks"B (3) oke fuy; (4) nfk.k fuy;

36. A form of Hindustani music known as ‘Khayal’ evolved during the 13th & 14th centruries. The proponent of the style is known as: (1) Ustad Bismillah Khan (2) Ustad Amir Khan (3) Amir Khusro (4) Thyagaraja

36. fgUnqLrkuh laxhr dk ,d Lo:i ^[;ky* ftldh mRifÙk 13oha ,oa 14oha 'krkCnh ds e/; gqvkA bl 'kSyh ds çLrkod dks fdl uke ls

tkurs gSa%

(1) mLrkn fclfeYykg [kk¡u

(2) mLrkn vkehj [kk¡u

(3) vehj [kqljks

(4) R;kxjkt

37. The first Indian to receive Nobel Prize: (1) Dr. C.V. Raman (2) Rabindra Nath Tagore (3) Mother Teresa (4) Dr. Hargobind Khorana

37. ukscsy iqjLdkj ikus okys çFke Hkkjrh; Fks%

(1) MkW- lh- oh- jeu

(2) jfcUæ ukFk VSxksj

(3) enj Vsjslk

(4) MkW- gjxksfcUn [kqjkuk

38. When we consider 15° meridian on a world map or globe and count them in an eastward direction starting with Greenwich meridian (0°), we find that the time of this meridian is: (1) Same as Greenwich (2) 1 hour fast (3) 1 hour slow (4) 12 hour fast

38. tc ge fo”o ekufp= ij 15° ;kE;ksrj js[kk ekurs gSa ,oa xzhufop ;kE;ksrj js[kk ¼0°½ ls “kq: djds iwjc dh vksj x.kuk djrs gSa] rks

ge bl ;kE;ksrj js[kk dk dky ikrs gSa%

(1) Bhd ogh tks xzhufop dk gS

(2) 1 ?kaVk rst (3) 1 ?kaVk /khek (4) 12 ?kaVk rst


39. Out of a total of 85 children playing Badminton or Table Tennis or both. Total number of girls in the group is 70% of the total number of boys in the group. The number of boys playing only Badminton is 50% of the number of boys and total number of boys playing Badminton is 60% of the total number of boys. Number of children only playing Table Tennis is 40% of the total number of children and a total of 12 children play Badminton and Table Tennis both. What is the number of girls playing only Badminton? (1) 16 (2) 14 (3) 17 (4) None of these

39. dqy 85 cPpksa esa ls cSMfeUVu ;k Vscy Vsful ;k nksuksa [ksy jgs gSaA leqnk; esa yM+fd;ksa dh dqy la[;k leqnk; esa yM+dksa dh dqy la[;k

dk 70% gSA dsoy cSMfeUVu [ksyus okys yM+dksa dh la[;k dqy yM+dks

dh la[;k dk 50% gS ,oa cSMfeUVu [ksyus okys yM+dksa dh la[;k

dqy yM+dksa dh la[;k dk 60% gSA dsoy Vsfcy Vsful [ksyus okys

dqy cPpksa dh la[;k dk 40% gS ,oa dqy 12 cPps cSMfeUVu ,oa Vsfcy Vsful nksuksa [ksyrs gSaA yM+fd;ksa fd og la[;k D;k gS tks dsoy

cSMfeUVu [ksy jgh gSa\


40. How many squares can be formed by joining the center of the circles by horizontal and vertical lines:

(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) None of these

40. bl o`Ùk ds dsUæ esa cus fcUnqvksa dks kSfrt ,oa yEcor js[kkvksa kjk

tksM+rs gq, dqy fdrus oxZ cu ldrs gSa%


41. A cistern has two pipes attached to it, one to supply and one to draw off. If both the pipes are opened together, the cistern is filled in 9 hours but if the waste pipe is opened one hour after the supply pipe, the cistern is filled in 7 hours. The time that will be taken by the supply pipe to fill the empty cistern is: (1) 2 hrs. 47 minutes (2) 3 hrs. 30 minutes (3) 3 hrs. 32 minutes (4) 3 hrs.

41. ,d Vadh esa nks ikbZi yxs gq, gSa& ,d vkiwfrZ ds fy;s ,oa nwljk

fudkl ds fy;sA ;fn nksuksa ikbZi ,d lkFk [kksys tkrs gSa] rks Vadh 9 ?kaVs esa Hkj tkrh gS] ijUrq ;fn osLV ikbZi vkiwfrZ ikbZi ds [kqyus ds

,d ?kaVs ckn [kksyk tkrk gS rks Vadh dks Hkjus esa 7 ?kaVs yxrs gSaA [kkyh Vadh dks Hkjus ds fy;s vkiwfrZ ikbZi kjk fdruk le; yxsxk%

(1) 2 ?kaVs 47 feuV (2) 3 ?kaVs 30 feuV (3) 3 ?kaVs 32 feuV (4) 3 ?kaVs

42. The first woman in NASA history to command space flight: (1) Kalpana Chawla (2) Sally Ride (3) Eilean Collins (4) None of these

42. uklk ds bfrgkl esa vUrjhk ;ku dks dekUM djus okyh çFke efgyk

Fkh%

(1) dYiuk pkoyk

(2) lSyh jkbZM

(3) ,ysu dksfyUl

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

43. In an examination, pass marks are 36% of maximum marks. If an examine gets 17 marks and fails by 10 marks in this examination, what are the maximum marks? (1) 50 (2) 75 (3) 85 (4) 100

43. ,d ijhkk esa lQy gksus dk vad vf/kdre vad dk 36% gSA ;fn

,d ijhkkFkÊ 17 vad ikrk gS ,oa 10 vad ls ijhkk esa Qsy gks tkrk

gS] rks vf/kdre vad D;k gS\

(1) 50 (2) 75 (3) 85 (4) 100

44. If 232–3x

+= and

2–323y +

= , then find the value of

x2+xy+y2. (1) 97 (2) 98 (3) 99 (4) None of these

44. ;fn 232–3x

+= ,oa

2–323y +

= ] rks x2+xy+y2 dk eku

Kkr dhft,A


45. Rhine valley in France is known for mineral deposits of: (1) Bauxite (2) Copper (3) Nickel (4) Zinc

45. Ýkal esa fLFkr jkbZu ?kkVh dks fdl [kfut inkFkZ ds fy, tkuk tkrk gS%

(1) ckWDlkbZV (2) rk¡ck (3) fudy (4) tLrk


TECHNICAL (APTITUDE)46. An FM signal with modulation index mƒ is passed

through a frequency tripler. The modulation index of the output signal will be

(1) mƒ (2) 3mƒ

(3) 9mƒ (4) 27mƒ

46. ekMwyu lwpdkad mf ls ;qDr ,d FM ladsr dks ,d vko`fRr f=xqf.k=

ds ek/;e ls xqtkjk tkrk gSA fuxZe ladsr dk ekMwyu lwpdkad gksxk%

(1) mƒ (2) 3mƒ

(3) 9mƒ (4) 27mƒ

47. What is the correct sequence of the following step in the fabrication of a monolithic, bipolar junction transistor? 1. Emitter diffusion 2. Base diffusion 3. Buried layer formation 4. Epi–layer formation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(1) 3, 4, 1, 2 (2) 4, 3, 1, 2 (3) 3, 4, 2, 1 (4) 4, 3, 2, 1

47. ,dk”eh] f/kzqoh; laf/k VªkaftLVj ds lafojpu esa uhps of.kZr dneksa dk

lgh Øe D;k gS\ 1. mRltZd folj.k 2. vk/kkfjd folj.k 3. varfgZr ijr fuekZ.k 4. Epi-ijr fuekZ.k

uhps fn, x, dksMksa dk iz;ksx djrs gq, lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa

(1) 3, 4, 1, 2 (2) 4, 3, 1, 2 (3) 3, 4, 2, 1 (4) 4, 3, 2, 1

48. Two sinusoidal signals having the same amplitude and frequency are applied to the X and Y inputs of a CRO. The observed Lissajous figure is straight line. The phase shift between the two signals would be (1) Zero (2) 90 degrees (3) Either zero or 180 degrees (4) Either 90 degrees or 270 degrees

48. ,d gh vk;ke vkSj vko`fRr okys nks T;koØh; ladsr ,d CRO ds X vkSj Y fuos”kksa ij ykxw fd, tkrs gSaA izsfkr fylktl vkjs[k ,d

lh/kh js[kk gSA nks ladsrksa ds chp dyk foLFkkiu gksxk% (1) “kwU; (2) 90° (3) “kwU; ;k 180° (4) ;k 90° ;k 270°

49. In a BJT circuit a pnp transistor is replaced by npn transistor. To analyse the new circuit (1) All calculations done earlier have to be repeated (2) Replace all calculated voltages by reverse values (3) Replace all calculated currents by reverse values (4) Replace all calculated voltages and currents by

reverse values

49. BJT ifjiFk esa ,d pnp VªkaftLVj dks npn VªkaftLVj kjk foLFkkfir dj fn;k tkrk gSA u, ifjiFk dk fo”ys’k.k djus ds fy,% (1) iwoZ esa nh xbZ lHkh x.kukvksa dh iqujko`fRr dh tkuh gS (2) lHkh ifjdfyr oksYVrkvksa dks izrhi ekuksa ls foLFkkfir djsa (3) lHkh ifjdfyr /kkjkvksa dks izrhi ekuksa kjk foLFkkfir djsa (4) lHkh ifjdfyr oksYVrkvksa vkSj /kkjkvksa dks izrhi ekuksa ls

foLFkkfir djsa

50. In 8085 microprocessor, the value of the most significant bit of the result following the execution of any arithmetic of Boolean instruction is stored in the (1) Carry status flag (2) Auxiliary carry status flag (3) Sign status flag (4) Zero status flag

50. 8085 ekbØksizkslslj esa cwyh; vuqns”k ds fdlh Hkh xf.kr ds fu’iknu

ds QyLo:i ifj.kke ds lokZf/kd egRoiw.kZ fcV dk eku fuEu esa

lafpr jgrk gS% (1) okgd voLFkk irkdk (2) lgk;d okgd voLFkk irkdk (3) ladsr voLFkk irkdk (4) “kwU; voLFkk irkdk

51. The analog signal m(t) is given below m(t) = 4 cos 100 pt + 8 sin 200 pt + cos 300 pt, the Nyquist sampling rate will be: (1) 1/100 (2) 1/200 (3) 1/300 (4) 1/600

51. ,sukykx ladsr m(t) uhps fn;k x;k gS] m(t) = 4 cos 100 pt + 8 sin 200 pt + cos 300 pt, ukbZfDoLV izfrp;u nj gksxh%

(1) 1/100 (2) 1/200 (3) 1/300 (4) 1/600

52. Find the noise factor for an antenna at 27°C with equivalent noise temperature 30°K: (1) 20 (2) 100 (3) 300 (4) 1.1

52. 30°K lerqY; jo rkieku ls ;qDr ,saVhuk dk 27°C ij jo xq.kd Kkr djsa%

(1) 20 (2) 100 (3) 300 (4) 1.1

53. Inverse Laplace transform of )2S)(3s(

5s2++

+ is:

(1) 2 exp (– 2.5 t) cosh (0.5 t) (2) exp (– 2 t) + exp (– 3 t) (3) 2 exp (– 2.5 t) sinh (0.5 t) (4) 2 exp (– 2.5 t) cos 0.5 t

53. )2S)(3s(

5s2++

+ dk izrhi ykIykl :ikarj.k gS%

(1) 2 exp (– 2.5 t) cosh (0.5 t) (2) exp (– 2 t) + exp (– 3 t) (3) 2 exp (– 2.5 t) sinh (0.5 t) (4) 2 exp (– 2.5 t) cos 0.5 t


54. The analog signal given below is sampled by 600 samples per second for m(t) = 3 sin 500 pt + 2 sin 700 pt then folding frequency is: (1) 500 Hz (2) 700 Hz (3) 300 Hz (4) 1400 Hz

54. uhps fn;k x;k ,sukykx ladsr m(t) = 3 sin 500 pt + 2 sin 700 pt ds fy, izfr lsdaM 600 uewuksa kjk izfrpf;r fd;k tkrk gS rks oyu vko`fRr gS%

(1) 500 Hz (2) 700 Hz (3) 300 Hz (4) 1400 Hz

55. Which one most appropriate dynamic system? (1) y(n) + y(n – 1) + y(n + 1) (2) y(n) + y(n – 1) (3) y(n) = x(n) (4) y(n) + y(n – 1) + y(n + 3) = 0

55. fuEu esa ls dkSu lokZf/kd mi;qDr xfrd iz.kkyh gS\

(1) y(n) + y(n – 1) + y(n + 1) (2) y(n) + y(n – 1) (3) y(n) = x(n) (4) y(n) + y(n – 1) + y(n + 3) = 0

56. In which of these is reverse recovery time nearly zero? (1) Zener diode (2) Tunnel diode (3) Schottky diode (4) PIN diode

56. fuEu esa ls fdlesa izrhi iqu%izkfIr dky yxHkx “kwU; gS\ (1) thuj Mk;ksM (2) lqjax Mk;ksM (3) LdkVdh Mk;ksM (4) fiu Mk;ksM

57. Frequency shift keying is used mostly in: (1) Telegraphy (2) Telephony (3) Satellite communication (4) Radio transmission

57. vko`fRr foLFkkiu dqath;u dk iz;ksx vf/kdka”kr% fuEu esa gksrk gS%

(1) VsyhxzkQh

(2) VsyhQksuh

(3) mixzg lapkj

(4) jsfM;ks izlkj.k

58. A parallel polarized wave is incident from air into paraffin having relative permittivity 3, the value of its Brewster angle is: (1) 0° (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 60°

58. ,d lekukarj /kzqfor rjax] ok;q ls lkisk vuqeR;rk 3 j[kus okys

iSjkQhu esa vkifrr gS] blds c`;wLVj dks.k dk eku gS%

(1) 0° (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 60°

59. The phase angle corresponding to λ/4 in a standing–wave pattern is: (1) 30° (2) 90° (3) 135° (4) 180°

59. vizxkeh rjax izfr:i esa λ/4 ds vuq:i dykdks.k gS%

(1) 30° (2) 90° (3) 135° (4) 180°

60. A 10 km long line has a characteristic impedance of 400 ohms. If line length is 100 km, the characteristic impedance is: (1) 4000 Ω (2) 400 Ω (3) 40 Ω (4) 4 Ω

60. ,d 10 fdyksehVj yach ykbu esa 400 ohms dh vfHkykf.kd

izfrck/kk gSA ;fn ykbu dh yackbZ 100 fdyksehVj gks rks vfHkykf.kd

izfrck/kk gS%

(1) 4000 Ω (2) 400 Ω (3) 40 Ω (4) 4 Ω

61. The output of an exclusive–NOR gate is 1. Which input combination is correct? (1) A = 1, B = 0 (2) A = 0, B = 1 (3) A = 0, B = 0 (4) None of these

61. ,d ^viothZ&NOR* kj dk fuxZe 1 gSA dkSu&lk fuos”kh la;kstu lgh gS\

(1) A = 1, B = 0 (2) A = 0, B = 1 (3) A = 0, B = 0 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

62. In figure v1 = 8 V and v2 = 4 V. Which diode will conduct?

(1) D2 only (2) D1 only (3) Both D1 and D2 (4) Neither D1 nor D2

62. fp= v1 = 8 V rFkk v2 = 4 V, dkSulk Mk;ksM pkyu djsxk\

(1) dsoy D2 (2) dsoy D1 (3) nksuksa D1 rFkk D2 (4) u D1 u D2


63. Determine the output frequency for a frequency division circuit that contains 12 flip–flops with an input clock frequency of 20.48 MHz: (1) 10.24 kHz (2) 5 kHz (3) 30.24 kHz (4) 15 kHz

63. vko`fRr foHkktu ifjiFk ds fy, ftlesa 12 f¶yi ¶yki gSa 20.48 MHz dh bUiqV dkye vko`fRr ds lkFk fuxZe vko`fRr fu/kkZfjr djsa%

(1) 10.24 kHz (2) 5 kHz (3) 30.24 kHz (4) 15 kHz

64. Initially the number decimal 8 is stored. If instruction RAL is executed twice, the final number stored will be: (1) Decimals 8 (2) Decimal 16 (3) Decimal 32 (4) Decimal 2

64. izkjaHk esa n”keyo 8 la[;k lafpr dh tkrh gSA ;fn vuqns”k RAL nks ckj fu’ikfnr fd;k tkrk gS] lafpr vafre la[;k gksxh% (1) n”keyo 8 (2) n”keyo 16 (3) n”keyo 32 (4) n”keyo 2

65. The output of an AND gate with three inputs, A, B, and C, is HIGH when ________: (1) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0 (2) A = 0, B = 0, C = 0 (3) A = 1, B = 1, C = 1 (4) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1

65. A, B, rFkk C & rhu fuos”kksa ls ;qDr ^AND* kj dk fuxZe mPp

gksrk gS tc ________.

(1) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0 (2) A = 0, B = 0, C = 0 (3) A = 1, B = 1, C = 1 (4) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1

66. The gain of an FET amplifier can be changed by changing: (1) rm (2) gm(3) Rd (4) None of these

66. FET ,EIyhQk;j dh yfC/k fuEu dks cnydj cnyh tk ldrh gS%

(1) rm (2) gm

(3) Rd (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

67. In the case of a 70–MHz IF carrier for a transponder bandwidth of 36 MHz, energy must lie between MHz: (1) 34 and 106 (2) 52 and 88 (3) 106 and 142 (4) 34 and 142

67. 36 MHz dh VªkaLikS.Mj cSaMfoM~Fk ds fy, 70-MHz IF okgd ds ekeys esa ÅtkZ vfuok;Zr% fuEu MHz ds chp gksuh pkfg,%

(1) 34 vkSj 106 (2) 52 vkSj 88 (3) 106 vkSj 142 (4) 34 vkSj 142

68. In a full wave rectifier circuit using centre tapped transformer, the peak voltage across half of the secondary winding is 30 V. Then PIV is: (1) 30 V (2) 60 V (3) 15 V (4) 10 V

68. dsUnz va”k fu’dkflr ifj.kkfe= dk iz;ksx djus okys iw.kZ rjax

fn’Vdkjh ifjiFk esa frh;d okbafMax ifjiFk ds vk/ks fgLls ds chp

pje oksYVrk 30 V gSA rc PIV gS%

(1) 30 V (2) 60 V (3) 15 V (4) 10 V

69. The Lissajous pattern observed on screen of CRO is a straight line inclined at 45° to x axis. If X–plate input is 2 sin ωt, the Y–plate input is

(1) 2 sin ωt (2) 2 sin (ωt + 45°) (3) 2 sin (ωt – 45°) (4) 22 sin ωt + 45°)

69. CRO ds LØhu ij ns[kk tkus okyk fylktw izfr:i x vk ij 45° ij vkur ,d lh/kh js[kk gksrh gSA ;fn X&IysV fuos”k 2 sin ωt gS rks Y-IysV fuos”k gS%

(1) 2 sin ωt (2) 2 sin (ωt + 45°) (3) 2 sin (ωt – 45°) (4) 22 sin ωt + 45°)

70. The input impedance of op–amp circuit of figure is:

(1) 120 k ohm (2) 110 k ohm (3) Infinity (4) 10 k ohm

70. uhps fn, x, fp= ds op-amp ifjiFk dh fuos”k izfrck/kk gS%

(1) 120 k ohm (2) 110 k ohm (3) Infinity (4) 10 k ohm


71. In a CRO which of the following is not a part of electron gun: (1) Cathode (2) Grid (3) Accelerating anode (4) X–Y plates

71. ,d CRO esa fuEu esa ls dkSu bysDVªksu canwd dk fgLlk ugha gksrk\ (1) dSFkksM

(2) fxzM (3) Rojd ,suksM

(4) X–Y IysVsa

72. A 1 µF capacitor is connected to 12 V battery. The energy stored in the capacitor is: (1) 12×10–6 J (2) 24×10–6 J (3) 48×10–6 J (4) 72×10–6 J

72. ,d 1 µF la/kkfj= dks 12 V cSVjh ds lkFk la;ksftr fd;k tkrk gSA la/kkfj= eas lafpr ÅtkZ gS%

(1) 12×10–6 J (2) 24×10–6 J (3) 48×10–6 J (4) 72×10–6 J

73. For a transmission line open circuit and short circuit impedances are 20 Ω and 5 Ω. Then characteristic impedance is: (1) 100 Ω (2) 50 Ω (3) 25 Ω (4) 10 Ω

73. ,d lapj.k ykbu ds fy, foo`r ifjiFk vkSj y?kqiFk izfrck/kka 20 Ω rFkk 5 Ω gS] rks vfHkykf.kd izfrck/kk gS%

(1) 100 Ω (2) 50 Ω (3) 25 Ω (4) 10 Ω

74. Find i(t) if )3s)(4s(

1s)s(++

+=I :

(1) 3e–4t – e–5t

(2) 3e–4t – 2e–3t

(3) 2e–4t – 5e–2t

(4) None of these

74. i(t) Kkr djsa ;fn )3s)(4s(

1s)s(++

+=I %

(1) 3e–4t – e–5t

(2) 3e–4t – 2e–3t

(3) 2e–4t – 5e–2t

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

75. A capacitor used for power factor correction in single phase circuit decreases: (1) Power factor (2) Line current (3) Both line current and p.f. (4) The line current and increases p.f.

75. ,dy dyk ifjiFk esa fo|qr la”kqf) x.kd ds fy, iz;qDr la/kkfj= ?kVk

nsrk gS% (1) fo|qr x.kd (2) ykbu /kkjk (3) ykbu /kkjk vkSj fo|qr x.kd & nksuksa (4) ykbu /kkjk dks ?kVkrk gS vkSj fo|qr x.kd dks c<+krk gS

76. The negative sign in the expression e = – N (d∅)/dt is due to: (1) The Fleming’s Rule (2) Thumb’s Rule (3) Faraday’s Law (4) Lenz’s Law

76. vfHkO;fDr e = - N (d∅)/dt esa _.kkRed ladsr ¼&½ fuEu dkj.k ls

gS% (1) ¶ysfeax fu;e (2) O;kogkfjd fu;e (3) QSjkMs fu;e (4) ysat fu;e

77. Form factor is the ratio of: (1) Maximum value to r.m.s. value (2) Maximum value to average value (3) r.m.s value to average value (4) r.m.s. value to instantaneous value

77. vkd`fr xq.kd fuEu dk vuqikr gksrk gS% (1) r.m.s. eku ds izfr vf/kdre eku (2) vkSlr eku ds izfr vf/kdre eku (3) vkSlr eku ds izfr r.m.s eku (4) rkRkf.kd eku ds izfr r.m.s. eku

78. The number of valence electrons in pentavalent impurity is: (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 1

78. iapla;ksth v”kq)rk esa la;kstdrk bysDVªksuksa dh la[;k gksrh gS%

(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 1

79. Material which lack permanent magnetic dipoles are known as: (1) Paramagnetic (2) Diamagnetic (3) Ferromagnetic (4) Ferrimagnetic

79. tks lkexzh LFkk;h pqacdh; f/kzqoksa ls foghu gksrh gS] dgykrh gS% (1) v/kZpqacdh; (2) fpqacdh; (3) yksgpqacdh; (4) Qsjh&pqacdh;

80. The primary function of the bias circuit is to: (1) Hold the circuit stable at VCC

(2) Hold the circuit stable at vin

(3) Ensure proper gain is achieved (4) Hold the circuit stable at the designed Q-point

80. ck;flr ifjiFk dk eq[; dk;Z gksrk gS% (1) ifjiFk dks VCC ij fLFkj j[kuk (2) ifjiFk dks vin ij fLFkj j[kuk (3) ;g lqfuf”pr djuk dh leqfpr yfC/k izkIr gksrh gS (4) ifjiFk dks vfHkdfYir Q&fcanq ij fLFkj j[kuk


81. The transconductance of a JFET is computed at constant VDS by: (1) Ratio of change in Idto change of Vgs

(2) Ratio of change inVgs to change ofId(3) Product of change in Vgs to change of Id(4) Ratio of change in Vds to change of Id

81. vpj VDS ij JFET dh varjkpkydrk fuEu kjk ekih tkrh gS%

(1) Vgs ds ifjorZu ds izfr Id esa ifjorZu dk vuqikr (2) Id ds ifjorZu ds izfr Vgs esa ifjorZu dk vuqikr (3) Vgs esa ifjorZu vkSj Id ds ifjorZu dk xq.kuQy (4) Id ds ifjorZu ds izfr Vds esa ifjorZu dk vuqikr

82. To find current in a resistance connected in a network, Thevenin's theorem is used VTH = 20 V and RTH = 5 Ω. The current through the resistance: (1) is 4 A (2) is 4 A or less (3) is less than 4 A (4) May be 4 A or less or more than 4 A

82. usVodZ esa la;ksftr çfrjks/kd] esa tkuus ds fy, Fksosfuu izes; VTH = 20 V rFkk RTH = 5 Ω dk iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gSA izfrjks/kd ds e/; ls

/kkjk%

(1) 4 A gS (2) 4 A vFkok mlls de gS (3) 4 A ls de gS (4) 4 A vFkok 4 A ls de vFkok vf/kd gks ldrh gS

83. Superposition theorem is not applicable to network containing: (1) Non linear element (2) Dependent voltage source (3) Dependent current source (4) Transformer.

83. v/;kjksi.k izes; fuEu ls ;qDr usVodZ ij ykxw ugha gksrk%

(1) xSj&jSf[kd ,syhesaV

(2) vkfJr oksYVrk lzksr

(3) vkfJr /kkjk lzksr

(4) VªkalQkeZj

84. In a microwave test bench, why is the microwave signal amplitude modulated at 1 kHz? (1) To increase the sensitivity of measurement (2) To transmit the signal to a far-off place (3) To study amplitude modulation (4) Because crystal detector fails at microwave frequencies

84. ekbØksoso ijhk.k cSap esa D;k dkj.k gS fd ekbØksoso flXuy vk;ke

dks 1 kHz ij ekM~;wyhd`r fd;k tkrk gS% (1) ekiu dh laos|rk c<+kus ds fy,

(2) flXuy dks lqnwj LFky dks lapfjr djus ds fy,

(3) vk;ke ekM~;wyu dk v/;;u djus ds fy,

(4) D;ksafd fØLVy fMVsDVj ekbØksoso vko`fRr;ksa ij vlQy jgrk gS

85. The directive gain of an antenna: (1) is less than or equal to 1 (2) is greater than or equal to 1 (3) lies between 0 and directivity of antenna (4) is greater than directivity of antenna

85. ,d ,aVhuk dh fn”kkRed yfC/k%

(1) 1 ls de vFkok mlds cjkcj gS

(2) 1 ls vf/kd vFkok mlds cjkcj gS

(3) 0 vkSj ,aVhuk dh fn”kkRedrk ds chp dh gS

(4) ,aVhuk dh fn”kkRedrk ls vf/kd gS

86. An amplifier without feedback has a voltage gain of 50, input resistance 1kΩ and output resistance of 2.5kΩ. The input resistance of the current-shunt negative feedback amplifier using the above amplifier with a feedback factor of 0.2 would be: (1) 1/11 kΩ (2) 1/5 kΩ (3) 5 kΩ (4) 11 kΩ

86. QhMcSd&foghu ,d ,EIyhQk;j dh oksYVrk yfC/k 50] bUiqV izfrjks/k 1kΩ vkSj vkmViqV izfrjks/k 2.5kΩ gSA mi;qZDr ,EIyhQk;j dk 0.2 QhMcSd xq.kkad lfgr iz;ksx djus okys ,d /kkjk&”kaV _.kkRed

QhMcSd ,EIyhQk;j dk bUiqV izfrjks/k gksxk%

(1) 1/11 kΩ (2) 1/5 kΩ (3) 5 kΩ (4) 11 kΩ

87. In amplitude modulation AM, if modulation index is more than 100% then: (1) Power of the wave increases. (2) Efficiency of transmission increases. (3) The wave gets distorted. (4) Bandwidth increases

87. vk;ke ekMwyu AM esa] ;fn ekMwyu lwpdkad 100% ls vf/kd gS rks%

(1) rjax dh “kfDr c<+ tkrh gS

(2) lapj.k dh izHkkfork c<+ tkrh gS

(3) rjax fo:fir gks tkrh gS

(4) cSaMfoM~Fk c<+ tkrh gS

88. The use of non-uniform quantization leads to: (1) Reduction in transmission bandwidth. (2) Increase in maximum SNR. (3) Increase in SNR for signal levels. (4) Simplification of quantization process.

88. vleku DokaVhdj.k ds iz;ksx ds QyLo:i gksrk gS%

(1) lapj.k cSaMfoM~Fk esa fxjkoV

(2) vf/kdre SNR esa o`f)

(3) flXuy Lrjksa ds fy, SNR esa o`f)

(4) DokaVhdj.k izfØ;k dk ljyhdj.k


89. A PD controller is used to compensate a system. Compared to the uncompensated system, the compensated system has: (1) A higher type number. (2) Reduced damping. (3) Higher noise amplification. (4) Larger transient overshoot.

89. fdlh iz.kkyh ds izfrdkj ds fy, ,d PD fu;a=d dk iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gSA v&izfrdkfjr iz.kkyh dh rqyuk esa] izfrdkfjr iz.kkyh esa gS%

(1) ,d mPp dksfV la[;k

(2) ?kVk gqvk voeanu

(3) mPp /ofu izo/kZu

(4) fo”kky kf.kd vfrØe.k

90. Which of the following is an inherent property of an optical signal and cannot be eliminated even in principle? (1) Thermal noise (2) Shot noise (3) Environmental noise (4) Background Noise

90. fuEu esa ls dkSu vkIVhdy flXuy dk ,d varfuZfgr xq.k gS ftls ;gka

rd fd fl)kar :i esa Hkh ugha fudkyk tk ldrk%

(1) rkih; /ofu

(2) foLQksV /ofu

(3) i;kZoj.kkRed /ofu

(4) i`’BHkwfe /ofu

91. The disadvantage of CDMA system is: (1) Higher MAI with more user count. (2) That it needs least power consumption. (3) That it needs coherent signal. (4) That it is not suitable with PSK systems

91. CDMA iz.kkyh dh gkfu gS% (1) vf/kd iz;ksDrk dkmaVj lfgr mPprj ,e,vkbZ

(2) blesa U;wure fo|qr [kir dh t:jr gksrh gS

(3) blesa lalDr flXuy dh t:jr gksrh gS

(4) ;g PSK iz.kkfy;ksa ds lkFk mi;qDr ugha gS

92. The Ku frequency band used in satellite communication (for uplink and downlink) is: (1) 14 GHz and 11 GHz (2) 30 GHz and 20 GHz (3) 70 GHz and 50 GHz (4) 60 GHz and 45 GHz

92. mixzg lapkj ¼vifyad vkSj Mkmufyad ds fy,½ esa iz;qDr Ku vko`fRr

cSaM gS%

(1) 14 GHz rFkk 11 GHz (2) 30 GHz rFkk 20 GHz (3) 70 GHz rFkk 50 GHz (4) 60 GHz rFkk 45 GHz

93. Following transducer is an active transducer: (1) Carbon Microphone (2) Piezoelectric Microphone (3) LVDT (4) Strain Gauge

93. fuEu VªkalM~;wlj ,d lfØ; VªaklM~;wlj gS%

(1) dkcZu ekbØksQksu

(2) fitksbysfDVªd ekbØksQksu

(3) LVDT (4) fod`fr xst

94. A NOR gate is equivalent to a bubbled AND gate. This statement is an outcome of: (1) De Morgan’s Law (2) Involution Law (3) Law of Absorption (4) Idempotent Law

94. ,d NOR xsV cCcYM AND xsV ds lerqY; gksrk gSA ;g dFku fuEu

dk ifj.kke gS%

(1) Ms eksxZu fof/k

(2) ?kkrdj.k fof/k

(3) vo”kks’k.k dh fof/k

(4) oxZle fof/k

95. The circuit shown in the figure has initial current iL(0) = 1A through the inductor and an initial voltage vc(0) = 1 V across the capacitor. For input v(t) = U(t) the Laplace transform of the current i(t) for t ≥ 0 is:

(1)

1sss

2 ++ (2)

1ss2 ++

2s +

(3) 1ss

2–s2 ++

(4) 2ss

2–s2 ++

95. fp= esa n”kkZ, x, ifjiFk esa izsjd ds ek/;e ls izkjafHkd /kkjk iL(0) = 1A gS vkSj la/kkfj= ds vkj&ikj izkjafHkd oksYVrk vc(0) = 1 V gSA fuos”k v(t) = U(t) ds fy, t ≥ 0 ds okLrs /kkjk i(t) dk ykIykl :ikarj gS%

(1)

1sss

2 ++ (2)

1ss2s

2 ++

+

(3) 1ss

2–s2 ++

(4) 2ss

2–s2 ++


96. Which of the following noise must be considered at high frequencies (microwave frequencies)? (1) Shot noise (2) Random noise (3) Impulse noise (4) Transit time noise

96. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lh /ofu dks mPp vko`fRr ¼ekbØksoso vko`fRr;ka½ ij

le>k tkuk pkfg,\

(1) foLQksVd /ofu (2) ;kn`fPNd /ofu (3) vkosx /ofu (4) ikjogu le; /ofu

97. In a broadcast communication receiver, most of the receiver selectivity is achieved in: (1) RF section (2) IF section (3) Mixer (4) Local oscillator

97. izlkj.k lapkj izkid esa] vf/kdka”k izkid o.kkZRedrk fuEu esa izkIr

gksrh gS%

(1) RF [kaM (2) IF [kaM (3) feDlj (4) LFkkuh; nksfy=

98. Slew rate is defined by: (1) di/dt(max) (2) dv/dt(max) (3) di/dt(min) (4) dv/dt(min)

98. ?kqeko xfr fuEu kjk ifjHkkf’kr dh tkrh gS%

(1) di/dt(max) (2) dv/dt(max) (3) di/dt(min) (4) dv/dt(min)

99. The ideal operational amplifier does not have: (1) Infinite input resistance (2) Infinite output resistance (3) Infinite voltage gain (4) Infinite bandwidth

99. vkn”kZ izpkyd ,sEIyhQk;j esa fuEu ugha gksrk%

(1) vuar bUiqV izfrjks/k (2) vuar mRiknu izfrjks/k

(3) vuar oksYVrk yfC/k (4) vuar cSaMfoM~Fk

100. The following property of semiconductors cannot be determined from Hall effect: (1) Semiconductor is n–type or p–type (2) The carrier concentration (3) The mobility of semiconductor (4) The atomic concentration of semiconductor

100. v)Zpkydksa ds fuEu xq.k gky izHkko ls fu/kkZfjr ugha fd, tk ldrs%

(1) v)Zpkyd n-dksfV dk gS ;k p-dksfV dk (2) okgd ladsUnz.k

(3) v)Zpkyd dh xfr”khyrk

(4) v)Zpkyd dk ijek.kq ladsUnz.k

101. The ABCD parameters of ideal n:1 transformer shown

in the figure are . The value of X will be: ⎥⎦

⎤⎢⎣

⎡xoon

(1) n (2) 1/n (3) n2 (4) 1/n2

101. fp= esa vkn”kZ n:1 VªkalQkeZj ds n”kkZ, x, ABCD izkpy gS

. X dk eku gksxk% ⎥⎦

⎤⎢⎣

⎡xoon

(1) n (2) 1/n (3) n2 (4) 1/n2

102. In the circuit shown below, the voltmeter will read:

(1) Zero (2) 110 V (3) 220 V (4) 440 V

102. uhps n”kkZ, x, ifjiFk esa] oksYVehVj dk iBu gksxk%

(1) “kwU; (2) 110 V (3) 220 V (4) 440 V

103. This figure is a block diagram of ________:

(1) ADC (2) DAC (3) Comparator (4) 555 timer

103. ;g fp=________dk ,d [kaMd vkjs[k gS%

(1) ADC (2) DAC (3) rqyfu= (4) 555 Vkbej


104. Theoretical bandwidth requirement for FM system is: (1) Same as that of the modulating signal bandwidth (2) Twice of modulating signal Bandwidth (3) Thrice as of modulating signal Bandwidth (4) Infinite

104. FM iz.kkyh ds fy, lS)kafrd cSaMfoM~Fk t:jr gS%

(1) ekM~yd flXuy cSaMfoM~Fk tSlh

(2) ekM~yd flXuy cSaMfoM~Fk ls nqxquh

(3) ekM~yd flXuy cSaMfoM~Fk ls frxquh

(4) vuar

105. Waveguides are used mainly for microwave signals because: (1) They depend on straight-line propagation which

applies to microwaves only (2) Losses would be too heavy at lower frequencies (3) There are no generators powerful enough to excite

them at lower frequencies (4) They would be too bulky at lower frequencies

105. rjaxiFkdksa dk iz;ksx eq[;r% ekbØksoso flXuyksa ds fy, fd;k tkrk gS D;ksafd%

(1) os lh/kh js[kk lapj.k ij fuHkZj djrs gSa tks dsoy ekbØksosoksa ij

ykxw gksrs gSa

(2) U;wu vko`fRr;ksa ij kfr;ka cgqr vf/kd gksaxh

(3) brus “kfDr”kkyh tsujsVj ugha gksrs tks mUgsa U;wu vko`fRr;ksa ls

mRizsfjr dj lds

(4) U;wu vko`fRr;ksa ij os cgqr vf/kd Hkkjh gksaxs

106. Indicate which one of the following is NOT an advantage of FM over AM? (1) Better noise immunity is provided (2) Lower bandwidth is required (3) The transmitted power is more useful (4) Less modulating power is required

106. crkb, fd fuEu esa ls dkSu ,,e dh rqyuk esa ,Q,e dk ykHk ugha gS\

(1) csgrj /ofu vlaØkE;rk miyC/k djkbZ tkrh gS

(2) fuEu cSaMfoM~Fk dh t:jr gksrh gS

(3) lapfjr “kfDr vf/kd mi;ksxh gS

(4) de ekM~;wyu “kfDr dh t:jr jgrh gS

107. Which of the following statement is false? Modulation is used to: (1) Reduce the bandwidth used (2) Separate differing transmissions (3) Ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over long

distances (4) Allow the use of practicable antennas

107. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk dFku feF;k gS\ ekM~;wyu dk iz;ksx fuEu ds fy, fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) iz;qDr cSaMfoM~Fk ?kVkuk

(2) foHksniw.kZ lapj.k vyx djuk

(3) ;g lqfuf”pr djuk fd yach nwfj;ksa ij vklwpuk izsf’kr dh tk lds

(4) O;ogk;Z ,aVhuk ds iz;ksx dh vuqefr nsuk

108. In an n-type semiconductor, as the donor concentration ND increases, the Fermi level EF: (1) Remains unaltered (2) Moves towards the conduction band (3) Move towards the center of forbidden energy gap (4) May or may not move depending on temperature

108. ,d n-dksfV ds v)Zpkyd esa] tSls&tSls nkrk ladsUæ.k ND c<+rk gS]

QehZ Lrj EF%

(1) vifjofrZr jgrk gS

(2) pkyu cSaM dh rjQ c<+rk gS

(3) oftZr ÅtkZ varjky ds dsUnz dh rjQ c<+rk gS

(4) c<+ ldrk gS vFkok c<+ ugha Hkh ldrk] rkieku ij fuHkZj gksrk

gS

109. The term “white noise” refers to the following: (1) A random signal with flat power spectral density (2) A random signal generated by beat signal (3) A random signal with long range correlation (4) All of the above are true

109. ^“osr jo* in fuEu crkrk gS% (1) piVs “kfDr LisDVªeh ?kuRo ds lkFk ;kn`fPNd ladsr

(2) foLian ladsr kjk cuk;k ;kn`fPNd ladsr

(3) yacs ijkl lglaca/k ds lkFk ,d ;kn`fPNd ladsr

(4) mijksDr lHkh lR; gS

110. Which of the following relation is true for two digital signals A and B?

(1) B . ABA =+ (2) B . ABA =+

(3) B . A B . ABA +=+ (4) B . ABA =+

110. nks fMftVy flXuy A rFkk B ds fy, fuEu esa ls dkSulk laca/k lgh gS%

(1) B . ABA =+ (2) B . ABA =+

(3) B . A B . ABA +=+ (4) B . ABA =+

111. The output waveform of a 555 Timer is: (1) Sinusoidal (2) Triangular (3) Rectangular (4) Elliptical

111. 555 Vkbej dk fuxZe rjax :i gS% (1) T;kodh; (2) f=Hkqth; (3) vk;rkdkj (4) nh?kZo`Rrkdkj

112. The phase correcting circuit is: (1) All–pass filter (2) Low–pass filter (3) High–pass filter (4) Band–pass filter

112. dyk “kks/kd ifjiFk gS% (1) loZ&ikl fuL;and (2) fuEu&ikl fuL;and (3) mPp&ikl fuL;and (4) cSaM&ikl fuL;and


113. The light emitted diodes consist of: (1) Si (2) GaAs (3) Ge (4) Diamond

113. izdk”k mRltZd Mk;ksM cuk gksrk gS%

(1) Si (2) GaAs (3) Ge (4) ghjk

114. When the initial slope of input sine wave is greater than the slew rate of an OPAMP, the output: (1) Has no offset (2) Approaches to triangular waveshape (3) Is pure sinusoidal (4) Is square wave

114. tc fuos”k lkbu rjax dh vkjafHkd izo.krk OPAMP ds nqzr ?kw.kZu nj ls vf/kd gks rks fuxZe%

(1) esa varyEc ugha gS

(2) f=Hkqt rjax vkdkj dh vksj mixeu djrk gS

(3) “kq) T;kodh; gS

(4) oxZ rjax gS

115. A circuit is said to be free from phase distortion if its phase response shows: (1) Quadrature variation with frequency (2) Independent of frequency (3) Linear variation with frequency (4) Proportional to frequency

115. ,d ifjiFk dks dyk fod`fr ls Lora= dgk tk,xk ;fn bldh dyk vuqfØ;k fn[kkrh gS%

(1) vko`fRr ds lkFk ks=Qyu ifjorZu

(2) vko`fRr ls fujisk

(3) vko`fRr ds lkFk js[kh; ifjorZu

(4) vko`fRr ds vuqikr esa

116. In a full wave rectifier with input frequency of 50 Hz, the frequency of the output is: (1) 50 Hz (2) 100 Hz (3) 150 Hz (4) 200 Hz

116. ,d iw.kZ rjax ifj”kks/kd esa] ftldh fuos”k vko`fRr 50 Hz] fuxZe vko`fRr gksxh%

(1) 50 Hz (2) 100 Hz (3) 150 Hz (4) 200 Hz

117. In the common–emitter transistor circuit, if the current gain is 100 and the collector current is 10 mA, the base current is: (1) 10 µA (2) 100 µA (3) 1 A (4) 10 A

117. lkekU; mRltZd VªkaftLVj ifjiFk esa ;fn /kkjk yfC/k 100 gS vkSj

laxzkgd /kkjk 10 feyh ,fEi;j gS] rks ewy /kkjk gksxh%

(1) 10 µA (2) 100 µA (3) 1 A (4) 10 A

118. The basic Hartley oscillator uses: (1) One inductor and two capacitors (2) A centre tapped inductor and a capacitor (3) Two capacitors (4) Tickler coil

118. ewy gkVZys nksyd esa iz;qDr gksrk gS% (1) ,d izsjd vkSj nks la/kkfj=

(2) ,d e/; va”kfu’dkflr izsjd vkSj ,d la/kkfj=

(3) nks la/kkfj=

(4) dkaVk dqMyh

119. The correct order of electromagnetic spectrum with decreasing frequency is: (1) Microwaves, Radiowaves, Infrared rays, Ultraviolet

rays, X–rays (2) Radiowaves, Infrared rays, Ultraviolet rays,

Microwaves, X–rays (3) X–rays, Infrared rays, Microwaves, Radiowaves,

Ultraviolet rays (4) X–rays, Ultraviolet rays, Infrared rays, Microwaves,

Radiowaves

119. fo|qr pqacdh; LisDVªe dh ?kVrh gqbZ vko`fRr esa lgh Øe gS%

(1) ekbØks rjaxsa] jsfM;ks rjaxsa] vojDr fdj.ksa] ijkcSaxuh fdj.ksa] ,Dl

fdj.ksa

(2) jsfM;ks rjaxs] vojDr fdj.ksa] ijkcSxuh fdj.ksa] ekbØks rjaxsa] ,Dl

fdj.ksa

(3) ,Dl fdj.ksa] vojDr fdj.ksa] ekbØks rjaxsa] jsfM;ks rjaxsa] ijkcSxuh

fdj.ksa

(4) ,Dl fdj.ksa] ijkcSxuh fdj.ksa] vojDr fdj.ksa] ekbØks rjaxsa]

jsfM;ks rjaxsa

120. In the given figure reflection coefficient at load is:

(1) 0.6 (2) – 0.6 (3) 0.4 (4) None of these

120. fn, x, fp= esa yksM ij ijkorZu xq.kkad gS%

(1) 0.6 (2) – 0.6 (3) 0.4 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha


egRoiw.kZ% fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i<+saA vius ç”uksa ds mÙkj ç”u&iqfLrdk esa u yxk,a vU;Fkk p;u çfØ;k ls vkidh ik=rk oafpr dj nh tk;sxhA

1. viuk mÙkj fy[kuk çkjEHk djus ls igys viuh ç'u iqfLrdk dh Hkyh&Hkk¡fr tk¡p dj ysa] ns[k ysa fd blesa 120 ç'u gSaA çR;sd ç'u iqfLrdk dh fljht fHké gksxh ¼ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht dk la;kstu½A vkidks OMR mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç'u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k

fy[kuk gSA iqu% ;g Hkh ij[k ysa fd blesa fçafVax laca/kh vFkok vU; fdLe dh dksbZ deh ugha gSA ;fn fdlh çdkj dh dksbZ deh gks rks i;Zoskd dks lwfpr djsa

vkSj ç”u&iqfLrdk cnydj ,d u;h iqfLrdk ysaA bl lanHkZ esa fdlh Hkh çdkj dh dksbZ f'kdk;r ij ckn esa dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA

egRoiw.kZ uksV% vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk vH;FkÊ ds ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ds la;kstu ls ewY;kafdr dh tk;sxhA vr% vkidks vks-,e-vkj-

mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k fy[kuk pkfg,A buesa ls fdlh ,d esa Hkh xyrh gksus ij vkidh vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk

fujLr gks ldrh gSA vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk esa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ugha Hkjus ij vH;FkÊ ds mÙkj if=dk dk ewY;kadu ugha fd;k

tk;sxk ftldh ftEesnkjh Lor% vH;FkÊ dh gksxhA

2. xyr mÙkj ds fy, 1/3 _.kkRed vadu gksxkA çR;sd ç”u ds vad leku gSaA foLr`r tkudkjh ds fy, mÙkj i=d dk voyksdu djsaA 3. dk&fujhkd ls vius ços”k&i= ij gLrkkj vo”; djok,aA ;fn vkius gLrkkj ugha djok;k rks vkidh ik=rk jí dj nh tk,xhA

4. ;g ,d oLrqijd fdLe dh ijhkk gS ftlesa çR;sd ç'u ds uhps Øekad (1) ls (4) rd pkj çLrkfor mÙkj fn;s gSaA vkids fopkj esa tks Hkh mÙkj lgh@loZJs"B gS mldks

vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i= esa fn;s funsZ'k ds vuqlkj fpfUgr dhft,A vius mÙkj ç'u iqfLrdk esa u yxk,A 5. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lHkh dk;ks± ds fy, uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls fy[ksaA vks-,e-vkj mÙkj if=dk ij vksoy dks iw.kZ :i ls dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy

Iokb±V isu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj fn, x, mÙkj dks cnyk ugha tk ldrkA 6. mÙkj&i= ij u rks jQ+ dk;Z djsa u gh vkSj fdlh çdkj dk fu'kku vkfn yxk,a ;k bls eksaM+sA 7. dsYdqysVj] LykbM:y] eksckbZy] dsYdqysVj ?kfM+;k¡ ;k bl çdkj dh dksbZ Hkh ;qfä ,oa fdlh Hkh v/;;u@lanHkZ lkexzh vkfn dk ç;ksx ijhkk dk esa oftZr gSA 8. jQ+ dk;Z iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh [kkyh LFkku esa fd;k tkuk pkfg,] vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij dksbZ Hkh jQ+ dk;Z u djsaA fdlh vU; dkx+t ij bls djus dh

vuqefr ugha gSA 9. ijhkk dh lekfIr ds i'pkr~ viuh iwjh ç'u&iqfLrdk rFkk mÙkj&if=dk i;Zoskd dks okil dj nsaA ç'u iqfLrdk ;k blds fdlh Hkkx vFkok OMR mÙkj if=dk

dks ijhkk dk ls ckgj ys tkuk oftZr gS ,slk djuk nUMuh; vijk/k gSA 10. gj ,d ç'u ds fy, dsoy ,d gh mÙkj bafxr djsaA ,d ls vf/kd mÙkj nsus ij ç'u dk dksbZ vad ugha fn;k tk,xkA mÙkj esa dksbZ Hkh dfVax ;k vksojjkbZfVax ekU;

ugha gksxhA iqu% ç'u i= fHkk"kh; ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ esa gSA fgUnh laLdj.k esa fdlh Hkh fHkérk gksus ij ewY;kadu ds fy, vaxzsth laLdj.k dks vfUre ekuk tk;sxkA dPps dk;Z ds fy,

Engineering

Je electronics paper_i 2016 DMRC qestion paper