Title: 1 Pharm BI-41. Which of the following drugs will produce a significantly higher concentration of active metabolite in cells infected with the target virus?a. Foscarnetb. Oseltamivir*c. Acyclovird. Lamivudinee. RibavirinTitle: 2 Pharm BI-42. A fixed dose of lopanivir and ritonavir is used in the US to treat HIV-positive patient. Why is this combination effective?a. Ritonavir and lopanivir have different mechanisms of action*b. Ritonavir decreases the hepatic metabolism of lopanivirc. Ritonavir decreases the excretion of lopanivird. Lopanivir inhibits development of viral resistance to ritonavire. Lopanivir facilitates the integration of the virusTitle: 3 Pharm BI-43. A person with HIV has continuously received acyclovir for treatment of recurrent herpes simplex lesions. Lately the HSV strain has been found resistant to acyclovir. The most likely explanation for this resistance is mutation of the virala. M2 ion channelb. protease*c. thymidine kinased. reverse transcriptasee. RNA-dependent RNA polymeraseTitle: 4 Pharm BI-44. A 25 year-old man is diagnosed with HIV and is initiated with the HAART (cART) regimen. After the first week of therapy, he complains of nightmares, headaches and ill temper. Which of the following HIV-antivirals most probably causes these symptoms?*a. Efavirensb. Lamivudinec. Indinavird. Stavudinee. RitonavirTitle: 5 Pharm BI-45. A patient with HIV is receiving a combination of protease inhibitors as part of the antiviral therapy. What is the most likely adverse effect of the protease inhibitors?a. anemia and neutropeniab. neuropathyc. lactic acidosis*d. hyperglycemia and hyperlipidemiae. pancreatitisTitle: 6 Pharm BI-46. A patient that has been transplanted with a allograft kidney developed an acute CMV infections characterized by fever, leukopenia, malaise, and arthralgia. Which of the following drugs would be best to treat the cytomegalovirus infection?*a. Ganciclovirb. Rimantidinec. Carbenicillind. Zidovudinee. DIdeoxycitidineTitle: 7 Pharm BI-47. A 9-year-old was brought to the pediatrician with high fever and respiratory symptoms and was diagnosed with influenza A virus subtype HIN5. Which of the following drugs will be to be effective treating this infection?a. Acyclovirb. Amantidine*c. Oseltamivird. Ganciclovire. RitonavirTitle: 8 Pharm BI-48. Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause myelosuppression?a. Famciclovirb. Penciclovir*c. Ganciclovird. Foscarnete. AmantidineTitle: 9 Pharm BI-49. Which of the following viral infections is suitable for the neuraminidase inhibitor zanamivir?a. HIV/AIDSb. Respiratory syncytial virusc. Herpes simplex type II*d. Influenzae. Herpes zosterTitle: 10 Pharm BI-410. PP, a 25-year-old carpenter was diagnosed with HIV four years ago. He recently has started therapy with Tenofovir, Emcitritabine, ritonavir/ lopinavir. He should contact the health care provider if he develops which of the following symptoms associated with tenofovir?a. Headacheb. Feeling unusually cold in the arms and legs associated with*c. Problems urinating and increasing proteinuriad. Hair Losse. Nasal allergyTitle: 11 Pharm BI-411. A woman who recently had bone marrow transplantation developed invasive pulmonary aspergillosis while hospitalized. Which of the following antifungals did the physician prescribe?*a. Amphotericin Bb. Fluoconazolec. 5-FUd. Itraconazolee. GriseofulvinTitle: 12 Pharm BI-412. Which of the following antiviral has as its mechanism of action the prevention of viral uncoating after penetration into the host cell?a. idoxuridineb. vidarabinec. acyclovird. ribavirin*e. amantadine HClTitle: 13 Pharm BI-413. Mr. Gonzalez was received at the emergency room with respiratory distress characteristic of bronchial asthma and the attending decided to administer an adrenergic drug. Which of the following agonists would be used for asthma patients?a. alfa2-agonistb. alfa1-agonistc. beta3-agonist*d. beta2-agoniste. beta1-agonistTitle: 14 Pharm BI-414. During anesthesia for a dental procedure, epinephrine was added to the local anesthetic. A few minutes after drug administration the patient developed tachycardia and the dentist decided to call a physician. By which mechanism epinephrine caused tachycardia?a. Stimulation of alpha-1 receptorb. Stimulation of alpha-2 receptor*c. Stimulation of beta-1 receptord. Stimulation of beta-2 receptore. Stimulation of beta-3 receptorTitle: 15 Pharm BI-415. Patient was received at the Emergency Room with severe chest pain. You order an electrocardiogram. The ECG comes back with acute ST-segment depression and you diagnose a angina pectoris. You start giving oxygen, sublingual nitroglycerin for the pain. You also gave another medication that you know recommend to prevent futures attacks.a. alpha agonist*b. beta-antagonistc. muscarinic agonistd. neuromuscular blockere. dopamine againstTitle: 16 Pharm BI-416. The increase in strength of heart contraction caused by isoproterenol is related to:a. Formation of cGMP*b. Phosphorylation of calcium channels by protein kinase Ac. Phosphorylation of potassium channelsd. Increase of sodium permeabilitye. Increase of ATP levelsTitle: 17 Pharm BI-417. Patient male 68 years old was received at the emergency room of Cardiovascular Unit referring strong chest pain. The electrocardiogram indicates an extensive anterior myocardial infarction and within 2 hours the patient generated a cardiogenic shock with a severe fall in blood pressure and peripheral resistance. To increase the peripheral resistance which of the following drugs can be administered intravenously with caution?a. Isoproterenolb. Epinephrinec. Guanetidine*d. Norepinephrinee. PrazosinTitle: 18 Pharm BI-418. A young female with history of bronchial asthma came to the cardiologist referring a sensation that her heart is not well. The physical examination indicated an abnormality of the heart beat and the electrocardiogram showed the presence of premature ventricular beats (PVBs). The patient had no previous history of cardiac disease but a previous laboratory analysis indicated elevation of the thyroid hormone. The cardiologist decided to administer a drug to abolish the abnormal rhythm. Considering the evidence of bronchial asthma which of the following drugs is recommended?a. Propranolol*b. Metoprololc. Lobetalold. Nadolole. TimololTitle: 19 Pharm BI-419. Intravenous injection of epinephrine (1 ug/Kg) was administered to a patient male 48 years old causing changes in the strength of heart contractions, heart rate and arterial systolic and diastolic blood pressure as shown below. Later on, a drug X was administered intravenously and epinephrine was administered again, at the same dose, in presence of drug X. According to the diagram drug X is: a. guanetidineb. phenylephrine*c. propranolold. carbachole. ephedrineTitle: 20 Pharm BI-420. The graph showed below shows dose-response curves for isoproterenol (Control) alone and in presence of one or the other of two beta receptor antagonists, drugs X and Y. The responses are an increase in heart rate of a human subject and relaxation in vitro of human bronchiolar muscle. Drug X is most likely:a. propranololb. pindololc. timolol*d. metoprolole. nadololTitle: 21 Pharm BI-421. Miss Angulo has nasal mucosa stiffness and her physician prescribed phenylephrine because it causes vasoconstriction. By which of the following effects phenylephrine causes vasoconstriction?a. blocking beta-adrenoreceptorsb. blocking nicotinic receptors*c. stimulating alpha-adreneoreceptorsd. stimulating muscarinic cholinoreceptorse. stimulating dopamine receptorsTitle: 22 Pharm BI-422. A 6- year old boy is brought by his parents for complains of hyperactivity at school. After a detailed interview the physician decides to give the boy amphetamine-containing medication for presumed attention hyperactivity disorder. Amphetamine:a. Inhibits epinephrine reuptake*b. Indirectly acts on norepinephrine receptorsc. Blocks effects of norepinephrined. Directly acts on cholinoreceptorse. Inhibits serotonin reuptakeTitle: 23 Pharm BI-423. Mr. Gilbert 34 years old is normotensive but presented periodic hypertensive crisis which are caused by a pheochromocytoma. Due to the severity of the crisis his physician recommends him to remove the tumor. At the beginning of the surgery, the surgeon asked the anesthesiologist to prevent the possible increase in blood pressure which is common by manipulation of the tumor. Which of the drugs list below is appropriate to prevent the increase in blood pressure during the tumor removal?a. ephedrine*b. phenoxybenzaminec. atropined. phenylephrinee. scopolamineTitle: 54 Pharm BI-454. Mr. Brooks arrived at the hospital and an ECG performed at the Emergency Room showed AV block. Because he was taking a drug for his blood pressure the attending concluded that this drug was the cause of the AV block. Which of the following drugs is involved in the AV block?a. atropine*b. metoprololc. methyldopad. phenylephrinee. phentolamineTitle: 55 Pharm BI-455. Acetylcholine is released from a presynaptic terminal and interacts with its receptor at the neuromuscular junction. What happens to the acetylcholine molecule following interaction with its interaction with the receptor on the skeletal muscle membrane?a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the presynaptic membraneb. Acetylcholine is internalized into the post-synaptic cellc. Acetylcholine diffuses away and is eventually hydrolyzed in the plasmad. Acetylcholine remains bound to its receptor for up to 15 minutes*e. Acetylcholine is rapidly hydrolyzed to choline and acetateTitle: 56 Pharm BI-456. Acetylcholine causes vasodilation by stimulating the release of which of the following substances from the endothelium?a. Arachidonic acidb. Calciumc. Cyclic AMPd. Histamine*e. Nitric oxideTitle: 57 Pharm BI-457. When the sympathetic fight or flight response is activated, which neurotransmitter is released from autonomic ganglion neurons onto cells in the adrenal medulla?a. epinephrineb. norepinephrinec. dopamine*d. acetylcholinee. GABATitle: 58 Pharm BI-458. A 40-year old woman is diagnosed with Sjogrens syndrome. Cevimeline is prescribed. Which of the following best describes the intracellular effect of cevimeline?*a. Stimulation of phospholipase Cb. Activation of adenylyl cyclasec. Inhibition of adenylyl cyclased. Opens a G-protein regulated potassium channel in the cell membranee. Blocks a voltage-gated sodium channel in the cell membraneTitle: 59 Pharm BI-459. A three year old child is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. They found her with a wad of nicotine gum in her mouth. She had vomited in the car on the way to the hospital. At arrival, she was hypertensive and tachycardic. One hour later she had developed bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory depression. She was intubated and hospitalized in the PICU. What is the cause of the hypotension?*a. block of autonomic gangliab. stimulation of autonomic gangliac. activation of the adrenal medullad. block of the neuromuscular junctione. production of nitric oxideTitle: 60 Pharm BI-460. An 80 year-old man presents at the emergency room complaining of periorbital pain and a severe unilateral headache. Careful evaluation reveals that the man has acute closed angle glaucoma. Which of the following will be useful?a. Atropineb. Oxybutynin*c. Pilocarpined. Pralidoximee. TiotropiumTitle: 61 Pharm BI-461. A 35 y/o agricultural field worker is brought to the Emergency Room by the field foreman. He cannot work without support and has difficulty talking. He was cultivating pineapples when a gust of wind carried parathion onto him from a nearby field where it was being sprayed. He experienced difficulty breathing almost immediately and called for help. Which of the following best describes why is he now experiencing difficulty walking and talking?*a. The muscle nicotinic receptor is desensitizedb. Activation of the nicotinic ganglionic receptor reduces acetycholine release from the neuromuscular junctionc. Norepinephrine released by ganglionic stimulation is causing muscle weaknessd. Activation of acetylcholine receptors in the basal ganglia produces muscle weaknesse. Activation of presynaptic N-N receptors at the neuromuscular junction reduce activation of the post-synaptic acetylcholine receptorTitle: 62 Pharm BI-462. A 25 year-old man who has been under treatment for myasthenia gravis for 6 months presents with severe, generalized muscle weakness. The physician is uncertain is if he is receiving too much or too little medication. Administration of which of the following will help determine the diagnosis?*a. edrophoniumb. pyridostigminec. oxybutynind. pilocarpinee. propranololTitle: 63 Pharm BI-463. The medical officer for troops stationed in Iraq is concerned about possible exposure to organophosphate nerve gases. To improve protection when exposure is possible, she recommends pre-treating combat soldiers with a drug that will largely prevent organophosphate inactivation of acetylcholinesterase. Which of the following would be most effective for this medication goal?a. atropineb. pralidoxime (2-PAM)*c. pyridostigmined. edrophoniume. pilocarpineTitle: 64 Pharm BI-464. Following eye surgery, the surgeon wants a drug to prevent the iris from adhering to the lens. Which of the following would be effective?*a. atropineb. cevimelinec. tubocurared. propranolole. physostigmineTitle: 65 Pharm BI-465. A 75 y/o man with sinus bradycardia (heart rate of 50 beats per minute) is scheduled for prostate surgery with an inhalational anesthetic. Because of the irritating property of the anesthetic, the anesthesiologist decides to add a drug to reduce airway secretions. Which of the following will produce minimal or no bradycardia?a. Atropine*b. Glycopyrrolatec. Scopolamined. Pyridostigminee. BethanecholTitle: 66 Pharm BI-466. An 80 year-old woman presents to her health care provider with a complaint of frequently feeling the urge to urinate. She sometimes has embarrassing accidents. She is also being treated for hypertension with propranolol. Which of the following drugs would reduce the problem of urge incontinence without increasing heart work?a. atropine*b. oxybutyninc. cevimelined. albuterole. pyridostigmineTitle: 67 Pharm BI-467. A non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker is used during anesthesia to maintain muscle relaxation. Following the surgery, the anesthesiologist terminates the blocking action by administering a drug. Which drug was administered?a. atropine*b. edrophoniumc. dantrolened. succinylcholinee. pilocarpineTitle: 68 Pharm BI-468. Pancuronium is being used during surgery to maintain skeletal muscle relaxation. The anesthesiologist regularly tests the degree of block with train-of-four stimuli and post-tetanic potentiation. Which of the following best describes the origin of Fade in the train-of-four test?*a. block of presynaptic nicotinic autoreceptorsb. block of the acetylcholine NM receptorc. block of presynaptic M1 receptorsd. desensitization of the acetylcholine receptore. block of sodium channelsTitle: 69 Pharm BI-469. A paraplegic 35 year-old man who had been severely injured in a fall at his home was brought by ambulance to the Emergency Department. He was belligerent despite his paraplegia and life-threatening injuries, and needed an immediate CT scan. What dangerous metabolic adverse effect might occur if succinylcholine is used for rapid-sequence intubation?*a. hyperkalcemiab. hyperglycemiac. hypoglycemiad. hyponatremiae. hypercalcemiaTitle: 70 Pharm BI-470. A patient in the operating room has been anesthetized with halothane with succinylcholine as an adjuvant drug. The anesthesiologist notices that the patients arm is becoming stiff and his temperature has risen. He immediately notifies the surgeon. A drug is administered to prevent further rise in temperature and skeletal muscle rigidity. Which of the following best describes the drugs mechanism of action?a. GABA-A agonistb. GABA-B agonistc. Potentiates GABA activity at the GABA-A ion channeld. Alpha-2 agonist*e. Blocks the ryanodine receptorTitle: 71 Pharm BI-471. A 26 year-old man with spinal cord damage has painful ankle flexion. He is treated with a drug that effectively suppresses the hyperactive stretch response reflex by means of a presynaptic alpha2 receptor. The drug acts by indirectly decreasing the release of glutamate. Which of the following is being used in this patient?a. baclofenb. diazepam*c. tizanidined. baclofene. botulinum toxinTitle: 72 Pharm BI-472. A 24 year old man with cerebral palsy is successfully treated with a drug that is non-sedating. It is a direct GABA agonist and enhances inhibitory tone in the stretch response reflex. Which of the following is he being treated with?a. tizandidineb. diazepam*c. baclofend. orphenadrinee. botulinum toxinTitle: 73 Pharm BI-473. A 55 year-old Black male presented at the Emergency Department with sudden onset of severe chest pain that he described as something tearing inside his chest. Acute aortic dissection was diagnosed, and was corrected surgically. Which of the following drug classes could be used to produce hypotension and block increased heart rate during the critical repair?*a. ganglionic NN blockerb. neuromuscular NM blockerc. alpha1blockerd. beta1 blockere. M2 blockerTitle: 74 Pharm BI-474. An 8 year-old child is being treated with imipramine for management of bed-wetting. Although it is usually used for treatment of depression, imipramine has useful anti-muscarinic activity. Which of the following side effects is most likely to occur?*a. dry mouthb. reduced gastric acid secretionc. miosisd. tachycardiae. hot, dry skinTitle: 75 Pharm BI-475. A patient is anesthetized for surgery with succinylcholine added to provide muscular relaxation. After administration of succinylcholine, fine muscular fasciculations can be observed in the patients skeletal muscles, which disappear a short time later. Why do the fasicuclations end?*a. inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels at the edge of the end-plateb. prolonged hyperpolarization at the muscle endplatec. desensitization of the acetylcholine receptord. closed channel block of the acetylcholine receptore. open channel block of the acetylcholine receptorTitle: 76 Pharm BI-476. AK is a 25 year-old male patient was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. The oncologist treats him with a drug regimen consisting of doxorubicin, mechlorethamine, bleomycin, vinblastine and procarbazine. This morning, AK presents to the oncologist office with the chief complaint of shortness of breath upon exertion and a dry cough. A chest X-ray was taken and pulmonary infiltration is detected. Which of the drugs in this patient's regimen is the most likely cause and must be discontinued?a. Doxorubicinb. Mechlorethamine*c. Bleomycind. Vinblastinee. ProcarbazineTitle: 108 Pharm BI-4108. Which of the following mechanisms most likely causes drug resistance by cancer cells to multiple anticancer agents?a. Amplification of metabolizing enzymesb. Amplification of target enzymes*c. Increased cellular efflux of drugsd. Increased repair of DNA damageTitle: 109 Pharm BI-4109. Cyclophosphamide is used with several anticancer agents in the treatment of lymphomas, some forms of leukemia and some solid tumors. Which of the following adverse effect you as oncologist should warn the patient as a serious toxicity of cyclophosphamide?a. alopecia*b. myelosuppressionc. renal damaged. hepatic failuree. pulmonary fibrosisTitle: 110 Pharm BI-4110. KB is a 71-year-old man farmer. He was recently diagnosed with carcinoma in situ (CIS) of the bladder and his physician has placed him on the CMVB (cisplatin, methotrexate, vincristine, bleomycin) regimen with radiotherapy. This therapy has induced a significant amount of myelosuppression, which has made KB too tired to work. Which of these drugs affects the mitotic spindle?a. cisplatinb. methotrexate*c. vincristined. bleomycine. radiationTitle: 111 Pharm BI-4111. A 15-year-old boy presents to his pediatrician with a chief complaint of a pain in his right thigh. On evaluation of his right thigh is found to have a red swollen area. X-ray and MRI of the thigh reveal extensive bony destruction and the presence of a bony tumor that is diagnosed as an osteosarcoma. He is offered a limb salvage treatment that includes neoadjuvant chemotherapy (methotrexate, cisplatin, doxorubicin and ifosfamide and radiotherapy prior to tumor resection & bone grafting. He is also given leucovorin to rescue normal cells from the toxicity of which of the following?*a. methotrexateb. cisplatinc. doxorubicind. ifosfamidee. RadiotherapyTitle: 112 Pharm BI-4112. A 33-year old woman presents with tender swelling of the breast. A biopsy reveals cells with an S phase fraction of 11% (for normal cells it should be ~1%). The cells are estrogen and progesterone receptor negative, but overexpress Her2/neu . There is no evidence for metastasis. The patient is initially treated with 4 courses of doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide followed by a modified radical mastectomy. Two months after surgery the patient was started with adjuvant therapy consisting of 4 cycles of paclitaxel. Besides alopecia and nausea & vomiting, which additional adverse effect should you warn your patient to look for since it is frequently associated with this type of adjuvant therapy?a. Hemorrhagic cystitisb. Nephrotoxicity*c. Numb and tingling hands and feetd. Pulmonary fibrosise. ThromboembolismTitle: 113 Pharm BI-4113. Drug resistance represents a major obstacle to improving the overall response and survival of cancer patients. Resistance of tumor cells to paclitaxel is the result of which of the following? a. Modification of DNA repair mechanismb. Increased thiol contentc. Increased activity of glutathione transferase*d. Mutation in the microtubulee. Gene amplificationTitle: 114 Pharm BI-4114. Which of the following is a characteristic of Cytarabine (Ara-C) that makes it highly useful in the treatment of acute myelogenous leukemia?a. intercalate with DNA and produce double strand breakage*b. interfere with synthesis of DNAc. form interstrand cross-linkage with DNAd. enhance T lymphocyte cytotoxicitye. stops microtubule polymerizationTitle: 115 Pharm BI-4115. Mucositis (inflammation and necrosis of mucosal membranes) is a serious and debilitating consequence of many cancer therapies. Which of the following anticancer drugs, activated enzymatically to function as an alkylating agent, is characterized by causing serious oral mucositis?a. Doxorubicinb. Paclitaxel*c. Cyclophosphamided. Asparaginasee. CisplatinTitle: 116 Pharm BI-4116. A 65-year-old man was diagnosed with advanced oropharyngeal cancer and is in treatment with an anticancer drug and radiotherapy. He is treated with hydration to prevent renal toxicity, a side effect of which of the following drugs?*a. Cisplatinb. Chlorambucilc. Methotrexated. Tamoxifene. GemcitabineTitle: 117 Pharm BI-4117. A 42-year-old woman had breast cancer estrogen receptor positive. However tumor cells were resistant to Tamoxifen most probably due to which of the following?a. presence of an amplified P-glycoproteinb. alteration in the tubulin structurec. Increased DNA repair*d. decreased affinity to estrogen receptore. Increased production of thiolsTitle: 118 Pharm BI-4118. A cancer patient develops severe, irreversible cardiomyopathy because the cumulative dose of the anticancer drug exceeded the acceptable levels. Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for this complication?a. Bleomycinb. Cisplatin*c. Doxorubicind. Vincristinee. CyclophosphamideTitle: 119 Pharm BI-4119. Mr. Roman had an accident and was received at the trauma center and immediately delivered to the operating room for urgency surgical procedure. The surgeon requested the anesthesiologist to achieve an anesthesia at the surgical level, as soon as possible. Which of the following statements is correct on selecting the appropriate general anesthetic?a. Decreasing the cardiac output will increase the onset of anesthesia*b. Induction of general anesthesia is rapid with agents of low blood solubilityc. The effect of nitrous oxide is very slowd. Induction of general anesthesia is accelerated by decreasing the inspired anesthetic gas concentratione. Halothane has a low blood/alveolar air coefficientTitle: 120 Pharm BI-4120. In the patient described above the level of surgical anesthesia is achieved when?a. The papillary reflex to light is still preserved*b. Incision can be produced without changes in blood pressurec. The corneal reflex is presentd. Respiration is rapid and superficiale. The reticular formation is still activeTitle: 121 Pharm BI-4121. For a small surgical procedure thiopental was administered intravenously. Observing the patient the resident was surprised that the effect of thiopental was of short duration. How you explain the short duration of this drug?a. Its rapid metabolismb. Its fast renal excretion*c. Its redistribution from brain to other tissuesd. Change of its chemical structuree. Its binding to plasma proteinsTitle: 122 Pharm BI-4122. During a dental procedure lidocaine was injected parentherally and within minutes local anesthesia was achieved. Which of the following explains the anesthetic action of lidocaine?a. blockade of chloride channelsb. blockade of potassium channels*c. blockade of sodium channelsd. blockade of calcium channelse. increase of bradikynin levelsTitle: 123 Pharm BI-4123. During a surgical procedure lidocaine was administered but it produced a small effect due to severe inflammation of the tissue. How you explain the small effect of lidocaine under these circumstances?*a. acidosis reduced the penetration of lidocaine into axonsb. lidocaine is rapidly metabolizedc. lidocaine is diluted into the tissue fluidsd. the absorption of lidocaine is increasede. lidocaine is transformed into a smaller anesthetic agentTitle: 124 Pharm BI-4124. Due to the magnitude of the surgical procedure epinephrine was administered together with lidocaine in order to prolong the anesthetic action of lidocaine. How epinephrine prolongs the duration of anesthesia with lidocaine?a. epinephrine increases the metabolism of lidocaineb. the chemical structure of lidocaine is changed*c. the absorption of lidocaine is reducedd. epinephrine increases the penetration of lidocaine into axonse. epinephrine reduces the bradikynin levelsTitle: 125 Pharm BI-4125. To extend the spectrum of some penicillins, clavulanic acid has been added to certain preparations. What is the mechanism by which clavulanic acid extends this spectrum?a. Providing additional antimicrobial activityb. Enhancing gastrointestinal absorption of the penicillinc. Reducing allergic reactions to the penicillin*d. Binding to and inactivating beta-lactamasee. Facilitating entrance of penicillin in the bacteriumTitle: 126 Pharm BI-4126. Which of the following antimicrobials is most likely associated with aplastic anemia?a. Ciprofloxacinb. Penicilln G*c. Chloramphenicold. Amikasine. SulfamethoxazoleTitle: 127 Pharm BI-4127. A 25 year-old woman come to your clinic complaining burning sensation during urination, soreness, inflammation and discharge. Analysis shows a yeast infection. She indicates that she is not using medications. Which drug is the appropriate choice of acute treatment of the infection?a. Amphotericin Bb. Griseofulvin*c. Fluconazoled. Nystatine. EconazoleTitle: 128 Pharm BI-4128. In terms of usable biochemical differences between host and infecting organisms, what type of biochemical reaction is the best target for antibacterial chemotherapy?a. Protein synthesisb. DNA Synthesisc. Folate synthesisd. Sterol synthesis*e. Cell wall synthesisTitle: 129 Pharm BI-4129. A young woman complains of painful and frequent urination. She has no other complaints and urinalysis shows some RBC, leucocytes, and bacteria. Which of the following antimicrobials will be appropriate therapy for this patient?a. Penicillin Gb. Nafcillin*c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazoled. Azithromycine. ChloramphenicolTitle: 130 Pharm BI-4130. A 25 year-old man goes to the Medical Center with complaints of fever for the last two days, chills, chest pain and rust colored sputum. When the sputum was analyzed it was suggestive of Streptococcus pneumoniae. Until the blood culture results are available which antibiotic would probably be the most effective and the least toxic?a. Cefaclorb. Penicillin G*c. Levofloxacind. Clindamycine. Vancomycin