Teste de control la obstetrica si ginecologie in limba engleza pentru examenul de absolvire, anul VI

COMPLEMENT SIMPLU

1. How common is preeclampsia? a. most pregnant women develop preeclampsiab. about 25% of all women develop preeclampsiac. about 15% of all women develop preeclampsiad. about 3-5% of all women develop preeclampsiae. very rare

d

2. What is the definition of an antepartum hemorrhage?a. any vaginal hemorrhage between conception and deliveryb. any vaginal hemorrhage during laborc. any vaginal hemorrhage between 28 weeks gestation and onset of labord. any vaginal hemorrhage between 12 weeks gestation and deliverye. any vaginal hemorrhage between 28 weeks gestation and delivery

c

3. What is the most likely cause of a massive antepartum hemorrhage that threatens the mother’s life?

a. rupture of the uterusb. cervical carcinomac. trauma of the uterusd. placenta praeviae. placenta acretta

d

4. Which of the following will exclude a placenta praevia?a. a careful speculum examinationb. a careful abdominal examinationc. the presence of fetal distressd. a vaginal examination in theatree. painless bleeding

d

5. Preterm prelabor rupture of the membranes is defined as:a. membranes that have ruptured at term, and not been followed by the onset of labor within 24

hours

b. membranes that rupture before the second stage of laborc. membranes that rupture before the active phase of labord. membranes that have ruptured before 37 weeks, in the absence of contractionse. membranes that have ruptured before the onset of labor at any gestational age

d

6. Which patients are at highest risk of preterm labor?a. patients who book early in pregnancyb. multigravidasc. patients living in low socio-economic circumstancesd. patients with vulvovaginitise. patients with a history of preterm labor in previous pregnancy

e

7. ß – mimetics (terbutalin, ritodrin) should not be used in a patient with:a. asthmab. preterm laborc. multiple pregnancyd. breech presentatione. heart valve disease

e

8. The most appropriate tocolitic drug is considered:a. terbutalinb. magnesium sulphatec. indometacind. nifedipine. ritodrin

d

9. Indometacin may be more dangerous to the fetus if given at or beyond:a. 30 weeksb. 33 weeksc. 35 weeksd. 37 weekse. 39 weeks

a

10. ß – mimetics should be used with grate caution in the following patients, except:a. with heart diseasesb. with diabetes

c. with antepartum hemorrhaged. with pyrexiae. with asthma

e

11. How often should the fetal heart rate be monitored during the first stage of labor in low risk pregnancies?

a. every 3 hours during the latent phaseb. every 2 hours in the latent phasec. hourly in the active phased. every 30 minutes in the active phasee. every 15 minutes in the active phase

d

12. Meconium staining of the liquor is commonest in:a. patients with postterm laborb. patients in term laborc. patients in preterm labord. patients whose fetuses move a lot during pregnancye. patients with fetuses > 4000 gr

a

13. Meconium staining of the liquor:a. is uncommonb. occurs in 10-20 % of patientsc. occurs in 30-40% of patientsd. occurs in half of patientse. occurs in most patients

b

14. What is the correct management when the liquor is meconium stained?a. monitor the fetal heart rate carefullyb. deliver the fetus immediately by cesarean sectionc. give the patient an oxitocin infusion to shorten the labord. give tocoliticse. administer antibiotics

a

15. The latent phase of the first stage of labor is:a. the period of time the cervix takes to dilate from 3 cm to full dilatationb. the period of time from the onset of labor to full cervical dilatation

c. the period of time from the onset of labor to 3 cm cervical dilatationd. the period of time during which the cervix becomes effacede. the period of time during which the cervix becomes ripen.

C

16. A patient presents in established labor with regular contractions. On vaginal examination the cervix is 5 cm dilated. Where should her cervical dilatation be noted on the partogram?

a. on the alert line opposite 5 cm cervical dilatationb. on the action line opposite 5 cm cervical dilatationc. at the beginning of the latent phase of labor opposite 5 cm cervical dilatationd. at the end of latent phase of labor opposite 5 cm cervical dilatatione. on the vertical line at the beginning of the active phase of labor opposite 5 cm cervical

dilatation

a

17. When does a patient have adequate and effective uterine contractions ?a. if she has 2 or more contractions every 10 minutes with each contraction lasting 30 seconds

or longerb. if she has 3 or more contractions every 10 minutes with each contraction lasting 60 seconds

or longerc. if she progresses normally during labord. if she has pain with every contractione. if the uterus is relaxed between each contraction

c

18. Cephalo-pelvic disproportion due to a small pelvic inlet should be diagnosed when:a. there is no further dilatation of the cervixb. there is 3/5 or more of the fetal head palpable above the pelvic brim and 2+ or more

moulding is presentc. there is 2/5 or less of the fetal head palpable above the pelvic brim and 1+ moulding is

presentd. the measurement of pelvic inlet are assessed as small during a pelvic examinatione. one hour passed after full dilatation

b

19. When does the second stage of labor begin and end?a. from the time the patient has an urge to bear down until the infant is completely delivered b. from the time the cervix is fully dilated until the infant is completely deliveredc. from the beginning of the active phase until the cervix is fully dilatedd. from the beginning of the active phase until the infant is completely delivered.e. from the time the cervix is fully dilated until delivery of the fetus and placenta

b

20. What position in the second stage of labor should be discourageda. the dorsal positionb. the lateral positionc. the squatting positiond. the sitting position (in the special chair)e. the kneeling position

a

21. The active phase of the first stage of labor is:a. the period of time the cervix takes to dilate from 3 cm to full dilatationb. the period of time from the onset of labor to full cervical dilatationc. the period of time from the onset of labor to 3 cm cervical dilatationd. the period of time during which the cervix becomes effacede. the period of time during which the cervix becomes ripen.

a

22. Which drug is not used for prevention of postpartum hemorrhagea. oxitocineb. ergometrinec. carboprostd. ritodrine. syntometrine

d

23. Passive management of the third stage of labor includes:a. giving an oxytocic and then waiting for the sighs of placental separationb. waiting for the signs of placental separation when the patient is asked to bear down and

spontaneously deliver the placentac. pulling down steadily on the umbilical cord and pushing the uterus up when the patient has a

contractiond. giving an oxytocic drug when the signs of placental separation appear so that the placenta

can be spontaneously deliverede. early cord clamping, use of oxytocic drug and controlled cord traction

b

24. What clinical findings indicate that the bleeding is from a tear?a. the bleeding consists of a continuous stream of bright red bloodb. the uterus is atonic an abdominal palpationc. the patient is shocked and pale

d. dark red clots of blood are passed when the uterus is rubbed up.e. fragments of placenta are missing

a

25. What is the probable diagnosis of a patient suddenly becomes shocked without any sign of vaginal bleeding during the third stage of labor and on abdominal examination the uterus cannot be palpated?

a. an atonic uterusb. a ruptured uterusc. an inverted uterusd. a cervical teare. placenta acretta

c

26. What is the most frequent cause of postpartum hemorrhage:a. cervical and vaginal tearsb. uterine rupture c. DIC syndrome d. Coagulopathye. Uterine atonia

e

27. What is the first step in the management of a postpartum hemorrhage when the placenta has already be delivered?

a. the uterus must be immediately rubbed upb. a rapid intravenous infusion of 40 units of oxitocin should be startedc. the patient’s bladder must be emptiedd. the cause of bleeding must be looked fore. the hematocrit, hemoglobin and blood group should be determined

a

28. Which sign suggest that an atonic uterus causes the bleeding?a. the vaginal bleeding consists of a continuous stream of bright red bloodb. the membrane are not completec. the vaginal bleeding is intermittent and consist of dark red clotsd. no uterus can be palpated an abdominal examinationse. signs of shock and acute abdomen are present

c

29. Which clinical sign suggests that the patient has acute pyelonephritis?a. tenderness over the bladder

b. edemac. severe tenderness to percussion over one or both renal anglesd. severe tenderness in the upper abdomene. pain in the lower abdomen

c

30. What hormone is determined in urine for diagnosis of pregnancy?a. prolactinb. placental lactogenc. chorionic gonadotropined. progesterone. oxytocine

c

31. In what disorder the level of chorionic gonadotropine is abnormally high?a. ectopic pregnancyb. preeclampsiac. threatened abortiond. twin pregnancye. trophoblastic disease

e

32. In what disorder the level of chorionic gonadotropine is abnormally low?a. ectopic pregnancyb. preeclampsiac. fetal growth retardation d. twin pregnancye. trophoblastic disease

a

33. Severe anemia in pregnant women is diagnosed if the level of hemoglobin is below:a. 110 gr/lb. 100 gr/lc. 90 gr/ld. 70 gr/le. 40 gr/l

d

34. The amniotic fluid index represents:

a. the total of the linear measurements of the largest amniotic fluid pockets noted on ultrasonic inspection of each of the four quadrants of the gestational sac

b. the total of the linear measurements of the four largest amniotic fluid pockets noted on ultrasonic inspection

c. the sum of the length of the two largest pockets of amniotic fluidd. the sum of the length of the three largest pockets of amniotic fluide. the total of the linear measurements of the largest amniotic fluid pockets noted on ultrasonic

inspection of each half (superior and inferior) of the gestational sac

a

35. Oligohydramnios can be defined as an amniotic fluid index of less than:a. 10 cmb. 7 cmc. 6 cmd. 5 cm e. 2 cm

d

36. Polihydramnios can be defined as an amniotic fluid index of more than:a. 8 cmb. 10 cmc. 15 cm d. 18 cme. 23 cm

e

37. The causes of polyhydramnios are the following, except:a. maternal diabetesb. absence of esophagusc. neural tube defectsd. thoracic tumorse. renal agenesis

e

38. A reactive non-stress is considered when:a. a late acceleration is observed after each contractionb. a late acceleration is observed only oncec. a late deceleration is observed after each contractiond. at least two accelerations of fetal heart rate of 15 beats or more above the baseline or at least

15 seconds are observed during 20 minutese. an acceleration of fetal heart rate of 15 beats or more above the baseline for at least 15

seconds is observed is observed during 20 minutes

d

39. What is the largest part of the true pelvis:a. the pelvic inletb. the plane of greatest diameterc. mid-planed. upper planee. the pelvic outlet

b

40. The anterio-posterior diameter of 11-11,5 cm and transversal diameter of 13-13,5 cm is characteristic for:

a. the pelvic inletb. the plane of greatest diameterc. mid-planed. upper planee. the pelvic outlet

a

41. The anterio-posterior diameter of 12,5-12,75 cm and transversal diameter of 12,5 cm is characteristic for:

a. the pelvic inletb. the plane of greatest diameterc. mid-planed. upper planee. the pelvic outlet

b

42. The anterio-posterior diameter of 11-12 cm and transversal diameter of 10,5 cm is characteristic for:

a. the pelvic inletb. the plane of greatest diameterc. midplaned. upper planee. the pelvic outlet

c

43. An incision of perineum is named:a. labiotomyb. episiotomy

c. lobotomyd. sinciputotomye. peritoneotomy

b

44. A perineal laceration that extends into the subepithelial tissues of the vagina or perineum with or without involvement of the muscles of the perineal body is defined as:

a. first degree perineal lacerationb. second degree perineal lacerationc. third degree perineal lacerationd. fourth degree perineal laceratione. fifth degree perineal laceration

b

45. A perineal laceration involving the anal sphincter, without rectal mucosa is defined as: a. first degree perineal lacerationb. second degree perineal lacerationc. third degree perineal lacerationd. fourth degree perineal laceratione. fifth degree perineal laceration

c

46. A perineal laceration involving the rectal mucosa is defined as: a. first degree perineal lacerationb. second degree perineal lacerationc. third degree perineal lacerationd. fourth degree perineal laceratione. fifth degree perineal laceration

d

47. Likelihood of successful induction of labor is assessed using:a. Bishop scoreb. Apgar scorec. Silverman scored. Dunkan scoree. Lucas score

a

48. Condition of a newborn infant is determined using:a. Bishop scoreb. Apgar score

c. Silverman scored. Dunkan scoree. Lucas score

b

49. The most efficient intervention in improving outcomes of preterm delivered babies is:a. administration of antibioticsb. tocolisisc. corticosteroidsd. administration of surfactante. thyroid hormones treatment

c

50. The fetus with postmaturity syndrome has he following, except:a. loss of subcutaneous fatb. long fingernailsc. dry, peeling skind. abundant haire. abundant vernix caseosa

e

51. Requirements for forceps application are the following, except:a. fetal head is fully engagedb. absence of feto-pelvic disproportionc. the cervix is fully dilatedd. empty bladdere. unruptured amniotic membranes

e

52. The most frequent complication of pregnancy in women with heart diseases is:a. spontaneous abortionb. premature deliveryc. fetal growth retardationd. pielonefritise. hepatitis

c

53. All of the following complications occur most often in the third trimester EXCEPT: a. premature laborb. cervical incompetencec. premature rupture of membranes

d. abruptio placentae. round ligament pain

e

54. Which of the following statements best describes a footling breech presentation?a. the legs and thighs of the fetus are flexedb. the legs are extended, and the thighs are flexedc. the arms, legs, and thighs are completely flexedd. the legs and thighs are extendede. none of the above

d

55. What is the most appropriate management in case of failure of presenting part to descend in the presence of adequate labor?

a. forceps deliveryb. cesarean section c. oxitocin administrationd. prostaglandin administratione. vacuum extraction

b

56. What is the most appropriate management in case of poor progress of cervical dilatation and rare contractions in the first period of labor?

a. forceps deliveryb. cesarean section c. oxitocin administrationd. prostaglandin administratione. vacuum extraction

c

57. What is the most appropriate management in case of fetal hypoxia at the end of the second stage of labor?

a. forceps deliveryb. cesarean section c. oxitocin administrationd. prostaglandin administratione. vacuum extraction

e

58. Diagnosis of pregnancy is based on determination of:a. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

b. prolactinc. human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS)d. progesterone

a

59. Pregnancy maintenance is based on action of:a. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)b. prolactinc. human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS)d. progesteronee. estriol

d

60. Lactation is stimulated by:a. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)b. prolactinc. human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS)d. progesteronee. estriol

b

61. Involution of the uterus in postpartum period is induced by:a. prostaglandinb. prolactinc. oxytocind. progesteronee. estriol

c

62. Which of the substance stimulates gap-junction formation:a. prostaglandinb. indometacinc. oxytocind. progesteronee. magnesium sulfate

a

63. Which of the substance prevents gap-junction formation:a. prostaglandinb. indometacinc. oxytocin

d. progesteronee. magnesium sulfate

d

64. Which of the substance may produce premature closure of ductusarteriosus:a. prostaglandinb. indometacinc. oxytocind. progesteronee. magnesium sulfate

b

65. Which of the following is a common reservoir of toxoplasmosis?a. school-age childrenb. bird droppingsc. catsd. contaminated seafoode. blood

c

66. Which of the following is a common reservoir of HIV?a. school-age childrenb. bird droppingsc. catsd. contaminated seafoode. blood

e

67. Indications for a cesarean section include all of the following EXCEPT:a. previous cesarean sectionb. failed forceps deliveryc. fetal distressd. cervical cerclagee. cord prolapse

d

68. Prerequisites for a forceps delivery include all of the following EXCEPT:a. a completely dilated cervixb. an empty bladderc. the vertex in the occiput anterior positiond. ruptured membranes

e. the known position of the vertex

c

69. What is indicated for prevention of respiratory distress syndrome in premature neonates: a. heparinb. oxitocinc. dexametazond. magnesium sulphatee. prostaglandin

c

70. What is indicated for labor augmentation: a. heparinb. oxitocinc. dexametazond. magnesium sulphatee. prostaglandin

b

71. What is indicated for prevention thromboembolic complications after cesarean section: a. heparinb. oxitocinc. dexametazond. magnesium sulphatee. prostaglandin

a

72. What is indicated for preparation of cervix for induction of labor: a. heparinb. oxitocinc. dexametazond. magnesium sulphatee. prostaglandin

e

73. What is indicated for treatment of eclampsia: a. heparinb. oxitocinc. dexametazond. magnesium sulphatee. prostaglandin

d

74. What is indicated to stop premature uterine contractions: a. Heparinb. oxitocinc. dexametazond. nifedipinee. prostaglandin

d

75. The interval between alert and action line on WHO partograph is:a. 1 hourb. 2 hoursc. 3 hoursd. 4 hourse. 5 hours

d

76. According to WHO partograph latent phase should not be more than:a. 4 hoursb. 6 hoursc. 8 hoursd. 10 hourse. 12 hours

C

77. Characteristics of the androgen insensitivity syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:a. an XY gonadb. a vaginal pouchc. breast developmentd. pubic hair e. the presence of mullerian-inhibiting factor

d

78. Papilomavirus infection is the causative factor of:a. infertilityb. acute salpingitisc. cervical cancerd. ectopic pregnancye. endometriosis

c

79. Choose the most appropriate treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis infection:a. penicillinb. metronidasolec. doxycicilined. ceftriaxonee. ampicilline

b

80. Choose the most appropriate treatment for bacterial vaginosis:a. Penicillinb. Metronidasolec. Doxycicilined. Ceftriaxonee. Ampicilline

b

81. Choose the most appropriate treatment for Neiseria gonorrhea infection:a. Penicillinb. Metronidasolec. Doxycicilined. Ceftriaxonee. Ampicilline

d

82. Choose the most appropriate treatment for syphilis:a. Penicillinb. Metronidasolec. Doxycicilined. Ceftriaxonee. Ampicilline

a

83. Select the most appropriate therapy for congenital adrenal hyperplasiaa. estrogens and progestinsb. hydrocortisonec. progestinsd. prostaglandin inhibitorse. none of the above

b

84. What is the cariotype in Turner’s syndromea. X0b. XXc. XYd. XXYe. XYY

a

85. Cariotype X0, absence of secondary sexual characteristics, primary amenorrhea, short stature, somatic abnormalities. Diagnosis?a. Kallman’s syndromeb. Morris’s syndromec. Klinefelter’s syndromed. Turner’s syndromee. Cushing’s syndrome

d

86. Cariotype XY, normal breast development, absence of pubic hear, amenorrhea, male gonads, vaginal pouch. Diagnosis?a. Kallman’s syndromeb. Morris’s syndromec. Klinefelter’s syndromed. Turner’s syndromee. Cushing’s syndrome

b

87. All of the following are contraindications to postmenopausal estrogen replacement therapy EXCEPTa. hypertensionb. acute liver diseasec. familial history of thromboembolic eventsd. pelvic relaxatione. premenopausal mastectomy for breast cancer

d

88. Risk factors for cervical cancer are the following EXCEPT:a. first intercourse during adolescent years b. multiple sexual partnersc. cigarette smokingd. yearly menopausee. immunosuppression, including HIV infection

d

89. Most circulating testosterone in women is derived from which of the following sources?a. fatb. ovaryc. skin d. adrenal glande. muscle

d

90. The most frequent category of ovarian tumors are:

a. epithelial tumorsb. sex cord stromal neoplasmsc. germ cell tumorsd. teratomase. endodermal sinus tumors

a

91. Select the most appropriate therapy for dysmenorrheaa. clomiphene citrateb. hydrocortisonec. progestinsd. prostaglandin inhibitorse. none of the above

d

92. Colposcopy is a method of diagnosing pathology of:a. ovaryb. fallopian tubesc. cervixd. uteruse. vulva

c

93. Which of the following is a typical symptom associated with an abnormally enlarged 6- to 8-week myomatous uterus?a. acute crampy painb. urinary frequencyc. constipationd. urinary retentione. none of the above

e

COMPLEMENT MULTIPLU

94. Which of the following may be an early warning sigh of preeclampsia?a. weight gain during the last months of pregnancyb. generalized edema especially of the face c. leg crampsd. edema of the feet at the end of the daye. pain on passing urine

a, b

95. What are important sighs of magnesium sulphate over-dosage?a. respiratory depression

b. hyperventilationc. a urine output of less than 30 ml per hourd. depressed tendon reflexese. tachycardia

a, d

96. Which of the following women has high risk of preeclampsia?a. a patient with a history of preeclampsia starting early in the third trimester of a previous pregnancyb. a patient with chronic hypertension c. grande multiparasd. twin pregnancye. a patient with a history of postpartum hemorrhage

a, b, d

97. Which of the following patients are at increased risk of placenta praevia?a. patients with multiple abortionsb. nuliparasc. patients with intra-uterine fetal growth retardationd. patients who smokee. patients with a history of premature delivery

a, d

98. Vaginal bleeding due to placenta praevia is usually associated with:a. fetal parts that are difficult to feel and an absent fetal heart beatb. fetal head not engaged c. a uterus that is relaxed and not tender on palpationd. lower abdominal paine. bright red color of the blood

b, c, e

99. Choose the correct statements regarding chorioamnionitis:a. it causes all cases of preterm laborb. it usually follows preterm rupture of membranesc. should be treated with combination of antibioticsd. it only occurs in patients with vaginitise. the most frequent sign is backache

b, c

100. Which complications are common if diabetes is not well controlled?a. fetal macrosomia

b. preeclampsiac. oligohydramniosd. polihydramniose. premature delivery

a, b, d

7. Clinical criteria of chorioamnionitis include:a. headache and backacheb. vaginal bleedingc. fetal tachycardiad. purulent vaginal discharge e. fever more than 38C

c, d, e

101. Which patients are at high risk of preterm labor?a. patients who book early in pregnancyb. patents with twin pregnancyc. patients living in low socio-economic circumstancesd. patients with bacterial vaginosise. patients with a history of preterm labor in previous pregnancy

b, c, d, e

102. Management of patient with premature prelabor rupture of membranes include:a. bimanual exploration of the cervixb. prophylactic administration of antibioticsc. administration of corticosteroidsd. transfer to a maternity with neonatological intensive care unite. estimation of gestational age as accurate as possible

b, c, d, e

103. How should the fetal heart rate be monitored in labor?a. a cardiotocograph (CTG) should be used in high risk laborsb. in low risk pregnancies a fetal stethoscope is adequatec. a doptone should be used in all high risk pregnanciesd. the fetal heart rate does not need to be monitored in all low risk pregnanciese. if admission CTG is normal, fetal heart rate should not be monitored in labor

a, b

104. Which of the following are contraindications to giving syntometrine during the third stage of labor?

a. an atonic uterus

b. hypotension after deliveryc. gestational hypertension d. preeclampsia e. fetal macrosomia

c, d

105. Which drugs are used for prevention of postpartum hemorrhagea. Oxitocinb. ergometrinec. calcium gluconated. ritodrine. syntometrine

a, b, e

106. Which oxytocic drugs may be given if there is a contraindication to the use of syntometrine?

a. ergometrineb. a combination of oxytocin and ergometrinec. oxitocind. prostaglandin E2e. misoprostol

c, d, e

107. Active management of the third stage of labor includes following components :a. giving an oxytocic in the first minute after delivery b. waiting for the signs of placental separation when the patient is asked to bear

down and spontaneously deliver the placentac. pulling down steadily on the umbilical cord and pushing the uterus up when the

patient has a contractiond. giving an oxytocic drug when the signs of placental separation appear so that the

placenta can be spontaneously deliverede. massage of the uterus after delivery of placenta

a, c, e

108. What are infrequent causes of postpartum hemorrhage:a. cervical and vaginal tearsb. uterine inversion c. DIC syndrome d. Coagulopathye. Uterine atonia

b, c, d

109. Which complications are common if diabetes is not well controlled?a. Fetal macrosomiab. Preeclampsiac. oligohydramniosd. polihydramniose. premature delivery

a, b, d

110. Normal maternal adjustments in pregnancy include:a. rise in cardiac outputb. hemodilutionc. decrease of diastolic pressured. increase in plasma volumee. decrease in red blood cell mass

a, b, c, d

111. The causes of oligohydramnios are:a. fetal growth retardationb. renal agenesisc. preeclampsiad. neural tube defectse. prelabor rupture of membranes

a, b, c, e

96. The causes of polyhydramnios are:a. maternal diabetesb. absence of esophagusc. neural tube defectsd. preeclampsia e. renal agenesis

a, b, c

112. The fetus with postmaturity syndrome has the following:a. loss of subcutaneous fatb. short fingernailsc. dry, peeling skind. long fingernails e. abundant vernix caseosa

a, c, d

113. Indications for a cesarean section include:a. previous cesarean sectionb. placenta previac. fetal distressd. cervical cerclagee. cord prolapse

a, b, c, e

114. What is indicated for prevention of respiratory distress syndrome in premature neonates: a. heparinb. oxitocinc. dexamethasoned. magnesium sulphatee. betamethasone

c, e

115. What is indicated to stop premature uterine contractions: a. ritodrinb. oxytocinc. dexametazond. nifedipinee. indometacine

a, d, e

116. Atrophic vaginitis would be expected in the following clinical situations:a. menopauseb. oral contraceptive usec. surgical castration in a young womand. pseudomenopause during endometriosis therapye. dysfunctional uterine bleeding

a, c, d

117. Which statements concerning the function of progesterone are correct:A. it prepares endometrium for nidationB. it relaxes the myometriumC. it elevates serum binding proteinD. it increase basal body temperatureE. it is secreted by hypothalamus

a, b, d

118. Normal vaginal health depends on the following factors:a. a pH of 4.5b. Doderlein’s bacilli

c. Estrogend. Escherichia colie. Lactic acid production

a, b, c, e

119. The following are characteristic for androgen insensitivity syndrome (testicular feminization)a. normal breast developmentb. absence of pubic hearc. amenorrhead. presents of uterus and tubese. male gonads

a, b, c, e

120. Choose drugs used for treatment for Candida vaginitis:a. Penicillinb. Miconazolc. Nistatind. Ketoconazole e. Metronidazole

b, c, d

121. Amenorrhea in a 16-year-old girl may result from the following conditionsa. imperforate hymenb. androgen insensitivity syndromec. Turner’s syndromed. granulosa-theca cell tumore. estrogen producing tumor

a, b, c

122. What are the characteristics of follicular phase:a. variable lengthb. an elevated basal body temperaturec. development of ovarian folliclesd. secretion of estrogen from the ovarye. vascular growth of the endometrium

a, c, d, e

123. Factors that are important in the pathophysiology of pelvic inflammatory disease include:a. intrauterine device useb. intercoursec. menstruationd. pregnancy terminatione. uterine fibroids

a, b, c, d

124. Which the following are characteristics of lutheal phase:a. a fairly constant duration of 12-16 daysb. a decreased basal body temperaturec. the formation of corpus luteum of the ovaryd. secretion of progesteronee. development of dominant follicle

a, c, d

125. Which statements are incorrect:a. FSH stimulates follicular growthb. GhRH is secreted in a pulsatile mannerc. LH stimulates secretion of estrogens by granulosa cellsd. GhRH stimulates synthesis and release of both FSH and LHe. Progesterone decrease basal body temperature

c, e

126. Physiologic changes effected by oral contraceptives include:A. suppression of ovulationB. hostile cervical mucusC. a hypo-estrogenic stateD. inactive endometriumE. increase of gonadotropins

a, b, d

127. Which diseases and consequences are produced by Chlamidia trachomatis infection:a. acute salpingitisb. ectopic pregnancyc. muco-purulent cervicitis d. cervical cancere. urethritis

a, b, c, e

128. The etiologic factors of vulvovaginitis are:a. Candidab. Trichomonusc. Lack of estrogensd. Neiseria gonorrheae. Chlamidia trachomatis

a, b, c

129. The symptoms and signs of polycystic ovary disease are:a. obesityb. infertilityc. hyrsutismd. polymenorrhea

e. increased volume of ovaries

a, b, c, e

130. Choose drugs used for treatment for Chlamidia trachomatis infection:a. penicillinb. metronidasolec. doxycicilined. ceftriaxonee. eritromicine

c, e

131. Which are the characteristics of Turner ‘s syndromea. cariotype X0b. primary amenorrheac. somatic abnormalitiesd. increased levels of estrogense. increased levels of gonadotropins

a, b, c, e

132. Select the options for treatment for dysfunctional uterine bleedinga. estrogens and progestinsb. hydrocortisonec. progestinsd. prostaglandin inhibitorse. vacuum aspiration

a, c, e

133. The following hormones are produced in anterior pituitary:a. FSHb. Prolactinc. LHd. Vasopresine. TSH

a, b, c, e

134. The occurrence of menstruation is dependent upon the following factors:a. gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GhRH)b. an endometrium responsive to sex steroidsc. gonadotropinsd. patent fallopian tubese. ovarian steroidal hormones

a, b, c, e

135. Procedures for treatment of cervical dysplasias are:a. electrocauteryb. cryotherapyc. laparoscopyd. cold coagulatione. laser vaporization

a, b, d, e

136. Risk factor for endometrial cancer are:a. obesityb. chronic anovulation/polycystic ovary diseasec. first intercourse during adolescent years d. late menopausee. exogenous unopposed estrogen

a, b, d, e

137. Ovarian tumors producing hormones are:a. granulosa cell tumorsb. theca cell tumorsc. Sertoli-Leidig cell tumorsd. endometriod tumorse. gonadoblastoma

a, b, c, e

138. Elevated gonadotropin levels are expected with which of the following conditions associated with amenorrhea?A. Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndromeB. Resistant ovary syndromC. Gonadal dysgenesisD. Anorexia nervosaE. Pituitary adenoma

b, c

139. An increased incidence of ectopic pregnancy has been associated with the following:a. Endometriosisb. Chronic salpingitisc. Adenomyosisd. Use of intrauterine devise (IUD)e. Oral hormonal contraception

A, b, d

140. Known consequences of pelvic inflammatory disease include:a. endometriosisb. ectopic pregnancyc. pelvic adhesionsd. sterility

e. ovarian epithelial tumors

b, c, d

141. Which drug combinations would be appropriate in the management of acute pelvic inflammatory disease:a. doxycycline/metronidasoleb. cefoxitin/doxycyclinec. ofloxacine/clindamicined. ampicilline/gentamicinee. penicilline / amoxicilline

a, b, c

142. Submucous myomas may be associated with the following signs and symptoms :a. abnormal bleedingb. reproductive failurec. anemiad. compression of adjacent organse. pedunculated characteristics

a, b, c, e

143. Defects in corpus luteum function may be demonstrated by the following procedures:a. measurement of basal body temperatureb. endometrial byopsy and histology datingc. measurement of serum progesterone levelsd. measurement of serum estrogen levelse. measurement of FSH/LH levels

a, b, c

144. Which procedures are appropriate for evaluation of the endometrial cavitya. laparoscopyb. endometrial biopsyc. hysterescopyd. colposcopy e. hysterography

b, c, e

145. Therapy for the correction of a cervical factor in infertility includes the following:a. intrauterine inseminationb. progesterone in the second phase of menstrual cycle c. antibioticsd. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) injectione. in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer

a, c, e

146. Which factors are evidence that ovulation occurred:a. a rise in basal body temperatureb. estrogen level above 25 mcg/ml c. progesterone level above 3 ng/mld. secretory endometriume. the occurrence of menses

a, c, d

147. A poor postcoital test can be reflective of the following:a. blocked fallopian tubesb. low sperm countc. poor sperm motilityd. poor cervical mucuse. low level of gonadotropins

b, c, d

148. Myomas are associated with the following clinical conditions:a. anemiab. dysuria c. low vaginal pH d. dysmenorrheae. amenorrhea

a, b, d

149. Abnormalities in the cervical mucus may result from the following conditions:a. colonization of the cervix with cytotoxic organismsb. uterine retroversionc. chronic infection of the cervixd. previous electro-cauterization of the cervixe. anti-sperm antibodies

a, c, d, e

150. Bacterial vaginosis is diagnosed based on following features:a. a pH of 6.0b. “clue” cellsc. a pH <4,5 d. positive “whiff” test (KOH)e. response to doxycycline

a, b, d